SkyWest ERJ 175 KV Questions and Answers 2024/2025, Exams of Aviation

Download SkyWest ERJ 175 KV Questions and Answers 2024/2025 and more Exams Aviation in PDF only on Docsity! SkyWest ERJ 175 KV Questions and Answers 2024/2025 What pitch guidance do takeoff cross bars give? Initial flap based, 4 = 12d, 2 = 10d, 1 = 11d once airborne, V2+10 TO Pitch mode limited to 8-18 degrees When does dual cue FD turn to single cue? A/P - on Why FLCH preferred climb instead of FPA or VS? Stall/speed protection, best rate, most efficient What config gives highest rate of descent? 210, flaps 1, speed brakes, gear 3 indications stall is eminent? buffet, loss of lateral control, stall warning, stick shaker How can pilot determine AOA using PFD? difference between FPV Airplane Symbol on a missed approach, what speed is commanded VAC What are indications of auro-relight? N2 is steady accelerating, ITT remains within start limit What vertical mode would you use for a VOR with a MDA? GP, must add 50ft. to MDA if no ball note What vertical mode do you use for a loc? FPA Min charge for EFB? 80%, 4200lbs/hr. What apps can be active in flight? flighthdeck pro, Pubs and docs What would you do if one EFB failed in flight? Reference the operational one What to do if both EFB's fail? Notify dispatch, coordinate best course of action What Items are required to be on release? Dep/Dest/Alt, IFR/VFR, MINTO, Wx, Flt ID, Tail# (DIMWIT) How long is a release valid? 2 hrs Reasons a pilot must obtain a new release? Change of tail, change of Captain, release expires, MEL/NEL prior to blockout When must a takeoff alternate be listed on the release? when departure wx is below the minimums for the lowest applicable approach at departure aerodrome How do you amend a release? contact Dispatch what are the restrictions of associates with takeoff alternate? 2 engine aircraft require alternate to be within 1 hour at normal cruising speed with one engine inop. when is destination alternate required? 1-2-3 rule: +/- 1 hr if arrival wx is forecast to be below 2000' and 3 sm. how can you determine if a dest alternate is legal? use derived mins, so if one approach = 400/1 above approach mins. if 2 approaches to separate runways w/ seperate navaids = 200 and 1/2 above approach mins. When does a release require a second airport? when applying 3585 or when marginal wx exists at alternate = vis and ceiling equals mins. MINTO, what is it, how is it calculated min fuel for takeoff, includes enroute burn +most distant alternate + holding + reserve release fuel, how is it calculated MINTO plus taxi out and contingency fuel rounded to nearest 100 lbs how is reserve fuel calculated 45 minutes of the fuel flow at the TOD Contingency fuel, how is it calculated? based on planned landing weight, 10,000 ft above the airport how is holding fuel calculated? at planned landing weight 10,000 ft above the airport. What does a sabre wind shear value >07 indicate? mod turb likely, severe possible What is the min contingency fuel for the ERJ under normal flight conditions? 15 min Where is your TOC with respect to the tropopause? its on the release, MWL = max wind level which also equals Tropopause level. Why is it important to know where the tropopause is? tropopause is often where windshear, turbulence, weather, and other hazards to flight begin. Airline photo ID, FAA Pilot certificate, Current FAA medical, CASS approved jumpseat card. What items are included on the jumpseater briefing? jumpseat briefing card on EFB Can pilots jumpseat on an international flight? Only FAA aviation safety inspector, DOD air carrier, evaluator who is checking flight ops, skywest check airmen performing check airmen duties. What is min O2 for an observer Green What resources would you use to determine if an observer is eligible for a jumpseat? airline photo ID, FAA Pilot certificate, current FAA medical, CASS approved jumpseat card. What displays how up on power up? 2 and 3 Whats has to be on display two on power up? Status page Why must battery voltage be checked prior to applying AC power? only way to get an accurate volt reading is before battery chargers are on. If battery shows 21.4v what do you do? Go into SOPM Ch4 Safety and Power up and use table to determine amount of time required to charge the battery. What is procedure if your battery voltage is less than 22.5? 