Secrets of the ARRT® Exams Study Guide, Exams of Medicine

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Secrets of the ARRT® Exams Study Guide

What is angiography? A. radiographic exam of veins B. radiographic exam of arteries C. radiographic exam of vessels D. the study of vascular flow patterns - Answer : C What term describes a guide wire in which position of the inside portion can be varied? A. J guide wire B. straight guide wire C. fixed core D. moveable core - D How is the measurement of the flow rate of an automatic contrast injector determined? A. contrast amount delivered per time B. Heating device C. contrast volume times contrast rate D. syringe size - A Which of the following is used during cardiac catheterization?

1. Guide wire
2. Catheter
3. Pressure injector A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 - D What is a normal adult Blood Pressure A. 100/ B. 120/ C. 120/ D. 160/80 - C What is pitressin? A. Vasopressin B. Corticosteroid C. Diazepam

D. Atropine - A What is the best projection for left ventriculography? A. 30 degrees RAO B. 60 degrees RAO C. 20 degrees LAO D. 45 degrees LAO - A Which of the following describes the response of a catheter to twisting and turning? A. torque B. memory C. friction D. control - A Which French size catheter has an outer diameter of 2.31 mm? A. four B. five C. six D. seven - D A 2.31 mm outer diameter catheter equals 7 French scale. Each 0.33 mm equals approximately 1 French How long is the injection time for 12ml of contrast media delivered at 2.5 ml/sec? A. 0.2 sec B. 2.5 sec C. 4.8 sec D. 30 sec - C What does the acronym "PSI" represent? A. probable significant instances B. Partly saturated intravenously C. pounds per square inch D. pounds per inch - PSI stands for: pounds per square inch Which of the following can be avoided by proper use of a automatic injector pressure limit control?

1. Vessel damage
2. catheter whipping
3. catheter breakage A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3 - Proper use of an automatic injector pressure control avoids vessel damage, catheter whipping, and catheter damage. Which of the following are the functions of a digital image processor?
4. digitizing television frames
5. displaying digital images
6. storing digital images A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - A digital processor digitizes television frames and stores, displays, and manipulates them. What effect does the addition of side holes in a catheter have on the total flow rate? A. 10 to 20 percent increase B. 50 to 60 percent increase C. 10 to 20 percent decrease D. 50 to 60 percent decrease - The addition of side holes in a catheter will increase the flow rate to 10 to 20 percent. What is the area relationship indicated by the power factor of an automated injector?
7. power cylinder
8. catheter
9. syringe A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - The power factor of an automatic power injector indicates the area relationship of the power cylinder to the syringe How long is the injection time for 12ml of contrast media delivered at 2.5 ml/sec? A. 0.2 sec B. 2.5 sec C. 4.8 sec D. 30 sec - Answer: C Injection time is calculated as volume/time, so 12/2.5 equals 4.8 seconds

Which of the following describe exact framing of a fluoroscopic image in a Cine film system?

1. the circular image intensifier image is included within the square film frame.
2. the diameter of the intensifier image is equal to the mean of the transverse dimensions of the useful square film area.
3. The diameter of the intensifier image is equal to the diagonal dimensions of the useful square film area. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1,2, and 3 - Answer: A Exact framing of a fluoroscopic image for Cine film recording includes the entire fluoroscopic with the circular image within the square film frame Which of the following can be avoided by proper use of a automatic injector pressure limit control?
4. Vessel damage
5. catheter whipping
6. catheter breakage A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3 - Answer: D Proper use of an automatic injector pressure control avoids vessel damage, catheter whipping, and catheter damage. What effect does the addition of side holes in a catheter have on the total flow rate? A. 10 to 20 percent increase B. 50 to 60 percent increase C. 10 to 20 percent decrease D. 50 to 60 percent decrease - Answer: A What is the area relationship indicated by the power factor of an automated injector?
7. power cylinder
8. catheter
9. syringe A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer: B Which of the following devices permits simultaneoulsy cine recording and viewing of a fluoroscopic image?

A. Grid biased X-RAY tube B. High frequency generator C. beam splitting mirror D. roll film camera - Answer: C Which of the following are important considerations when selecting the proper diameter of a guide wire?

