SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST, Exams of Nursing

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SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED Which of the following scalpel blade grips allows for a finer, more precise incision? a) fingertip b) Pencil c) Palmed d) Slide - CORRECT ANSWERS Pencil Ringed instruments should be held with the rings: - CORRECT ANSWERS Distal to the first knuckle of both the thumb and ring finger True or False: The Balfour retractor is self-retaining retractor that is frequently used during abdominal exploratory procedures - CORRECT ANSWERS True What part of the anesthesia machine converts the liquid anesthetic into a gas anesthetic - CORRECT ANSWERS Vaporizer Which valve allows for room air to enter the anesthesia system if negative pressure is detected in the system? - CORRECT ANSWERS Negative pressure relief valve When might a situation of negative pressure exist in the anesthesia system? - CORRECT ANSWERS When the oxygen source is depleted Which part of the anesthesia machine indicates the amount of pressure in the system? - CORRECT ANSWERS Pressure manometer When the rebreathing bag is being squeezed to ventilate the patient manually, the pop-off valve needs to be: - CORRECT ANSWERS Closed and then opened after giving a breath Why is it important to confirm that the pop-off valve is completely open after the anestheisa machine and circuit are checked for leaks? - CORRECT ANSWERS When the patient is connected to the anesthesia machine with the pop-off valve closed, the patient will not be able to exhale Ideally the surgery room is: SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED a) at least 12 x 12 ft in dimension b) a separate room used only for surgery c) adjacent to the scrub sinks d) has no doors for easy communication - CORRECT ANSWERS a separate room used only for surgery A 27-kg patient would need what size rebreathing bag? - CORRECT ANSWERS 2L + Calculation for size of rebreathing bag: 5 x tidal volume = bag size in mL (round up) Tidal volume = 10ml/kg 27 x 10 = 270 x 5 = 1350 - 2L The suction tip best used to remove large volumes of fluid is the: - CORRECT ANSWERS Poole Which instrument would be used to collect large amounts of bone grafting material intraoperatively? a) Jacobs hand chuck b) periosteal elevator c) bone currette d) biopsy needle - CORRECT ANSWERS Bone currette Of the procedures listed below, which should be scheduled as the first of the day? a) corneal laceration b) Splenectomy c) OHE d) Knee replacement - CORRECT ANSWERS Knee replacement + Schedule the surgery that requires the cleanest environment first Large oxygen tanks are known as _________ tanks. - CORRECT ANSWERS H SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED d) PCV/TS, BUN, BG, and ALT e) PCV/TS, thyroid panel, and FeLV/FIV test - CORRECT ANSWERS PCV/TS, BUN, BG, and ALT What is the purpose of premedicating a patient before inducing anesthesia for surgery? - CORRECT ANSWERS + provide a smooth transition to anesthesia + provide preemptive analgesia + facilitate a smooth recovery True or False: it is appropriate to premed a patient with a preexisting cardiovascular disease with xylazine - CORRECT ANSWERS False True or False: anesthesia ( gas anesthetics) provide multimodal analgesia - CORRECT ANSWERS False Which of the following provides multimodal anesthesia? a) gas anesthetics, morphine, torb, and fentanyl b) NSAIDs c) Xylazine and medetomidine d) Opioids, NSAIDs, Local anesthetic agents, and a2- adrenergic agonists e) None of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS D) Opioids, NSAIDs, local anesthetic agents, and a2- adrenergic agonists True or False: Anticholinergics increase the HR and provide purely beneficial effects for the patient - CORRECT ANSWERS False SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED All of the following are goals of balanced anesthesia except which? a) maximize positive effects of certain drugs b) Minimize side effects c) Maximize liklihood of allergic reactions d) Minimize cardiac depression - CORRECT ANSWERS C) maximize liklihood of allergic reactions The basic principles of pain management involve which of the following? a) preemptive analgesia, multimodal analgesia, and appropriate follow-up analgesia b) use of NSAIDs c) Use of opioids as premed d) None of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS a) preemptive analgesia, multimodal analgesia, and appropriate follow-up analgesia True or False: peripheral catheters generally suffice for short-term use (1 - 3 days), and central lines are more appropriate for long-term vascular access - CORRECT ANSWERS True True or False: Central venous pressure measurements