21-22.5v recharge prior to takeoff with any AC source, if below 21 do not depart, contact maintenance. why do we have to charge batteries to above 22.5 prior to takeoff? Ensure we have a 10 minute jet. What should the pilot look for prior to commencing the fire test? Check for fire detection/extinguishing messages on the EICASS What are you looking for for a successful fire test? 6 lights on overhead 5 indications on EICASS 4 lights across the panel (Master warning x 2 ITT Fire x2) 2 audibles Do we have fire protection on a cold dark airplane? Yes but no detection How do you know GPU power is good? "Avail" light on overhead Once AC power is established what test should start? How long does it take? Elec PBIT, 3 min How can the Elec PBIT test be interupted? Turn on a hydraulic pump Is Elec PBIT required before every flight? every 50 hours What should the pilot do if AC power is suddenly lost? shut down the airplane via the leaving the aircraft checklist and power back up from the start. When do the amber IDG lights illuminate? Low oil pressure or high oil temp Generally speaking can one IDG meet the needs of the entire elec system? Yes Why is Batt switch 2 auto and not on? Batt switch #2 only comes on in flight if power is lost to DC ESS Bus 2 If Batt 2 is inop can you start the APU? Yes using a DC GPU What kind of batteries on the ERJ? Lead Acid (used to be NI-Cads) 22.8 volt, 27A What switched on the overhead illuminate amber? Engine and APU bleeds. Indicates bleed leak. Is the total fuel quantity different if you gravity fuel? No Can the aircraft be refueled without AC Power? Yes, fuel panel is on the hot batt bus. What is the purpose of the DC fuel pump? Provides pressurized fuel for APU and engine start when AC power or AC fuel pump is not available. When will the AC fuel pump automatically activate? Engine start, backup of main ejectors what is the max fuel imbalance? when does an EICASS message appear? 794, 800 How does the pilot correct a fuel imbalance? crossfeed using the Low 1/2 switch. what happens when you move fuel crossfeed switch to low 1? AV Fuel pump 2 turns on, crossfeed valve opens, feeds engine #1, residual gas not burned dumps into tank 1. During single engine operation how do you fix a fuel imbalance? Low into the good engine When do you declare min fuel? Emergency fuel? 2250, 1500 Are you allowed to land with a fuel imbalance? not while indicated on EICASS When will fuel imbalance EICASS message extinguish? within 100 lbs Is it possible to get a fuel low message without being in a low fuel situation? Yes if scavenge pumps come uncovered When do emergency lights come on? When loss of AC power and switch is "armed" or when switch is "on" How long do emer lights remain illuminated? 10 min how are the emer lights charged? DC bus 1 What happens when you pull the fire handle? Close bleed air valve, fuel valve, and hydraulic valves Are you able to restow the fire handle after you pull it? Yes Why are we required to push the cargo smoke button an additional time to discharge the low rate bottle on the ground? So you don't have to use it when the trucks are likely rolling and the halon is very toxic. The bottle will continue to discharge for 70 minutes. According to SOPM how long should we delay APU start before pushback? 10 min If Batt 1 is inop can you start the APU? No, Batt 1 is required, batt 2 can be inop by utilizing a DC GPU. Min temp to start the APU? -54C Whats the difference between using the APU emer stop button and turning the APU master switch off? 1 minute cool down period If takeoff requires ECS off, what operational requirements exist with respect to the APU? Max alt 330? How long can the aircraft be left unattended with the APU on? 5 min Max Wiper Speed? 250 Do the wipers operate together or independently? Independently When should taxi lights be on/off? What is memory item for BATT Over Temp? ASSOCIATED BATT - OFF When are crews required to monitor flight time and fuel burn? TOC and every hour thereafter Before attempting to balance fuel what does the SOPM require the pilot to check first? Compare total fuel quantity indication on the FMS fuel management page, if FMS fuel remaining quantity is lower than EICAS total, disregard FMS fuel remaining info. This can help you determine if you have a bad fuel sensor probe, fuel leak, etc. What is the pressurization schedule for FL 360? FL 380? 