1. size of vascular catheter
2. vessel size
3. contrast media bolus volume A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer: A Which of the following is not a proper technique of custom shaping of a catheter? A. the cut tip should be smooth B. shape the tip in hot water C. fix the tip in cold water D. punch side hole opposite one another - Answer: D Which of the following are inversely proportional to contrast delivery rate?
4. catheter length
5. catheter diameter
6. more side holes A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer: A How long is the injection time for 30ml of contrast media delivered at 3.7ml/sec? A. 0.1sec B. 4.5sec C. 8.1sec D. 111sec - Answer: C Injection time is calculated as volume/time, so 30/3.7=8.1 seconds. What is the primary reason that guide wires must have a flexible tip? A. to permit bending and avoid damage to vascular walls B. to permit whip lash to occur C. to avoid unraveling

D. to avoid clotting - Answer: A The primary reason guide wires must have a flexible tip is to permit bending and avoid vascular wall damage. What term describes the thin wire along which a catheter will be threaded when it is inserted into a vessel? A. French catheter B. Seldinger needle C. guide wire D. J wire - Answer C Which of the following increases the flow rate of contrast media? A. decreased pressure B. decreased viscosity C. increased catheter length D. decreased catheter diameter - Answer: B Decreased viscosity of contrast material will increase the flow rate. Decreased pressure, increased catheter length, and decreased catheter diameter will all decrease the flow rate. What term describes the size of a needle lumen? A. cannula thickness B. coil size C. core size D. gauge - Answer D The needle lumen is identified by a gauge number. The higher the gauge number, the smaller the inner diameter of the lumen and vice versa. What is the purpose of the slow withdrawal of the needle after arterial penetration in the Seldinger technique? A. avoidance of major nerves B. reduction of blood clotting C. to attain good blood return D. to avoid vascular shock - Answer C The purpose of the slow withdrawal of the needle after arterial penetration in the Seldinger technique is to attain good blood return. What is zero time? A. the time between exposure switch contact and initiation of exposure B. the time necessary for the electronics in an automatic film changer to respond. C. the time between contrast material injection and the initiation of exposure D. the time between x-ray exposure and the injection of contrast material -

Answer B What can be determined when dividing the volume of contrast material delivered by the rate of injection? A. coefficient of contrast media viscosity B. length of time of injection C. arterial pressure per cc D. length of catheter in centimeters - Answer B Which of the following procedures would indicate the use of a multiple side hole catheter?

1. abdominal aorta
2. aortic arch
3. renal artery A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer A What technique is used to introduce the catheter during a percutaneous transluminal angioplasty? A. cut-down method B. Thompson technique C. Seldinger technique D. Addison technique - Answer C Which of the following are unacceptable placement of catheter holes?
4. directly opposing side holes
5. taper tip placement
6. side holes at curvature A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer D What is the average adult guide wire length for a selective vessel procedure? A. 30 to 40 cm B. 50 to 60 cm C. 70 to 80 cm D. 100 to 150 cm - Answer D Which of the following are desirable characteristics of a cine film transport system?
7. flickerless image projection

2. single frame ability
3. variable forward and reverse A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer D Flickerless image projection, single frame ability, and variable forward and reverse are all desirable characteristics of a cine film transport system What are the major sources of random noise in a digital fluoroscopy image?
4. unshielded electrical devices
5. quantum noise from fluctuations in photon density
6. electronic noise from the TV chain A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer C What is the most common Seldinger technique approach? A. femoral artery B. common iliac artery C. brachial artery D. femoral vein - Answer A In which of the following situations would it be possible to proceed with a radiographic procedure although the patient clearly indicates refusal?
7. the patient is a minor and the parents give permission
8. the patient is over 95
9. the patient is a prisoner in the custody of an officer of the law, who gives permission A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer B What legal doctrine, now in decline, holds that the employer is responsible for the acts of the radiographer? A. assault and battery B. res ipsa loquitor C. repondeat superior D. habeas corpus - Answer C

Which of the following legal principles is violated by discussing patient information with a friend outside the medical setting?

