Joint Operations and Interagency Coordination, Exams of Nursing

Download Joint Operations and Interagency Coordination and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  The Missile Defense Agency (MDA) works with the combatant commanders (CCDRs) of the . (Select all that apply.) b, c, d a) None of the answers are correct b) United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) c) United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM) d) United States Pacific Command (USPACOM)  The main difference between Dining-In and Dining-Out for members of the Air Force is that spouses and other non-military guests may attend a Dining-In. b a) True b) False  Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.) b, c, d a) Checking the work of members from other Services b) Knowing the people around you c) Having competence in your area of the Service d) Knowing how to solve problems  Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at war or fully at peace. a a) True b) False  If something of an ethical nature is ever in doubt, commanders should contact their legal counsel for advice. a a) True b) False  There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United States? d 1. 8 2. 5 3. 6 4. 7  The is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI) representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. c a) JIACG b) HAST c) CMOC d) POLAD  Which of the following are considerations when hosting a formal dinner? a a) all of the answers are correct b) identify unique cultural considerations in a foreign country c) begin planning months in advance with the proposed guest list Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE d) print and mail invitations four to six weeks in advance e) plan the menu and walk through the upcoming evening's sequence of events  The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the , is organized into four like battalions and provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply capability in hostile or denied areas. c a) 106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment b) 101st Airborne Division (Air Assault) c) 160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment d) 3rd Combat Aviation Brigade  The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? c a) executive, deputies, and interagency coordination b) principals, deputies, and interagency policy c) strategic, operational, and tactical d) principals, deputies, and interagency working group  In a traditional cake-cutting ceremony the first piece of cake is given to the youngest Marine present, and the second piece of cake is given to the oldest Marine present. a a) True b) False  During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army's activities toward the stopping old rivalries and conflicts? c a) the collapse of the Warsaw Pact b) the rise of global terrorism c) the end of the Cold War d) the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states  The U.S. continues to become more dependent on the global domain within the information environment consisting of the interdependent network of information technology infrastructures, including the Internet, telecommunications networks, computer systems, and embedded processors and controllers. It is imperative that we safeguard this domain known as . d a) space b) networks c) information d) cyberspace  In 1798, the U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps were created. a a) True b) False  Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in building to the challenges and strains of military service. a a) resilience b) opposition c) vulnerability d) indifference Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) Life Saving Service c) Transportation Security Administration d) Lighthouse and Revenue Cutter Service e) Bureau of Navigation  Frequently a decisive element, the principle of joint operations is based on the legality, morality, and rightness of the actions undertaken. b a) patience b) objective c) restraint d) legitimacy  Developing and maintaining professional relationships with multinational partner's means . a a) recognizing that their training and education may differ, but it does not mean they are less dedicated or professional b) continually reinforcing our standards upon them c) continuously demonstrating our superiority over them d) treating them as professionals with limited skills  The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a, c a) coordination b) compromise c) communication d) consensus  The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). a, b, c, d a) intergovernmental b) interagency c) military d) multinational partners  Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process? d a) late in the planning process b) after all of the planning is completed c) somewhere - early, mid, or later - as long as they are included d) early in the planning process  The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is percent of the total Coast Guard. a a) 50 b) 30 c) 20 d) 10  The aspect of PME that focuses on imparting joint knowledge and attitudes is joint . d a) doctrine Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) education c) concepts d) training  The seizure and defense of naval bases is provided by which branch of the Armed Services? b a) Coast Guard b) Marines c) Army d) Navy e) Air Force  The term joint force commander refers exclusively to the following three types of commanders: c a) joint task force commander, functional component commander, and subunified commander b) combatant commander, Service component commander, and functional component commander c) Service component commander, combatant commander, and joint task force commander d) combatant commander, subordinate unified commander, and joint task force commander  Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? a a) maritime stewardship b) maritime safety c) maritime security  The organize, train, equip, and provide combat-ready forces to conduct operations as directed by the President and Secretary of Defense. a a) Joint Chiefs of Staff b) combatant commands c) joint task forces d) military departments  Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far greater extent than surface forces can. a a) True b) False  The most well-known Coast Guard mascot during World War II, who provided a morale boost to his crew, was named? a a) Skipper b) Sinbad c) Aladdin d) Smoky  Each geographic combatant command has a to plan and control special operations and other Special Operations Forces activities. c a) Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF) b) Regional Special Warfare Command (RSWC) c) Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC) d) Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)  Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) b, c, d a) major combat operations b) cyberspace operations Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE c) training of foreign militaries d) humanitarian assistance  is the process used to mitigate operational risks. Although created with military operations in mind, these procedures can be used to plan other activities. b a) Operational resource management b) Operational risk management c) Risk assurance d) Risk avoidance  Military-political considerations frequently cast special operations into clandestine or covert environments; therefore, their activities normally involve oversight at the level. c a) tactical b) national c) joint task force d) operational  Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) a, b, c a) upon a declaration of war b) when directed by the President c) when ordered by the Secretary of Defense  In the Chairman's White Paper, "America's Military - A Profession of Arms," this aspect of the Armed Forces is identified as the foundation of our profession. d a) Values b) Legal Authority c) Leadership d) Honor  What WWII conference established the Joint Chiefs of Staff? a) U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1) b) First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA) c) Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL) d) First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)  The 1986 Goldwater-Nicholas Act . a) Added the Commandant of the Marine Corps as a permanent and participating member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Clarified the chain of command and civilian control of the U.S. Military c) Provided the Chief of the National Guard Bureau full membership of the Joint chiefs of Staff  The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff provides a channel of communication between the President/SECDEF and the Combatant Commander. a) True b) False  National Security Agency (NSA) provides which of the following support: (Select all the apply) a) Solutions, products, and services b) Timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence c) Information systems security Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) Subordinate Unified Command c) Joint Task Force d) Service Component Command  The term Joint Force Commander refers exclusively to the following three (3) types of commanders: a) Combatant Commander, Subordinate Unified Commander, and Joint Task Force Commander b) Combatant Commander, Service Component Commander, and Functional Component Commander c) Joint Task Force Commander, Functional Component Commander, And Subunified Commander d) Service Component Commander, Combatant Commander, and Joint Task Force Commander  Joint Force Air Component (JFACC), Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC), and Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) are all examples of . a) Joint Task Force Commanders b) Subunified Commanders c) Service Component Commanders d) Functional Component Commanders  These commands are established by Combatant Commanders when authorized by the SecDef through the CJCS to conduct operations on a continuing basis in accordance with the criteria set forth for Unified Commands. They may be established on a geographic area basis such as the United States Forces Japan or on a functional basis such as Special Operations Command, Pacific. a) Combatant Commands b) Subordinate Unified Commands c) Joint Task Forces d) Functional Component Commands  Combatant Commanders exercise (command authority)) over assigned forces. This is the broadest command authority and may NOT be delegated or transferred. a) Administrative Control (ADCON) b) Operational Control (OPCON) c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Combatant Command (COCOM)  is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigned tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command. a) Combatant Command b) Operational Control (OPCON) c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Administrative Control (ADCON)  The four categories of support are . a) General, tactical, operational, and strategic b) Tactical, operational, direct, and common c) General, mutual, direct, and close d) Reinforcing, mutual, complementary, and close  Which of the following are instruments of national power? (Select all that apply.) a) Economics Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) Information c) The Military d) Diplomacy  The relevance of the interagency process at the strategic level to the Combatant Commander and the U.S. military is that the process yields America’s major national security policy decisions. a) True b) False  Provides commanders with an increased capability to coordinate with other U.S. Government agencies? a) Interagency Coordination b) DIME c) Annex V d) Joint Interagency Group (JIACG) e) Foreign Policy Advisor (POLAD)  The part of the CCRD’s Operation Plan that specifies not only the capabilities that military planners have determined the military may need, but also the interagency partners’ shared understanding of the situation, as well as the common objectives required to resolve the situation? a) Interagency Coordination b) DIME c) Annex V d) Joint Interagency Group (JIACG) e) Foreign Policy Advisor (POLAD)  The four most basic elements of national power? a) Interagency Coordination b) DIME c) Annex V d) Joint Interagency Group (JIACG) e) Foreign Policy Advisor (POLAD)  Providing U.S. Government foreign policy perspectives and diplomatic considerations, establishes linkages with U.S. embassies and State Department? a) Interagency Coordination b) DIME c) Annex V d) Joint Interagency Group (JIACG) e) Foreign Policy Advisor (POLAD)  The interaction that occurs between agencies of the U’S’ Government, including the Department of Defense (DoD), for the purpose of accomplishing the objective? a) Interagency Coordination b) DIME c) Annex V d) Joint Interagency Group (JIACG) e) Foreign Policy Advisor (POLAD)  Which organization is the principle policy-making forum responsible for the nation’s security strategy? Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) National Security Council (NSC) b) Department of Defense (DoD) c) Department of Homeland Security (DHS) d) U.S. Congress  What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply) a) It is often time-consuming b) It can be cumbersome c) No one is in charge, except the President d) Rarely is it effective Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE recovery operations, consequence management, strikes, raids, homeland defense, and defense support of civil authorities. a) Military engagement b) Crisis response and limited-contingency operations c) Security cooperation and deterrence activities d) Major combat operations and campaigns  Various joint operations such as a show of force or sanctions enforcement support by demonstrating national resolve and willingness to use force when necessary. a) Joint operation planning b) Prepositioning assets c) Deterrence d) Interagency coordination  The purpose of specifying the is to direct every military operation toward a clearly defined, decisive, and achievable goal. a) Center of gravity b) Critical vulnerability c) Objective d) Decisive point  The purpose of is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. a) Maneuver b) Mass c) Objective d) Offensive  Combatant Commanders and subordinate joint force commanders must work with U.S ambassadors (or diplomatic missions), Department of State, and other agencies to best integrate the military actions with the diplomatic, economic, and informational instruments of national power to promote . a) Unity of command b) Joint operations c) Economy of force d) Unity of effort  The purpose of is to maintain legal and moral authority in the conduct of operations. It is based on the actual and perceived legality, morality, and rightness of the acions from the various perspectives of interested audiences. a) Perseverance b) Legitimacy c) Restraint d) Security  helps prevent adversary action through the presentation of a credible threat is counteraction. It stems from the belief of a potential aggressor that a credible threat of retaliation exists, the contemplated action cannot succeed, or the costs outweigh any possible gains. a) Military engagement Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) Security cooperation c) Deterrence d) Deception  At the strategic level, encompasses those planning activities , such as continuity of operations and continuity of government, undertaken to ensure DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and SECDEF in a designated national security emergency. a) Military engagement b) Emergency preparedness c) Security cooperation d) Crisis action planning  Combating terrorism involves actions taken to oppose terrorism from wherever the threat exists, and encompasses -defensive measures taken to reduce vulnerability to terrorist acts-and - offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, preempt, and respond to terrorism. a) Consequence management, emergency preparedness b) Counterterrorism, antiterrorism c) Force protection, counterinsurgency d) Antiterrorism, counterterrorism  An operation that employs coercive measures to interdict the movement of certain types of designated items into or out of a nation or specified area is known as . a) Antiterrorism b) Arms control c) Enforcement of sanctions d) Show of force  The DoD contribution to a unified action effort to support and augment the development of the capacity and capability of foreign security forces and their supporting institutions to facilitate the achievement of specific objectives shared by the USG is called . a) Enforcing exclusion zones b) Show of force c) Security force assistance d) Sanctions enforcement  Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve, and involve the appearance of a credible military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as operations. a) Economy of force b) Show of force c) Enforcement d) Nation assistance  Joint force commanders must integrate and synchronize offensive, defensive, and stability operations that compromise major operations and campaigns. Planning for stability operations should begin . a) Near the end of joint operation planning b) Only after planning for offensive and defensive operations