7.8 max psi, 8.0 max psi If ATC asks you to climb to 410 can you accept? Max alt = FL 410, if performance allows In flight if you receive an ENG 1 FAIL caution message, describe actions and callouts? -Announce malfunction -verify AT TOGA - AT disconnect -"Continuous" - set drift down altitude - set speed green dot - FLCH - QRC/QRH procedure What generates ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY EICAS message? No AC power to AC Bus 1 and 2 What would cause the RAT to deploy automatically in flight? Failure of all AC power How long does the RAT take to deploy and latch to the aircraft? 8 seconds, 150kts min, then 130 kts min What is powering the electrical system during an emergency? Batteries power DC ESS Buses and AC Ess busses through INV until RAT deploys What is available in the flight deck to pilots during an electrical emergency? DC Ess bus 1,2,3 During an electrical emergency how can you tell the batteries are being charged? No "Battery discharge" message on EICAS Does the RAT charge the batteries? Emer lights? Yes, emer light batteries are charged through DC ESS bus. What items are on the AC Ess bus - AC Fuel pump 2 - Hyd Sys 3 Elec Pump 3A - SL/FL ACE What is the max altitude the APU can be started? 310 What is the max altitude the APU is operational? 330 Will the APU automatically shutdown in flight for a fire? What will it shutdown for in flight? No.... - U - Underspeed - F - FADEC fault - O - Overspeed Calculate Vapp Speed? -No Stall Protect = Vref +(.5)HW Component + gust factor (min +5 max +20) -Stall Protect = Vref +(.5)HW Component + gust factor (min 0, max +20) What type of brakes? How do they work best? Carbon, short firm applications When will AT automatically retard on landing? Flaps 5 or full, gear down, RA below 150 ft., engages at 30 ft. How should you configure the aircraft when landing on a contaminated runway? Flaps full, max reverse thrust, autobrake med If you had a failure of both hydraulic system 1 and 2, how would you stop the aircraft on landing? parkinng brake using accumulator pressure, 6 applications What concerns are their when using the parking brake on landing? no anti-skid protection, no anti-wheel lock protection What is max tire speed? when might this be a factor? 195kts, no flap/slat landing How would you configure the aircraft for engine anti-ice on upon landing? manually turn it on for taxi in How long are you required to wait before shutting down an engine upon landing? Does this change if the thrust reversers were used? 2 min, no? With engine one running at the gate and external AC connected what is powering the elec system? IDG 1 powering left side, AC GPU powering right side. (inside, outside, crosside) What causes cabin alt high eicas? Cabin alt 9700 ft. What is the memory item for Cabin ALT Hi? -OXYGEN MASKS - DON/100% -CREW COMM - ESTABLISH Two practical uses of descend now? descending on the star and commanded to "descend now" but not yet at your TOD. Recalculates line through hard alts etc. When will speed brakes automatically retract? Flaps greater than 1, and/or speed less than 180 When are you required to use STALL PROTECT ICE SPEEDS? when annunciated on EICASS or CAT II (although there is a seperate table for Cat II, it is the same as STALL PROTECT ICE SPEEDS) On descent the control column appears to be jammed, what do you do? QRC Memory Item: - ELEVATOR DISC HANDLE - Pull or - AILERON DISC HANDLE - PULL Give three requirements of a stabilized approach? final landing config, before landing checklist complete, airspeed +15/-5, on lateral profile, on vertical profile or correcting. What are the lowest minimums for a CAT II approach? 80 ft. RA On a two engine approach with flaps 1, how many hydraulic pumps are running? 5, EDP 1 and 2, ACMP 1B/2B, ACMP 3A What is the single engine approach and landing flap configuration? Flap 5 What is max speed for flap 3? 200 On a RNAV approach, what is the minimum AP altitude? DA/MDA When will the pilot receive windshear escape guidance on the PFD? Between 10 ft. and 1500 ft RA during initial takeoff, go around, and final approach with WINDSHEAR on PFD What are the PM callouts on windshear escape? Climbing, Descending, below 1000 ft. "descending _________ft" Should the PF reference the aircraft symbol or the FD during windshear escape? Flight Director How many ways are their to effectively extend the landing gear?