1. invasion of privacy
2. professional negligence
3. assault and battery A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer A What is the most appropriate action if a patient denies knowledge of the possible effects of the use of contrast material? A. terminate the examination B. explain the effects and then proceed C. proceed with the examination D. consult with legal counsel - Answer B Which of the following procedures normally would require a signed form to verify informed consent?
4. angiogram
5. cardiac catheterization
6. lung tomograms A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer A Which of the following is a valid method of verifying patient identification?
7. questioning patient
8. reading wrist identification band
9. checking bed name plate A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer D Which of the following should be checked prior to an intravascular contrast study?
10. allergies
11. cardiac history
12. renal history A. 1 only B. 2 only

C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer D Which of the following rules should be observed when charting patient records?

1. initial and date corrections
2. use liquid paper to delete and error
3. loose or gummed slips of paper A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer A Which of the following laboratory assessments would be indicated for an intravascular contrast study?
4. BUN
5. creatinine
6. proteinuria A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer D What causes positive contrast material to produce an area of reduced image density? A. scatter of primary photons B. absorption of primary photons C. scatter of secondary photons D. absorption of secondary photons - Answer B Which of the following documents are part of the patient's medical record?
7. record of medications given
8. consent forms
9. radiographs A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer D What term describes the resistance of contrast material due to the attraction of molecules to each other? A. persistence B. toxicity

C. miscibility D. viscosity - Answer D What term describes a solution with an ionic concentration higher than normal body fluids? A. isotonic B. hyperostatic C. hyperosmolar D. osmotic - Answer: C Hyperosmolar solutions have an ionic concentration higher than normal body fluids. Which of the following should be noted in the patient's medical chart?

1. mild itching following injection of contrast material
2. pain at puncture site
3. flushed feeling following injection of contrast material A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer A Which of the following can be used as a local anesthetic? A. morphine hydrochloride B. acetaminophen C. reserpine D. lidocaine - D. Lidocaine is used as a local anesthetic in cardiovascular studies. Which of the following drugs would relax vascular walls to permit greater flow? A. stimulant B. Diuretic C. vasodilator D. anticoagulant - C. A vasodilator will relax vascular walls to permit greater blood flow. Which of the following are used to reduce patient anxiety? A. atropine B. amphetamine C. diazepam D. nitroglycerin - C. Diazepam (valium) is commonly used to relieve short term anxiety. It also used as an anticonvulsant and antispasmodic.

What type of drug should be considered for a patient who complains of having "tongue thickness"? A. antihistamine B. sedative C. anesthetic D. anticoagulant - A. Antihistamines, which are used to relieve symptoms caused by nasal, drug, food, and skin allergies. It should be considered for patient who complains of having "tongue thickness". Which of the following are characteristics of non-ionic contrast material?

1. cause fewer adverse reactions
2. do not disrupt homeostasis
3. do not disassociate in solution A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - D. Non-ionic contrast material causes fewer adverse reactions. They do not disrupt homeostasis, and does not disassociate in solutions. What does the P wave indicate on and EKG? A. atrial depolarization B. recovery C. ventricular depolarization D. ventricular repolarization - A Which of the following describes the time necessary for a stimulus to spread throughout the atria and AV junction? A. P wave B. P-R interval C. QRS complex D. S-T segment - B. The P-R interval is the time necessary for the stimulus to spread through the atria and AV junction. What is the normal range of peak systolic right ventricular pressure? A. 0.1-1.0 mm/Hg B. 5-10 mm/Hg C. 20-30 mm/Hg D. 100-140 mm/Hg - C.

The range of peak systolic right ventricular pressure is 20-30 mm/Hg How many successive atrial ectopic beats constitutes PAT? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 - C Approximately what level of breathing is necessary to avoid cyanosis in an adult? A. 2 breaths per minute B. 10 breaths per minute C. 20 breaths per minute D. 30 breaths per minute - B. Approximately 10 breaths per minute is required to avoid cyanosis in an adult. What is indicated by the vertical lines of an EKG graph? A. voltage B. time C. deflections D. temperature - B Time is indicated by the vertical lines on an EKG graph. What is represented by the QRS complex on an EKG? A. ventricular depolarization B. ventricular repolarization C. atrial depolarization D. recovery - A Which portion of the EKG signifies depolarization of the ventricles? A. down slope of the T wave B. QRS complex C. P wave D. PR segment - B. The QRS complex of an EKG signifies the depolarization of the ventricles. Which of the following are recommended to assure reliable pressure recordings?