is complete c) At the start of Phase IV Stabilize Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE d) When joint operation planning is initiated  Although may be the stronger posture, it is the that is normally decisive in combat. Therefore, commanders will normally seek to transition to the decisive operations et the earliest opportunity. a) Joint, single-Service b) Offense, defense c) Defense, offense d) Attrition, maneuver  Major operation and campaign plans must feature a (n) offensive, defensive, and stability operations in all phases. a) Equal proportion of b) Similar degree of c) Appropriate balance between d) Effective sequencing of  Joint force commanders strive to isolate enemies by denying them . The intent is to strip away as much enemy support or freedom of action as possible, while limiting the enemy’s potential for horizontal or vertical escalation. a) Movement and maneuver b) Allies and sanctuary c) Airfields and seaports d) Command and control  Preplanned, deterrence-oriented actions carefully tailored to bring an issue to early resolution without armed conflict are known as . a) Peacekeeping b) Flexible deterrent options c) Diplomatic efforts d) Smart power  A joint military operation conducted either as a major operation or a part of a larger campaign to seize and hold a military lodgment in the face of armed opposition for the continuous landing of forces is called . These operations may include amphibious, airborne, and air assault operations, or any combination thereof. a) Joint reception, staging, onward-movement, and integration b) Forcible entry c) Full spectrum superiority d) Force protection  The ultimate measure of success in peace building is . Therefore, joint force commanders seek a clear understanding of the national and coalition strategic end state and how military operations support that end state. a) Political, not military b) Adversary military culmination c) Economic sufficiency d) Security sector reform Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) Lack of coalition security teams b) Conflicting personalities c) Varying levels of experience among coalition partners d) A command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and rewards the sharing of information  Developing and maintaining professional relationships with multinational partners means . a) We must treat them as professionals with limited skills b) We must continually reinforce our standards upon them c) Recognizing that their training and education may differ, but does not mean they are less dedicated or professional d) Continuously demonstrating our superiority over them  The vetting process for participation in multinational operations serves as a mechanism to . a) Support and enhance individual efforts b) Increase perceived legitimacy of operations domestically and internationally c) Minimize clashes that may occur between intergovernmental agencies d) Force all participants to authorize full range of employment of their forces  Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include . a) Leader development and national interest b) Religion and culture c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) d) Non-governmental organizations (NGOs)  When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken to . a) Ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests b) Ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage c) Utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of any one location d) Only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners  During the conduct of military operations, multinational personnel must be able to . a) Develop guidance for detainee operations in a joint environment according to their respective laws b) Target only a small percentage of individuals who fall into different categories under the law of war c) Enforce local Rules of Engagement (ROE) without regard to approved coalition ROE d) Properly control, maintain, protect, and account for all detainees according to applicable domestic law, regardless of their category  Main role is deterrence. Should hostilities arise, provides forces for prompt and sustained combat primarily on land. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command  Fills the three main roles: Strategic nuclear deterrence, Deployment of forces overseas, Security Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE of the Sea Lines of Communication (SLOCs). a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command  Provides fleet marine forces of combined arms, together with supporting air components, for two purposes: Service with the fleet in the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases, Conduct land operations essential to the prosecution of a naval campaign. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command  Primary role is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operations. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command  Protect the public, the environment, and U.S. economic interests in any maritime region offering service on five areas: Maritime Safety, National Defense, Maritime Security, Mobility, Protection of National Resources. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command  Organize, train, and equip Special Operations Forces (SOFs) for activities or missions for all the Services. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command  The primary function of the Services and Special Operations Command is to provide forces, each of which is organized, trained, and equipped to perform specific roles. a) True Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) False  What is the Army’s primary role? Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  Which of the following are among the Coast Guard’s roles? (Select all that apply.) Being transferred by Presidential order to the U.S. Navy for operational purposes a) Law enforcement b) Environmental enforcement c) Environmental protection d) Ice Operations e) Search and Rescue  The Army can trace its origins to colonial America. a) True b) False  Which of the following describes the Army’s regulations, including every detail of the Soldier’s life? a) Blue Book of the Regulations for the Order and Discipline of the Troops of the United States b) The Army Regulations of 1821 c) The Constitution d) All of the above  During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward stopping old rivalries and conflicts? a) The end of the Cold War b) The collapse of the Warsaw Pact c) The rise of global terrorism d) The breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states  Which of the lessons learned during the Mexican War did the Union Navy use? a) Move forward from the sea and seize ports b) Embargo trade and blockade c) Extract without foundering and unload troops while maintaining stern to the surf d) Choices 2 and 3 e) Choices 1 and 2  Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) a) Long-range reconnaissance planes b) Escort carriers c) Destroyers equipped with advanced sonars d) Direction-finding equipment e) Anti-submarine weapons  Through which of the following strategies has the U.S. Navy retained its traditional roles while expanding into expeditionary warfare? a) Sea power concept b) “From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea c) U.S. Containment Policy Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  Why was the participation of the Montford Point Marines in the amphibious assault at Saipan such a historic event? a) No Higgins boats were available b) It represented the final trial and full integration of the Armed Forces c) The marines were well-trained  Which of the following are examples of how the Marine Corps has adapted and evolved as an expeditionary force? (Select all that apply.) a) Amphibious operations b) MPFs and MAGTFs c) Close air support d) Helicopter-borne vertical envelopment tactics  In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted prepositioning for which of the following purposes? a) For speed and dispersion b) To provide material needed to sustain a brigade for 30 days in a potential combat zone c) For amphibious assault  During the 1930s, which two essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place? (Select all that apply.) a) A vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 b) A comprehensive doctrine of air warfare c) Clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation  Which of the following problems faced the newly created Air Force in 1947? (Select all that apply.) a) Establishing an organization adapted to air operations b) Transitioning from propeller-driven aircraf t to jet aircraft c) Modifying doctrine, strategy, and tactics to accommodate nuclear weapons d) Frequent incoming ballistic missiles e) Arranging for support services  Which of the following represent highlights of U.S. Air Force history? a) Design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence b) Development of the Strategic Air Command c) Expansion into space d) All of the above  What Services were established as precursors to the U.S. Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) a) Lighthouse Service and Revenue Cutter Service b) Bureau of Navigation c) Life Saving Service d) Steamboat Inspection Service e) Transportation Security Administration  USCG has always served under the Security of the Treasury, reflecting its early historical mission. a) True Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) False Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) False Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  Promotions and Re-enlistments are ceremonies requiring formation in this order: (a) Personal awards presented first, (b) Promotion second, and (c) Re-enlistments third. a) True b) False  The fallen comrade’s toast at a mess night is the last toast to be given. a) True b) False  The newest and lest formal of the dinning traditions, requiring combat dress. a) Dining-Out b) Dining-In c) Combat Dining-In  A newer custom than Dining-In, which includes spouses and other guests. a) Dining-Out b) Dining-In c) Combat Dining-In  Formal dinner for the members of the military. a) Dining-Out b) Dining-In c) Combat Dining-In  Which of the following ceremonies affirms a “Leader among Leaders” in the USAF, using a symbol of truth, justice, and power rightly used? a) Top 3 Induction b) The order of the Sword c) Grog Bowl d) None of the above  Which of the following is the USCG motto? 1. “Semper Fidelis” 2. “Anchors Aweigh” 3. “Semper Paratus” 4. None of the above  The United States Coast Guard’s motto is Semper Paratus, meaning “always ready.” 1. True 2. False  Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? a) 30% b) 40% c) 50% d) 60% Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  which of the following is NOT one of the major levels of mobilization? Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) Coast Guard Reserve c) Marine Corps Reserve d) Navy Reserve 195. Special Operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using specialized tactics and equipment to achieve objectives. a) Tactical b) Strategic or operational c) Insignificant d) Intermediate 196. Most special operations forces are oriented. This allows them to maintain a cultural awareness and a language capability for their assigned areas. a) Politically b) Mission c) Regionally d) Special tactics 197. Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions conducted with specialized military capabilities to seize, destroy, capture, exploit, recover, or damage designated targets in hostiles, denied, or diplomatically and/or politically sensitive environments is called . It differs from other offensive actions in the level of diplomatic or political risk, the operational techniques employed, and the degree of discriminate and precise use of force to achieve specific objectives. a) Special reconnaissance b) Counterterrorism c) Direct action d) Unconventional warfare 198. Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called . These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. a) Strategic reporting b) Foreign internal defense c) Special reconnaissance d) Unconventional warfare 199. Operations and activities that are conducted to enable a resistance movement or insurgency to coerce, disrupt, or overthrow a government or occupying power by operating through or with an underground, auxiliary, and guerrilla force in a denied are known as . It is a core activity is special operations forces. a) Unconventional warfare b) Civil affairs operations c) Special reconnaissance d) Direct action 200. Special operations forces are organized under the , a functional unified command responsible for providing mission capable operations forces to the geographic combatant commanders. a) United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM) Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) United States Strategic Command (USSSTRATCOM) c) United States Special operations (USSOCOM) Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE d) United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) 201. After the attacks if 9/11, USSCOM assumed an operational role in synchronizing the DoD effort in . a) Support of the U.S. government response to pandemic influenza b) Global operations against terrorist networks c) Cyberspace operations d) Combating weapons of mass destruction 202. The cornerstone of the Special Forces Group’s capability is the . A highly trained team of 12 SF Green Berets. a) Army Special Operations Aviation (ARSOA) b) Military Information Support Operations Command (MISOC) c) Operational Detachment-Alpha (ODA) d) Ranger Regiment 203. The is a lethal, agile, and flexible, capable of executing a myriad of complex, joint special operations missions in support of U.S. policy and objectives. a) 101st Airborne Division (Air Assault) b) 160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment c) 82nd Airborne Division d) 75th Ranger Regiment 204. These units support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war and are known as teams. a) Foreign are officers b) Political advisors c) Civil affairs d) Special forces 205. The units manned by Special Warfare Combatant-craft Crewmen who operate and maintain a variety of combatant and other craft for maritime special operations are known as . a) SEAL Platoons b) Special Boat Teams c) SEAL Delivery Teams d) Special Tactics Groups 206. The 193rd Special Operations Wing of the Pennsylvania Air National Guard provides the holy platform in the Department of Defense with the EC-130 Commando Solo. a) Airborne early warning b) Airborne psychological operations c) Electronic warfare d) Combat aviation advisor 207. The Air Force's Battlefield Airmen or Teams frequently operate with Navy Seals, Army Rangers, and Special Forces in direct action, airfield seizure, and personnel recovery missions in hostile territory. a) Air commando b) Special tactics Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE maximize complementary and reinforcing effects on both (i.e., synergy) is known as . Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) Mutual trust b) Bilateral agreement c) Joint interdependence d) Joint requirement 216. The concept of "jointness" must be advanced through continual joint force development efforst. What does that statement imply? a) Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint development b) “Jointness” is not an automatic Service state of being c) Service members naturally embrace “jointness” d) Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence on one’s career 217. prepares individuals, joint forces, or joint staffs to respond to strategic, operational, or tactical requirements considered necessary by the Combatant Commanders to esecute their assigned or anticipated missions. a) Joint doctrine b) Joint education c) Joint training d) Joint concepts 218. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise disciplined initiative, acting aggressively and independently to accomplish the mission. a) True b) False 219. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise . a) Regularly b) Cautious power c) Risk supervision d) Disciplined initiative 220. Successful teamwork requires commensurate with responsibility. a) Rank b) Delegation of authority c) Maturity d) Experience 221. Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification. a) True b) False 222. This hostile environment often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas. a) Irregular warfare environment b) Major combat operations c) Humanitarian assistance operations d) Support for civil authorities Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE 223. Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media? Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  1) “The Noncommissioned Officer and Petty Officer: Backbone of the Armed Forces (2013)" states that, "To be successful in building and sustaining [a solid and trustworthy] relationship with officers, NCOs/POs must be ." a) educated and empowered b) properly trained and equipped c) competent, credible, and capable d) provided with intent and closely supervised  Which of the following is NOT a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff? a) Chief of Naval Operations b) Commandant of the Coast Guard c) Commandant of the Marine Corps d) Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff  What are the Army's primary missions? (Select all that apply.) a) Secure the United States from direct attack b) Preparing now for an uncertain future c) Responding to crisis d) Shaping the international environment  Exposure to stressful situations trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative. a) True b) False  The is a lethal, agile, and flexible force, capable of executing a myriad of complex, joint special operations missions in support of U.S. policy and objectives. a) 82nd Airborne Division b) 75th Ranger Regiment c) 160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment d) 101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)  The pinning ceremony signifies which of the following? a) transition from the role of a follower to that of a leader b) completion of a successful mission c) retirement of a sailor  The main idea of the Chairman's White Paper, "America's Military - A Profession of Arms" is to: a) open an debate on whether the Armed Forces is a profession b) establish a new way of thinking about the profession of arms c) renew our commitment to the Profession of Arms d) identify the reasons why the Armed Forces is considered a profession  Between 1777 and 1778, Baron Friedrich Willhelm von Steuben taught the Continental Army what aspects of war? (Select all that apply.) a) bayonet usage b) rifle cartridges loading Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE c) drill formations Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE d) proper care of equipment  Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable work- arounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? a) Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas b) Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options c) Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation d) Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships  are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, self- discipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. a) Support for civil authorities b) Major combat operations c) Humanitarian assistance operations d) Peacekeeping operations  Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for their physical security. a) True b) False  Which of the following would be initiated into the "Top 3"? a) Sgt. Maj. b) Master Sgt. c) Col.  Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces. a) True b) False  The U.S. Army and U.S. Navy are under the same jurisdiction. a) True b) False  Leaders in a joint environment have no reason to be familiar with the rules and regulations concerning maintaining good order and discipline within their commands including the punitive articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. a) True b) False  Factors that inhibit interoperability are . a) constant efforts to eliminate sources of confusion b) visits to assess multinational capabilities c) multinational training exercises d) refusal to cooperate with partners; restricted access to national proprietary defense information  While its missions might include forcible entry operations and peace enforcement, humanitarian assistance is not within the Marine Corps' purview. a) True Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE written to identify defense priorities in the face of budget cuts. Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) National Military Strategy Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) Defense Strategic Guidance (correct) c) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan d) National Security Strategy 305. Joint provides the fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in coordinated action toward a common objective. a) doctrine 306. What are the Army's primary missions? (Select all that apply.) b) responding to crises c) shaping the international environment d) preparing now for an uncertain future 307. The principle of joint operations designed to ensure the commitment necessary to attain the national strategic end state is . a) Perseverance SEJPME II 308) Which of the following actions may help overcome the staff organization challenge of integrating communication-related activities? a) ensure these tasks are led only by the J3 or J5 b) ensure there is no divide between primary agency "inform" role and "influence" activities c) establish some form of communication directorate or cell d) creating a passive communication posture 309) Which of the following statements concerning operational-level branch and sequel planning is TRUE? a) Much of the information precipitating operational commanders' major decisions across all event horizons will likely come off the JOC floor, rather than through other venues. b) Some branch and sequel planning at the operational level may not result in precise, detailed predictive decision points with associated CCIRs. c) Branch and sequel planning, at the operational level, results in precise, predictive decision points with associated CCIRs d) Decision points supporting branch and sequel execution are normally extremely well defined and quantitative requiring minimal commander interface for decision. 310) This critical path involves the use of a joint targeting working group (JTWG) that enables selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate lethal and supporting nonlethal responses. a) lethal actions b) inform and influence c) stability d) steering Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) objectives, priorities, and commander's critical information requirements (CCIR) b) planning guidance, commander's intent, and an operational framework Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE c) targeting data, diplomatic information military and economic (DIME) data, and planning guidance d) objectives, priorities, and an operational framework 318) The principles of personnel support are defined as having a that is . a) command emphasis; responsive, and responsible b) staff emphasis; responsive and responsible c) command emphasis; synchronized, unified, and flexible d) staff emphasis; synchronized, unified, and flexible 319) The operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the . a) Service Chiefs b) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff c) Combatant Commanders d) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and then to the Combatant Commanders 320) Commanders have recognized the need for some form of staff organization that can to inform or influence the audiences in support of desired outcomes. (Select all that apply.) a) craf t the themes and messages b) synchronize actions, words, and images c) direct communication strategy through a stove-piped process d) remain passive in the information environment 321) A key function of the J2 is to integrate outside stakeholders into intelligence planning and operations. The J2 can support the Joint Force Commander by integrating . a) state and local militias b) nongovernmental organizations c) partner nation intelligence capabilities and assessments d) interested UN countries 322) Automation technology can be used to reduce the burden of sorting through large amounts of to enable an analyst to correlate various sets of to make an assessment. a) data, information b) information, intelligence c) intelligence, data d) data, intelligence  Which of the following joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI ) elements are defined as "enabling"? (Select all that apply.) a) Contract support b) Multinational support c) Force protection d) Legal support  What is a target? Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) All enemy entities or objects b) An offensive of defensive enemy weapon considered for engagement or action Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE c) specific information requirements (SIRs) d) friendly force information requirements (FFIRs) Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  Which of the following is a criterion in conducting assessments using measures of performance (MOP)? a) straight forward and are drawn directly from assigned tasks in the plan b) upfront correct determination of measures-of-effectiveness planning c) enable an accurate visualization of progress toward mission accomplishment d) used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment  For the execution of a successful communication strategy, staff synchronization . (Select all that apply.) a) requires cross-talk and cross-representation b) integrates products c) breaks down staf f planning into clearly defined major subsets d) does not impact actions, words, and images e) relies on informed commander's guidance f) begins at the execution phase of operations  Which of the following statements concerning staff assessment products is FALSE? a) Recommendations are normally not developed by the assessment cell, but rather by the affected/responsible staff focused on specific lines of operation. b) Staf f assessments products do not necessarily have to support the commander's requirements, as long as the products provide meaningful information. c) Staff assessments should provide recommendations to the commander based upon the assessment.  Which of the following statements describes characteristics of a well-written problem statement that can help focus the staff and subsequent planning process? a) The problem statement should mirror the mission statement to avoid any ambiguity as to what the end state should be. b) The problem statement should not allow external stakeholders to gain a shared, common understanding, but should lead the commander and planners to quickly narrow the focus. c) The problem statement should not pose a solution, accounts for current circumstances, and does not predict what future actions may occur. d) The problem statement should focus on solving the problem and should directly, or implicitly, propose solutions.  What is the primary goal of operational design? a) Conceive and construct and the framework that underpins a campaign or major operation plan b) Understand the ends, ways, and means c) Link tactical action to strategic objectives d) Visualize the ultimate operational approach  The is the principal assistant to the President in all matters relating to the DoD. a) SecDef b) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff c) Inspector General of the DoD d) JCS Vice Chairman Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  The purpose of field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness. a) True b) False  Which of the following are some of the key elements of the shape phase of joint operations? (Select all that apply.) a) organizing and training b) balance and simultaneity c) stability operations d) conduct of rehearsals  What information management (IM) activity is normally a theater-level decision because of its significant second order effects, such as interoperability within the joint force, fielding and pre- mission training? a) battle rhythm development maintenance procedures b) determination of the networks, databases, and software applications c) use of commander's critical information requirements (CCIR) to guide and prioritize information flow d) development of procedures into a formalized, authoritative document  Which of the following are key elements of a communication strategy? a) narrative, theme, and message b) words, actions, and audience c) condition, opportunity, and audience d) stability, peace, and prosperity  Which statement best describes what is meant by the term "battle for the narrative?" a) superiority over the adversary's narrative and align communication efforts b) race to exploit and change the perceptions of our international partners in order to forward the goals and intentions of the U.S. Government and its allies c) challenge of constructing similar strategic narratives distributed throughout multiple networks to reinforce the beliefs, perceptions, attitudes, and behaviors of our coalition partners and host nation governments d) struggle to be first to control the messages that only the adversaries will hear in order to inform and/or influence their beliefs and perspectives  Knowledge management (KM) and information management (IM) are two distinct activities that are necessary aspects in today's headquarters decision-making. Which two overarching insights clearly delineate their distinctions? a) KM is people-centric. IM is information technology-centric. b) KM is technology-centric. IM is people-centric. c) KM focuses on the rules, procedures, applications, and tools. IM focuses on the players gaining and sharing knowledge to aid decision making. d) KM balances the need-to-share with the need-to-know. IM leverages the different perspectives of the myriad of players. gain ongoing "information war" between competing nations, entities, and/or ideologies to Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) analysis b) elimination c) comparison d) development  The mayor of San Antonio has asked the 502 Wing Commander for security forces and military police from Fort Sam Houston to assist the local police during the annual fiesta events. The mayor wants the military to assist with traffic and crowd control. Can Title 10 military personnel conduct this type of support? a) yes, because this type of support is permissible under the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act b) yes, because the mayor requested the support only for traffic and crowd control c) yes, but only for Army and Air Force personnel; Marines and Navy personnel cannot provide support d) no, traffic control and crowd control is a violation of the Posse Comitatus Act  The authority to protect the resilience and redundancy of critical civilian infrastructure resides with the National Security Agency (NSA) under which U.S. Code? a) Title 22 b) Title 14 c) Title 50 d) Title 10  Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. a) True b) False  is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). If favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will. a) Asymmetric Warfare b) Traditional War c) Joint Warfare d) Irregular Warfare  The ability of the U.S. to achieve its national strategic objectives is dependent on the effectiveness of the U.S. Government in employing the instruments of national power, which are . a) Diplomatic, Informational, Military, and Economic b) Diplomacy, Defense, and Development c) Political, Military, Economic, Social, Informational, and Infrastructure d) Culture, Industry, Technology, and Geography  The President of the United States provides guidance for developing, applying, and coordinating the instruments of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national security in the . a) National Defense Strategy b) National Security Strategy c) Unified Command Plan Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE d) National Military Strategy Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  The , signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distribution and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces’ plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future. a) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan b) National Security Strategy c) National Defense Strategy d) National Military Strategy  The statutory members of the National Security Council are . a) President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy b) President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State c) President, Vice President, Secretary od State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury d) President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security  The is the President's principle forum for considering national security maters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet officials. a) Secretary of Homeland Security b) Secretary of Defense c) National Security Council d) Joint Chiefs of Staff  The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the . a) Service Chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Secretaries of the Military Departments and then to the Combatant Commanders c) Combatant Commanders via the Service Chiefs d) Secretaries of the Military Departments and then to the Service Chiefs  The outranks all other officers of the Armed Forces, but may not exercise military command over any of the Armed Forces. This officer is the principle military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense. a) Chairman of he Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Supreme Allied Commander c) Combatant Commander d) War Council  A Unified or Specified Command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander established and so designated by the President, through the Secretary of Defense and with the advice and assistance of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is