require that a central line be placed - CORRECT ANSWERS True HOw can the patient's correct identify be verified? - CORRECT ANSWERS +Cross-check the signalments and description in the medical record SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED + cross-check the neck, ID band or cage card + ask a friend to confirm identify as well Why should the patient's identity be verified before the animal is anesthetized? - CORRECT ANSWERS + avoid anesthesizing the wrong patient + avoid performing surgery on wrong patient What is the primary purpose of the anesthesia form? - CORRECT ANSWERS "Tells the story" of the anesthetic event from beginning to end Important part of medical record and can be used as a legal document Can help guide anesthetic protocols in the future Why does an orthopedic "clip and prep" of an extremity need to include a circumferential clip around the entire limb? - CORRECT ANSWERS So the surgeon can move and manipulate the leg without contaminating the sterile field What needs to be done to the patient after the hair clip and before they are moved into the surgery suite? - CORRECT ANSWERS + Vacuum the clipped hair and clipped area of skin + Check to see if bladder needs expressing + Perform initial skin scrub True or False: It is accepted practice to scrub a patient initially with a povidone-iodine product - CORRECT ANSWERS True What contributes to hypothermia in the anesthetized patient? - CORRECT ANSWERS + anesthetic- induced muscle relaxation SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED True or false: for orthopedic surgeries of the extremity, only the side of the limb to be incised needs to e clipped and prepped - CORRECT ANSWERS False What position is the patient placed inon the surgery table for thoracic surgery? - CORRECT ANSWERS + dorsal + left or right lateral True or false: when scrubbing the skin of the intended surgical site, sufficient friction should be generated to cause hyperemia - CORRECT ANSWERS False True or false: Chlorhexidine scrub or solution can be used as the final, sterile surgial paint - CORRECT ANSWERS False _____________________ contamination of the surgical suite comes from the surgical team and from the environment in which the surgery occurs - CORRECT ANSWERS Exogenous What is the anesthetist required to wear in the surgical suite when sterile supplies are opened or when scrubbed personnel are present? - CORRECT ANSWERS Head covers and masks Describe an iodophor antimicrobial scrub solution and indicate some of its properties - CORRECT ANSWERS Iodophor antimicrobial scrub solution consists of iodine and a carrier with fungal, viral, and bacterial activity. It's neutralized quickly by organic matter so the area has to be clean. There's a significant immediate antimicrobial effect that's persistent for 4 - 6 hours. There's an odor, staining occurs, and there's tissue irritation What's the difference between closed gloving and open gloving? - CORRECT ANSWERS In closed gloving no bare skin is exposed because the gloves are grasped either through the folded cuff of the sleeve or by the already donned glove. This is the perferred method for sugical gowning. Opening gloving is used when only the hands need to be sterile and no gown is needed. Only nonsterile surfaces should be grasped SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED True or false: going into surgery with an empty stomach is the best way for the surgical nurse to avoid eperiencing nausea and hypoglycemia if the procedure is unepectedly long - CORRECT ANSWERS False What is the surgical assistant responsible? - CORRECT ANSWERS + Maintaining sterility + Maintaining hemostasis Which of the following is true? a) proper surgical attire includes wearing freshly laundered scrub tops and pants, head cover, and mask b) each surgical facility should have its own posted surgery dress code c) proper surgical attire decreases the risk of infection associated with surgery d) all of the above e) NOne of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS D - all of the above What should the surgical nurse don on leaving the surgical suite? - CORRECT ANSWERS Laboratory coat Why should scrub suits not be worn from home to the hospital or to home? - CORRECT ANSWERS they can carry microorganisms into the hospital or home True or false: the surgical nurse's scrub top should be tucked into the scrub pants? - CORRECT ANSWERS True Why should scrub tops be short sleeved? - CORRECT ANSWERS To allow scrubbing above the elbows SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED True or false: it is recommended that all nonscrubbed personnel wear long-sleeved lab coats in the surgery room - CORRECT ANSWERS False True or false: jewelry and long