1. minimizing connecting tubing length
2. flushing with saline solution
3. checking zero adjustments A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3 - D Which of the following drugs controls cardiac arrythmias? A. digitalis B. quinidine procainamide C. amphetamine D. diazepam - B Which of the following describes a region of the heart that is necrotic? A. cardiac arrhythmia B. embolism C. thrombosis D. myocardial infarction - D What is the most efficient route for administration of medications to counteract adverse reactions? A. subcutaneous B. intravenous C. intramuscular D. oral - B Which of the following drugs are considered essential for CPR?

1. oxygen
2. lidocaine
3. epinephrine A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3 - D Which of the following is a clot of blood that has traveled through vasculature and clogged a vessel? A. myocardial infarction(MI) B. embolis C. thrombosis D. trans ischemic attack(TIA) - B Which of the following is a vasodilator? A. reserpine

B. vasopressin C. nitroglycerin D. glucagon - C Which of the following are valid artificial ventilation methods?

1. tracheal intubation
2. cricothyreotomy
3. bag-valve-mask A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3 only - D Which of the following lessens the likelihood of a vasovagal reaction after the injection of contrast material into the coronary arteries? A. heparin B. atropine C. nitroglycerin D. streptokinase - B Which of the following describes the formation of material inside a vessel that reduces blood flow? A. cardiac arrhythmia B. embolism C. thrombosis D. myocardial infarction - C What type of shock is caused by an abnormally low volume of circulating blood? A. anaphylactic B. neurogenic C. hypovolemic D. cardiogenic - C What is the normal adult temperature? A. 34 C B. 37 C C. 39 C D. 41 C - B What is syncope?

A. fainting B. nose bleed C. dyspnea D. anaphylaxis - A How long should anticoagulants be withheld before an angiogram? A. 4hrs B. 12hrs C. 24hrs D. 48hrs - A For which of the following conditions are corticosteroids and diuretics useful?

1. anxiety
2. pulmonary edema
3. adult respiratory distress A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3 - C Why is anaphylactic shock the type of shock most often seen in angiography? A. it is caused by contrast media use B. most angiography patients are very weak C. its effects are enhanced by radiation D. many angiographic patients are hypertensive - A What is the normal number of adult respirations per minute? A. 7- B. 12- C. 20- D. 25-30 - B What type of shock is caused by the pooling of blood due to the failure of arterial resistance? A. hypovolemic B. cardiogenic C. neurogenic D. anaphylactic - C Which of the following describes a sudden distant cerebral neurologic deficient of presumed vascular origin usually lasting a few minutes?

A. transient ischemic attack(TIA) B. steady progressive from onset(SPO) C. single catastrophic episode(SCE) D. occlusive vascular disease(OVD) - A What condition occurs when patients who have diabetes melitus have an excessive amount of insulin in their blood? A. hypoglycemia B. neurogenic shock C. ataxia D. anaphylactic - A Hypoglycemia occurs when a patient who has diabetes melitus have an excess of insulin in their blood. This is a consideration if they have not had sufficient sugar over preceding hours, especially after being NPO prior to the angiographic study. Which of the following describes a stroke-in-progress as a series of neurologic problems over a period of days? A. transient ischemic attack(TIA) B. steady progressive from onset(SPO) C. single catastrophic episode(SCE) D. occlusive vascular disease(OVD) - B Which of the following sterilization methods can be used on electronic equipment?