called a . a) Joint Task Force b) Subordinate Unified Command c) Combatant Command d) Component Command Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE c) General, mutual, direct, and close d) Reinforcing, mutual, complementary, and close  Command authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability of forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned is known as . a) Administrative Control (ADCON) b) Operational Control (OPCON) c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Combatant Command (COCOM)  The command authority established by a superior commander between subordinate commanders when one organization should aid, protect, complement, or sustain another force is called . a) Combatant Command b) Administrative Control c) Operational Control d) Support  The , signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distributing and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces' plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future. a) National Defense Strategy b) National Military Strategy c) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan d) National Security Strategy  The statutory advisers to the National Security Council are the . a) Director of National Intelligence and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staf f b) Director of Central Intelligence and the Attorney General c) National Security Advisor and the Economic Advisor d) Secretary of Homeland Security and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff  The document, approved by the President, which delineates the general geographical area of responsibility for geographic combatant commanders and specifies functional responsibilities for functional combatant commanders, is called the . a) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan b) National Security Strategy c) Unified Command Plan d) Guidance for Employment of the Force  The Joint Staff is under exclusive authority, direction, and control of the . a) Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff c) Combatant Commanders d) Service Chiefs  Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values, the standards for the profession of arms, and . Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) Geneva convention Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE b) Constitutional principles Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification? a) True b) False  This hostile environment often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas. a) Irregular warfare environment b) Major combat operations c) Humanitarian operations d) Support for civil authorities  If something of an ethical nature is ever in doubt, commanders should contact their legal counsel for advice. a) True b) False  Military member to maintain a higher standard of conduct than might be accepted in the larger society and are subject to the rules and regulations of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. a) True b) False  A state of well-being in which one is aware of personal abilities and limits, copes well with life stresses, works productively and effectively, and contributes positively to his or her communities is known as . It describes a healthy body, mind, and spirit which can be seen in a person’s ability to deal with typical stressors. a) Physical fitness b) Psychological health c) Post-traumatic stress disorder d) Personal awareness  Exposure to stressful situations, trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative. a) True b) False  Symptoms of include depression, substance abuse, problems of memory and cognition, and other physical and mental health problems. It is also associated with difficulties in social or family life, including occupational instability, mental problems, family discord, and difficulties in parenting. a) Post-traumatic stress disorder b) Psychiatric disorder syndrome c) Psychological trauma dysfunction d) Traumatic brain injury  Typical signs of include headaches, memory gaps, confusion, attention problems, irritability, ringing in the ears, dizziness, nausea, fatigue, slowed reaction time, sleep difficulty, and performance difficulties. Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) Port-traumatic stress disorder b) Psychiatric disorder syndrome c) Psychological dysfunction Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE d) Traumatic brain injury Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) True b) False  The foremost value of joint force leaders is . a) experience b) integrity c) competence d) physical courage  The focuses on planning and execution of operations using operational art to develop strategies, campaigns, and operations and employ military forces by integrating ends, ways, and means. a) Strategic level b) Operational level c) Tactical level d) Political level  Read the following scenario, and as you read it, think about the 12 Principles of Joint Operations. Each principle applies to the described situation in some capacity, but consider their relative importance for this particular scenario. In the boxes provided below, indicate whether the principle listed is MOST RELEVANT or LEAST RELEVANT to the scenario by typing in your response. A sometimes-ally of the United States requests U.S. support in maintaining stability during an insurgent uprising. The U.S. agrees to lead a multinational peace-keeping force in the volatile country, since supporting the legitimate government adds stability to a key strategic region. The insurgents comprise of a number of radical groups that follow a shared political ideology and collectively seek economic control within the region. They appear to be funded by narcotics cartels and organized crime syndicates in Central and Northern South America. The insurgents use a variety of disruptive, irregular warfare tactics to exert their influence, including the use of Improvised Explosive Devices (IEDs), ambushes on peace- keeping forces, civilian kidnapping, graft, and civilian extortion. U.S. forces have also detected numerous cyber-attacks that appear to originate from insurgent sources; however, none of these have been successful a) Objective LEAST RELEVANT b) Offensive LEAST RELEVANT c) Mass LEAST RELEVANT d) Economy of Force MOST RELEVANT e) Maneuver LEAST RELEVANT f) Unity of Command MOST RELEVANT g) Security MOST RELEVANT h) Surprise LEAST RELEVANT i) Simplicity LEAST RELEVANT j) Restraint MOST RELEVANT Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE k) Perseverance MOST RELEVANT l) Legitimacy Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE MOST RELEVANT Which principles did you rank as among the most important? Explain why. Restraint, perseverance, and legitimacy were ranked among the most important because these principles directly support irregular warfare conditions, such as those described in the scenario. Security was also ranked highly, because the scenario opposition forces use irregular means, such as IEDs and ambush attacks. Next, Economy of Force was ranked among the top principles because stability operations must be carried out with the upmost efficiency, so that the U.S. achieves an optimal return on investment. Finally, because the mission involves a multinational coalition, Unity of Command takes on greater priority; coordination among forces becomes more challenging as a greater number of units, agencies, and countries become involved. Which principles did you rank as among the least important? Explain why. Having a clear objective is vital. However, since the strategic objective in this scenario is to maintain stability in an ally's country, developing more detailed operational objectives takes on comparatively less significance. Similarly, since the mission involves stabilization, versus aggression, taking offensive action becomes less important, as is the element of surprise, the exploitation of maneuver, and the concentration of a large mass of combat power. Finally, while simplicity is important (particularly in multinational operations), it is less vital in the described scenario; given the complexity of the situation, simple responses may not be sufficient.  The following image is a concept map for you to review. Note that there are several empty boxes on the map labeled "Question 1" through "Question 5". In the boxes provided below, choose the proper concept for each of these empty boxes by typing in your response in the space provided. Question 1: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Directing, Operations, Security, Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE 3. Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  As an example of General vs. Specialized Forces, Navy and Air Force Service members, accustomed to working with enlisted personnel who are specialized technicians, may approach joint staff work from a more perspective than that of their ground Service member counterparts. a) Technical or managerial b) Centralized c) Static d) Assessing  A is a series of related major operations aimed at achieving strategic and operational objectives within a given time and space. a) mission b) campaign c) function d) engagement  Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to defend national interests, not only in conflict but through preventative measures to deter potential adversaries who could threaten the vital interests of the U.S. or its partners. a) Provide a stabilizing presence b) Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges c) Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent d) Deter and defeat aggression  Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is composed of significant assigned components of two or more Military Departments. a) Specified Combatant Command b) Unified Combatant Command c) Subordinate Unified Command d) Joint Task Force  is the employment of available weapons and other systems to create a specific lethal or nonlethal effect on a target. a) Movement and maneuver b) Command and control c) Joint fires d) Sustainment  A functional Component Command has many favorable factors associated with it, including reduced span of control, integrated planning, unity of effort, and . a) control over the scheme of maneuver b) responsible for service-specific functions c) comprised of service forces d) decreased combat efficiency  Differences between the Services in career paths leading up to a joint assignment may surprise new staff Service members in joint assignments. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services? a) Prior experience working with senior officers vs. little or none b) Centralized vs. decentralized approach Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE c) Static vs. dynamic mission sets Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  Which of the following statements highlights the critical features of intelligence? Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE a) Allows anticipation or prediction of future situations and circumstances b) Provides raw, factual information on a wide variety of subjects c) Informs decisions by illuminating the differences in available courses of action d) Contributes to or shapes the commander’s decision making process  Analysis is a synthesis of quantitate analysis and qualitative judgement and therefore rarely subject to competing interpretations. a) True b) False  What is the primary role of the joint force J2? a) To inform the commander b) To analyze data c) To collect data and relate data from a wide spectrum into usable information d) To manage collection assets to maximize data collection across the operational environment  Commanders use intelligence to . (Select all that apply) a) Support a predictive estimation of the situation b) Understand adversary capabilities and intentions c) Visualize and understand all dimensions of the OE  Which of the following are true when forming priority intelligence requirements (select all that apply) a) PIRs are subject for which there is a need to collect information or produce intelligence b) Staff must be aware of intelligence requirements of higher, adjacent, subordinate and supporting elements c) The JFC’s PIRs should prioritize the most urgent intelligence requirements. d) All of the above  After intelligence requirements are established, the staff reviews existing databases for answers to requirements. Then, if the intelligence requirement does not exist, the . a) Staf f issues a request for information b) Staff collects information themselves c) Staff rejects JFC’s PIR d) JFC refines the PIR to match available intelligence  What is the definition of collection requirements management? a) Matching intelligence collection requirements with appropriate collection capabilities b) Analyzing the priority intelligence requirements against existing elements of essential information] c) Matching the commander’s critical information requirements with the other intelligence operations d) Synchronizes the timing of collection with the operational scheme of maneuver and with other intelligence operations  Why does collection planning require the ability to call on a variety of collection sources? a) To allow flexible tasking of assets b) To minimize the effects of enemy deception c) To ensure subordinate units maintain situational awareness of PIRs d) To provide spare assets on call in event of cancellations Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE  Doctrinal, manning, and organizational considerations are what part of the joint intelligence architecture planning process? Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE potential US or multinational military operations. Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE f. Target Intelligence - Identifies and nominates specific COGs and HVTs that, if exploited in a systematic manner, will create the desired effects and support accomplishment of the commander’s objectives. Portrays and locates the components of a target or target complex, networks, and support infrastructure, and indicates its vulnerability and relationship to the enemy Centers of Gravity (COG); consists of analysis of physical and virtual attributes and signatures as well as Battle Damage Assessment (BDA) resulting from the application of lethal or non-lethal military force. b. Scientific and Technical Intelligence - Comprises characteristics, capabilities, vulnerabilities, and limitations of all weapon systems, subsystems, and associated material, as well as related research and development. Examines foreign developments in basic and applied sciences and technologies with warfare potential, particularly enhancements to weapon systems; addresses overall weapon systems, tactics analysis, and equipment effectiveness. d. Counterintelligence – Analyzes the threats posed by foreign intelligence and security services, and the intelligence activities if non-state actors such as organized crime, terrorist groups, and drug traffickers. Information gathered and activities conducted to identify, deceive, exploit, disrupt, or protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign powers, organizations, or persons, or their agents, or international terrorist organizations or activities. e. Estimative Intelligence – Reaches beyond descriptions of adversary capabilities or reporting of enemy activity to forecast the unknown based on an analysis of known facts using pattern analysis, inference, and statistical probability techniques. Forecasts of current or potential situations with implications for planning and executing military operations; includes a description of relevant actors' capabilities, and reporting of their activities, and it analyzes known factors using techniques such as pattern analysis, inference, and statistical probability to address unresolved variables. c. Identity Intelligence – Results from the fusion of identity attributes (biologic, biographic, behavioral, and individuals) and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines. Results from the fusion of identity attributes (biologic, biographic, behavioral, and reputational information related to individuals) and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines.  What level of intelligence is produced for the President, Congress, Secretary of Defense, senior military leaders, and combatant commanders? a) Doctrinal b) National strategic c) National security d) Theater strategic  An intelligence report is received by the JFC detailing the capabilities and safe houses of an extremist group operating in its area of regard. What type of intelligence does this represent? a) Tactical intelligence b) Theater strategic intelligence c) Operational intelligence d) Human intelligence  To be successful, a joint force commander must be able to influence and coordinate a diverse coalition of joint and multinational forces as well as civilian agencies and groups. What are some of the civilian groups the FRC must consider? Select all that apply. a) Nongovernmental organizations b) State and local militias Sejpme1&2 Questions With Answers Updated Solutions Graded A+2024 UPDATE c) Multinational forces