fingernails are protected by the sterile gloves worn by scrubbing-in surgical personnel and therefore do not need to be removed or cut - CORRECT ANSWERS False Which is false regarding the surgical hand preparation? a) prep should begin witha quick, general hand and arm wash b) purpose of the prep is to sterilize the skin on the surgeon's hands and arms c) stiff scrub brushes should not be used to scrub hands and arms d) the product manufacturer determines the recommended length of time the product should be scrubbed on the hands and arms during the hand prep - CORRECT ANSWERS B Which is the correct order of events assoicated with performing the surgical hand prep and donnning the surgical gown and gloves? - CORRECT ANSWERS remove all jewelry - open gown and glove packs - don cap and mask - perform hand prep - dry hand using sterile hand towel - gown - perform closed gloving What does managing the instrument table involve? - CORRECT ANSWERS + keeping instruments organized for quick retrieval + counting instruments and gauze squares at the beginning and the end of the procedure + loading the needle holders with suture needle Explain the importance of aseptic technique - CORRECT ANSWERS Aseptic technique is used to maintain the absence of disease-causing organisms in the surgical environment SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED + the term is related to the condition where there is an absence of orgnaisms or microoganisms that can cause infection. This condition is not similar to sterile as it denotes the negation of any life form on an object or the environment. + Aspetic technique is performed before and during surgery to eliminate any risk of contamination and infection Which of the following is NOT a component of the anesthesia machine? a) pop-on valve b) undirectional expiratory valve c) unidirectional inspiratory valve d) Scavenging system, both active and passive - CORRECT ANSWERS Pop-on valve + pop-off valve Which is the correct formula to calculate the size of a rebreathing bag - CORRECT ANSWERS 5 x tidal volume + to calculate the rebreathing bag size to mL, you can use one of these formulas: 5 x tidal volume = bag size in mL, where tidal volume = 10 ml/kg of body weight OR body weight in pounds x 30 = bag size in mL Which suction tip is most often used in orthopedic and neurologic procedures? - CORRECT ANSWERS Frazier/Adson Which of the following is a soft tissue surgery instrument? SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED a) doyen instestinal forceps b) rongeurs c) allis tissue forceps d) russian thumb tissue forceps - CORRECT ANSWERS Doyen Intestinal Forceps + Doyen intestinal forceps and Babock intestinal forceps allow handling of the delicate tissue w/o trauma or compromise of blood flow All of the following may be used in ophthalmic surgery, except: a) lid speculum b) baby metzenbaum scissors c) rochester-carmalt forceps d) lacrimal cannulas - CORRECT ANSWERS Rochester-carmalt forceps + used when tissue isn't viable or is being removed, and can be clamped with a more traumatic clamp. The instruments used for ophthalmic surgeries are meant for a rather delicate use __________ suture material tends to have less tissue drag or friction, when being pulled through the tissues than _____________ suture material - CORRECT ANSWERS Monofilament, multifilament + Monofilament suture material tends to have less tissue drag or friction, when being pulled through the tissue than multifilament suture What kind of needle is best suited for suturing intestine? - CORRECT ANSWERS Taper-point SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED + Taper-point needle has a round needle body, is best for suturing intestine where a sealed suture line is needed What does signalment mean? - CORRECT ANSWERS age, gender, breed While auscultating the heart what would record as the PMI? - CORRECT ANSWERS The rib space where the systolic murmur is heard the loudest + PMI, the point of maximum intensity, is the rib space where systolic murmer, is heard the loudest. Both should be noted in the medical record All of the following are included int he minimum preanesthetic diagnostic database or MDB, except: a) Blood urea nitrogen b) thoracic auscultation c) alanine aminotransferase d) blood glucose - CORRECT ANSWERS Thoracic auscultation + part of the PE, not the MDB Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein? a) Albumin b) Heparin c) Globulin SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED a) if the item looks worn from being handled too much b) the surgical nurse lifts the sterile item straight out of the package without touching the edges of the package c) if the items meets the criteria for being sterile but