1. boiling
2. gas
3. pressurized steam A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1,2, and 3 - B What is the primary purpose of strict(reverse) isolation procedures? A. to protect persons entering the isolation room B. to protect patients from persons entering the isolation room C. to supress insect vectors D. to counteract viral infections with bacteria - B What is the primary concern in respiratory isolation? A. blood B. airborne droplets C. fecal material

D. semen - B Which of the following is the proper formula for calculating magnification? A. FFD/FOD (SID/SOD) B. FFD/OFD (SID/OID) C. FOD/FFD (SOD/SID) D. OFD/FOD (OID/SOD - A Magnification is calculated as FFD/FOD (SID/SOD). Which of the pulmonary vessels arises from the pulmonary conus of the right ventricle and courses upward to bifurcation? A. right pulmonary artery B. right pulmonary vein C. main pulmonary artery D. left pulmonary vein - C The main pulmonary artery arises from the pulmonary conus of the right ventricle and courses upward until it bifurcates into the right and left pulmonary branches Which circulation provides the majority of the blood supply for oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange? A. pulmonary B. peripheral C. portal D. systemic - A The pulmonary circulation provides the majority of blood supply for oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange. Which of the following describes the pulmonary circulation? A. right ventricle to lungs to left atrium B. right ventricle to lungs to right atrium C. right ventricle to lungs to left ventricle D. left ventricle to lungs to right atrium - A The pulmonary circulation flows from the right ventricle to the lungs to the left atrium. What is the approximate average peak systolic pulmonary arterial pressure? A. 8 mm/Hg B. 22 mm/Hg C. 80 mm/Hg D. 120 mm/Hg - B

Which of the following must be used to obtain pulmonary arterial pressure measurements? A. contrast material B. transducer C. angioplasty balloon D. Foley catheter - B What will the magnification factor be for an object placed 20'' from the x-ray tube source and 20'' from the image receptor? A. 1x B. 1.5x C. 2x D. 4x - C According to the magnification formula FFD/FOD (SID/SOD) =40/20=2. What type of catheter is used for pulmonary arteriography? A. pigtail B. curved tip C. Grollman D. Simmons - C Which of the following would be studied angiographically to confirm hypertension? A. splenic B. femoral C. renal D. coronary - C What term describers an abnormal anatomical form, structure, or position that is present at birth? A. aneurysm B. stenosis C. congenital anomaly D. aortic insufficiency - C What is the most common cause of narrowing of the renal artery lumen? A. arteriosclerosis B. shock C. capsular rupture D. fused kidneys - A What is the most common cause of arterial stenosis? A. atherosclerosis

B. aplasia C. hematoma D. ischemia - A What is the name given the innermost wall of an artery? - The Intima Which of the following indicates the normal range for partial thromboplastin time (PTT)? A. 5-10 sec B. 10-15 sec C. 20-35 sec D. 60-90 sec - C PTT is normally 20-35 seconds For what purpose is acetylcholine used? A. vasoconstriction B. vasodilation C. anti-inflammation D. anti-hypertension - B Which of the following can be accomplished with various types of balloon catheters?

1. temporary occlusion
2. permanent occlusion
3. angioplasty A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - D Various types of balloon catheters are used for both permanent and temporary occlusion as well as angioplasty. Which of the following is the most critical part of an angioplasty procedure? A. passing the guidewire and catheter through the lesion B. bleeding at the puncture site C. balloon dilation of the lesion D. withdrawing the balloon catheter - A Which of the following are long term occluding materials?
4. gianturco coil
5. polyvinyl alcohol foam

3. gelfoam A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - A A Gianturco coil and polyvinyl alcohol foam are long term occluding materials. Gelfoam is a temporary occluder. What procedure begins by passing a wire guide through a narrowed area of artery? A. vasodilator infusion B. intravascular thrombolysis C. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty D. embolectomy - C Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty begins by passing a wire guide through a narrowed area of an artery. A catheter is then passed over the wire guide through the stenosis to begin the dilation process. Which of the following agents may be used both before and after an angioplasty procedure? A. gelfoam B. heparin C. vasopressin D. epinephrine - B Where does the ascending aorta terminate? A. brachiocephalic trunk B. descending aorta C. left ventricle D. arch of the aorta - D Which of the following is a direct puncture of the aorta? A. intravenous aortography B. translumbar aortography C. percutaneous transhepatic aortography D. percutaneous catheter aortography - B How long should compression remain following removal of an arterial catheter? A. 2 min B. 5 min C. 10 min D. 30 min - C