has passed the expiration date d) there are sterile indicators located outside of the package - CORRECT ANSWERS If the item looks worn from being handled too much + according to AORN, sterility is event-related and not time-related, hence expiration dates are irrelevant. The sterile indicators are to verify if the items have undergone proper sterilization. If the surgical nurse lifts the sterile item straight out then it is considered sterile What is not considered part of proper surgical attire? a) name tag b) clean shoes c) head covers d) scrub top tucked into pants - CORRECT ANSWERS Name tags ___________ scrub solution has the highest persistence, with residual effect maintained for more than 6 days - CORRECT ANSWERS Chlorhexidine gluconate 4% + considered persistent ( has the ability to stop microbial regrowth with repeated use). This residual effect is maintained for more than 6 days Which is true of gowning? SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED a) even if the gown isn't fitted comfortably, the circulating nurse shouldn't touch the gown to adjust it b) the scrubbed person's hand can be outside the cuff even for closed gloving c) after locating the neckline and armholes, hold the gown by the neckline and shake it to open d) gowns are folded inside out inthe packs - CORRECT ANSWERS Gowns are folded inside out in the packs + You don't want to shake the gowns, as this may cause them to touch unwanted surfaces. The scrubbed person's hands should remain inside the cuff and should not be exposed for close gloving. If the gown isn't fitted comfortably, the circulating nurse may grasp the gown by the bottom hemp and pull it downwards Preanesthetic drugs are usually administered via the ______ route to relax and sedate the patient - CORRECT ANSWERS Subcutaneous + given IM or SQ allowing a patient to be more relaxed for an IVC to be placed Electrosurgery - CORRECT ANSWERS use of electricity transmitted through a special hand piece to cut or coagulate vessels Box lock - CORRECT ANSWERS joint or hinge of the instrument with ring handles Shank - CORRECT ANSWERS The body or the shaft of the instrument. This part is usually the longest area and determines the overall length of the instrument Operating scissors - CORRECT ANSWERS Used for cutting inanimate objects only, such as suture or paper drapes + can be straight or curved, and the blades can be sharp tipped or blunt tipped SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED Mayo scissors - CORRECT ANSWERS Used for cutting large muscle masses, cartilage, or any other delicate tissue + blades are thick and approximately one-third the instruments length + blades can be straight or curved Metzenbaum scissors - CORRECT ANSWERS Used for delicate surgical dissection + blades are thin and delicate, and approximately one-fourth the overall length. + shaft is long and thin + blade: straight or curved Suture removal scissors - CORRECT ANSWERS Used to remove external sutures from the skin Halstead Mosquito Hemostatic Forceps - CORRECT ANSWERS has small jaws, with fine horizontal serration extending the entire length of the tip + used to clamp small vessels Kelly hemostatic forceps - CORRECT ANSWERS Wider horizontal serration (compared to halstead) and extends to half the length of the jaws + used for medium size vessels or small tissue masses Crile Hemostatic Forceps - CORRECT ANSWERS Wide horizontal serration extending the entire length of the jaw Ferguson angiotribe - CORRECT ANSWERS Has a crushing jaw design with one jaw raised and the other recessed + can be used on vessels of almost any size and on any tissue that will not need to be viable in the body as these are traumatic SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED Memory of the suture material - CORRECT ANSWERS The ability or tendency of the suture to return to its original packaged form Tensile strength of suture material - CORRECT ANSWERS Amount of force in psi that the suture can withstand as an untied fiber before it breaks Flexibility of suture material - CORRECT ANSWERS The ease with which the suture is manipulated, either by the surgeon or in the tissue absorbability of suture material - CORRECT ANSWERS ability of the suture to be broken down by the body through different processes like phagocytosis or hydrolysis Capillarity of suture material - CORRECT ANSWERS ability of the suture to allow microbes to which (be carried) to the interior of the suture strand Nociception - CORRECT ANSWERS Pathway for pain signaling; diving into four phases: transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception Transduction phase of nociception - CORRECT ANSWERS When a tissue is traumatized, that event is converted to a signal to be sent to the CNS Transmission phase of nociception - CORRECT ANSWERS Propagation of pain impulses toward the spinal cord Modulation phase of nociception - CORRECT ANSWERS Some pain signals are handled locally by the release of endogenous opioids, whereas others are sent to the brain for further processing Perception phase of nociception - CORRECT ANSWERS "knowing" that pain is present; usually results in reactions like withdrawal, vocalization, and in some cases, aggression Agonists - CORRECT ANSWERS Drugs that bind to an opioid receptor and cause expression of activity SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED Pure agonists - CORRECT ANSWERS drugs that bind and stimulate all types of opioid receptors, causing maximum analgesia Prophylaxis - CORRECT ANSWERS The measure taken in the prevention of diease Anticholingerics - CORRECT ANSWERS Drugs that help reduce bradycardia and dry oral secretions Macrodrip set - CORRECT ANSWERS an IVF line that delivers fluids, usually 10 or 15 drops/mL, allowing for high volume to be delivered in a short time Microdrip set - CORRECT ANSWERS IVF line that delivers fluids at a rate of 60 drops per mL, allowing for greater precision Central Venous Pressure (CVP) - CORRECT ANSWERS a measure of blood volume and venous return used to monitor fluid volume status ASA status - CORRECT ANSWERS the American Society of Anesthesioligsts rating system used to assess a particular patient's risk for an anesthetic procedure Endogenous contamination - CORRECT ANSWERS When the source of contamination is the patient Exogenous Contamination - CORRECT ANSWERS When source of contamination is the surgical team and environment Surgical hand scrub - CORRECT ANSWERS Process of removing as many microorganisms as possible from nails, hands, and arms by mechanical washing and chemical antisepsis before a person goes into surgery Asepsis - CORRECT ANSWERS absence of pathogenic microorganisms that cause infection Sterile - CORRECT ANSWERS Absence of all living microorganisms, including spores SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED Using the stages of anesthesia as a guideline, what's the ideal surgical plane? - CORRECT ANSWERS Stage III, Plane 2 is medium surgical anesthesia What parameters should be monitored every five minutes while the patient is under anesthesia? - CORRECT ANSWERS +Heart rate and respiratory rate and rhythms, CRT, MM, eye position, muscle tone and reflexes should be monitored every 5 minutes while the patient is under the anesthetic. +Temperature should be monitored every 15 minutes. + Note the volume of fluid administered, O2 flow rate, O2 tank pressure, and anesthetic concentration every 5 - 15 mins. When administering a ventilating breath, whats the maximum level that the manometer should register on the machine? - CORRECT ANSWERS No more than 20 cm H20 or normal chest expansion What reflexes should be checked routinely to assess anesthetic depth? - CORRECT ANSWERS + auricular (ear flick) + pedal (withdrawal) + palpebral (blink) + corneal + laryngeal (swallow) + jaw tone How frequently should physiologic parameters be recorded in the anesthesia log during surgery? - CORRECT ANSWERS Every 5 minutes SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED True or false? As a rule of thumb the edges of drapes should generally be placed 1/2 to 3/4 inch from the incision line - CORRECT ANSWERS True Why is it important to perform an instrument count and sponge count at the beginning and end of the procedure? - CORRECT ANSWERS If the numbers at the end of the procedure don't match the number of instruments and sponges at the beginning, it's possible that an instrument or sponge was accidentally left in the patient's body cavity and needs to be removed before closure is completed Which of the following methods should be used to place a scalpel blade on a scalpel handle? a) thumb and index finger of the assistant's nondominant hand b) any hemostat with secure ratchets c) needle holder d) allis tissue forceps - CORRECT ANSWERS Needle holder True or false: when passing ring-handled instruments to the surgeon, the assistant should firmly place the rings into the surgeon's palm - CORRECT ANSWERS True True or false: rubbing or wiping a "bleeder" with a gauze square is the best means of maintaining homeostasis - CORRECT ANSWERS False Why is it important to know the approximate volume of blood a sponge can absorb? - CORRECT ANSWERS To estimate the amount of blood volume the patient lost intraoperatively True or false: the best drape material is 200-thread count linen - CORRECT ANSWERS False. There is no best drape material The first ground drape placed for four corner draping is on which side of