Which of the following is a separation of the walls of the aorta? A. aneurysm B. dissection C. stenosis D. insufficiency - B What is the correct angioplasty balloon diameter compared to the measured diameter of the vessel? A. 1.5 - 2.5 mm smaller B. 0.5 - 1.5 mm smaller C. the same size as the area adjacent to the stenosis D. 0.5 - 1.5 mm larger - C An angioplasty balloon should be the same size as the measuring diameter of the vessel adjacent to the stenosis. Which of the following is a focal saccular or fusiform dilation of the aorta? A. aneursym B. dissection C. stenosis D. insufficiency - A Which of the following describes the venous blood flow? A. vena cava to left atrium to left ventricle to pulmonary artery B. vena cava to right atrium to right ventricle to pulmomary artery C. vena cava to right atrium to right ventricle to pulmonary vein D. vena cava to right atrium to left atrium to pulmonary vein - B Which of the following are objectives of percutaneous transluminal angioplasty?

1. vessel patency
2. avoidance of distal emboli
3. vasoconstriction A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - A Vessel patency and avoidance of distal emboli are objectives of percutaneous transluminal angioplasty. In addition, creation of a smooth inner luminal surface, improvement in the blood flow pattern, and minimal disturbance of the wall structure are also goals. Vasoconstriction is not an objective of angioplasty.

Which of the following is the correct arterial flow? A. aorta to left aorta to common iliac to femoral B. aorta to femoral to common iliac C. aorta to common iliac to femoral D. aorta to popliteal to femoral - C What is the location of the femoral vein in relationship to the femoral artery? A. medial B. lateral C. anterior D. posterior - A When both femoral pulses are absent, what site should be used for the puncture site for a femoral arteriogram? A. left axillary artery B. right axillary artery C. left brachial artery D. right brachial artery - A Which of the following catheters are used for transluminal angioplasty?

1. laser-tipped
2. Swan-Ganz
3. Kensey A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - B Which of the following bypass grafts is preferable for revascularization? A. Gor-Tex B. artificial Dacron C. natural vein D. procine - C What is the correct order of vascular structures from the inner layer out? A. intima, media, adventitia B. intima, adventitia, media C. media adventitia, intima D. adventitia, media, intima - A

The vascular layers, from the inside out are the intima, media, and adventitia. What occurs to an atheromatous mass during transluminal angioplasty when a balloon catherter is used to enlarge the lumen of a vessel? A. it compresses B. it cracks C. it dissolves D. it elongates along the vessel wall - B Which of the following is required of patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal angioplasty? A. normal blood pressure B. normal creatinine and BUN levels C. ability to tolerate surgical repair of the vessel D. high pain tolerance level - C Which type of catheter vaporizes artherosclerotic lesions on the wall of a vessel? A.Simpson B. Kensey C. laser-heated D. laser-tipped - D Which of the following segments of a vessel are more likely artherosclerotic lesion sites?

1. bifurcation
2. straight
3. curved A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - B Which of the following procedures may utilize intravascular thrombolysis?
4. treatment of intracranial vessel spasms
5. treatment of myocardial infarction
6. acute thrombotic occlusion of peripheral vessels A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - C What is the most common placement of an inferior vena cava filter?

A. inferiorly near the common iliac bifurcation B. inferior to the renal veins C. between the renal and hepatic veins D. superior to the splenic vein - B Which of the following are types of intravascular foreign body retrieval devices?

1. snare loop catheter
2. helical loop basket
3. wide angle snare A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and3 - A What is the primary purpose of transstenotic pressure measurements?
4. evaluation of stenotic severity
5. measurement of angioplastic success
6. evaluation of vessel wall strength. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - A What is the result of successful dilation?
7. an increase in vascular pressure
8. a decrease in vascular flow
9. an increase in the diameter of the lumen A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and3 - C What term describes a narrowing of a valve? A. stenosis B. insufficiency C. sclerotic D. dissection - A Which of the following are indications for cardiac catheterization?
10. acute myocardial infarction
11. valvular heart disease