the patient? - CORRECT ANSWERS the side closest to the person draping SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED True or false: penetrating towel clamps are used to secure drapes to the patients - CORRECT ANSWERS True What does it mean when a drape is fenestrated? - CORRECT ANSWERS That there's a hole or opening in the drape that will be placed over the proposed incision site Explain in detail the process to remove a skin suture that was done as a simple continuous pattern - CORRECT ANSWERS Using a thumb tissue forceps, grab the free end of the suture at one end of the suture line and, using the hook blade of the suture removal scissors, cut the suture just next to the knot. It is unwise to pull the entire suture line through the wound as this may introduce bacteria into the wound. Every third or fourth stitch of the continuous patterns should be snipped, and then the shorter piece of suture pulled out. When the entire line of suture has been removed, the final stitch needs to be removed Define the suffix -rraphy - CORRECT ANSWERS Closure or repair by suturing Explain the purpose of cerclage wires - CORRECT ANSWERS used to hold bone fragments in alignment. They're a form of internal fixation In an ovariohysterectomy, most patients are positioned in ___________ - CORRECT ANSWERS dorsal recumbency ___________ is an elective procedure to prevent the cat from sctaching the owner's furniture - CORRECT ANSWERS Onychectomy What's a reducible fracture? - CORRECT ANSWERS a fracture that can be restored to its normal position so that the opposite edges are touching What position is the patient placed in for an abdominal exploratory surgery? - CORRECT ANSWERS Dorsal recumbency Which of the following is considered an orthopedic procedure? a) Ovariohysterectomy SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED b) Orchiectomy c) Celiotomy d) Onychectomy - CORRECT ANSWERS Onychectomy - considered an orthopedic procedure as the claw and its associated third phalanx is removed What is the primary indication for an ovariohysterectomy? - CORRECT ANSWERS Reproductive sterilization Why is it beneficial to spay a dog before her first heat cycle? - CORRECT ANSWERS + to decrease the chance of unwanted litters + to decrease the chance of the development of mammary gland tumors Which of the following breeds of dogs have an increased risk of dystocia? a) golden retrievers b) greyhounds c) bulldogs d) cocker spaniels - CORRECT ANSWERS Bulldogs During which procedure is the uterus removed? - CORRECT ANSWERS + routine ovariohysterectomy + en bloc resection Which of the following is an indication for abdominal exploratory surgery? SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED + bone plates Which device(s) are used in external fixation of fractured bones? - CORRECT ANSWERS Ring fixation List possible complications associated with internal fixation of fracture repair? - CORRECT ANSWERS + nonunion + malunion + delayed union + aseptic loosening True or false: splints are appropriate only for fractures that are distal to the elbow and stifle - CORRECT ANSWERS True Which diagnostic tests may aid in diagnosing a torn cranial cruciate ligaments - CORRECT ANSWERS + cranial drawer test + palpation of the hock joint + tibial compression test Which diagnostic test used to evaluate masses does not usually require sedation or anesthesia, is easy to perform, has minimal moribidity associated with it, but has a low diagnostic yield? - CORRECT ANSWERS Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) For what condition is a lateral ear canal resection indicated? - CORRECT ANSWERS + chronic otitis externa + neoplasia of the ear canal SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED True or false: baby shampoo diluted 1:3 with water is both effective and safe in cleansing the periocular area before ophthalmic surgery - CORRECT ANSWERS False Which of the following procedures is/are considered minimally invasive? a) laser surgery b) laparoscopy c) endoscopy d) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS All of the above Workplace hazards associated with laser surgery - CORRECT ANSWERS + eye and skin damage + smoke plume hazard + fire hazard What advantage does laparscopy have over traditional laparotomy? - CORRECT ANSWERS + smaller surgical incisions + lower postoperative morbidity True or false: a flexible endoscope with a diameter of 8 to 11 mm and a working length of 100 cm is usually adequate for most feline and canine upper GI exams and colonoscopies - CORRECT ANSWERS True True or false: when the endoscope is not being used, it should be set on the exam table - CORRECT ANSWERS False SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED How long should a patient be fasted before gastroscopy - CORRECT ANSWERS 12- to 18-hour food fast, 4-hour water fast True or false: duodenoscopy aids in the diagnosis and treatment of small intestine diease - CORRECT ANSWERS True True or false: lymphoma is the most common intestinal neoplasia - CORRECT ANSWERS True Colonoscopy refers to the endoscopic technique of examining what? - CORRECT ANSWERS + rectum + large intestine + cecum Which of the following is applies to patients about to undergo colonscopy a) it needs to be fasted for 24 to 36 hours b) it will receive an enema c) a and b d) none - CORRECT ANSWERS C In addition to rendering a male cat unable to reproduce, which of the following is an indication for castrating a male cat? - CORRECT ANSWERS + prevent aggressive behavior + prevent urine spraying + prevent roaming SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED Which of the following is used to provide tissue stabilization and hemostasis during an ophthalmic procedure? a) Rochester-Carmalt forceps b) Half curved tissue forceps c) Allis tissue forceps d) Chalazion forceps - CORRECT ANSWERS Chalazion forceps An English bulldog seems to have a pulled back eye along with secondary, raised third eyelid on both eyes. What sign is he showing? - CORRECT ANSWERS Enophthalmos + pulling back of the eye and a secondary, raised third eyelid. Clinical sign of entropion Which of the following is an example of an internal fixation device to treat a fracture? a) SK fixation b) Kirschner-Ehmer fixation c) Rigid splints d) Cerclage wires - CORRECT ANSWERS Cerclage wires + applied by being passed either completely around the bone or wire through a predrilled hole How many hours of fasting is preferred before a colonoscopy? - CORRECT ANSWERS 36 SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED + inadequately prepared patients could have possible mucosal artifacts, which is undesirable Agonal breathing - CORRECT ANSWERS death agony; When the animal sporadically contracts its diaphragm but no physiological exchange of gases is occuring in the lungs Supination - CORRECT ANSWERS indicates that the plam of the hand is facing upward or outward Pronation - CORRECT ANSWERS rotation of the hand and forearm so that the palm faces backward or downward Bone wax - CORRECT ANSWERS Hemostatic agent made of beeswa and a softening agent that's used on a cut bone surface to assist with hemorrhage control Dehiscence - CORRECT ANSWERS Separation of all layers of an incision or wound Evisceration - CORRECT ANSWERS Exposure of the abdominal organ Celiotomy - CORRECT ANSWERS Surgical incision into the abdominal cavity Laparotomy - CORRECT ANSWERS flank incision into the abdominal cavity Neoplasia - CORRECT ANSWERS new, uncontrolled growth of cells Plication of the intestines - CORRECT ANSWERS folding or bunching of the intestines on themsevles along the length of the linear foreign body Antimesenteric border - CORRECT ANSWERS the side of the intestine wihtout the attached mesentery SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED Aerophagia - CORRECT ANSWERS habitual swallowing of air Nosocomial infection - CORRECT ANSWERS infection contracted while being treated at the hospital Orchiectomy - CORRECT ANSWERS Neuter Entropion - CORRECT ANSWERS Rolling in of the eyelid Cranial tibial thrust - CORRECT ANSWERS a shear force created when the cranial cruciate ligament rupture causes the tibia to slide forward and the femure to fall back Posteroperative hypothermia, a body temprature of _______ is to be epected - CORRECT ANSWERS 97 degrees F A/An _________ is an anesthetic to which sight hounds are sensitive - CORRECT ANSWERS barbituate What are the phases of wound healing generally considered to be? - CORRECT ANSWERS + inflammatory + debridement + repair (fibroblastic) + maturation What is meant by second intention healing? - CORRECT ANSWERS Wounds that are left to heal closed on their own without suturing + scarring is often a result SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED + allow measurement of urine production, which reflects the condition of the kidneys + help keep the patient clean and dry True or false: PT should be performed shoftly after analgesics have been administed - CORRECT ANSWERS True True or false: cold genearlly is applied to recent wounds and heat to wounds at least 3 to 5 days old - CORRECT ANSWERS True Massage provides which benefits? - CORRECT ANSWERS + muscle relaxation + improved blood flow and lymph flow + pain relief The terms effleurage and petrissage refers to which physical therapy modality - CORRECT ANSWERS massage What is the minimum amount that an animal should consume orally before assisted feeding is needed? - CORRECT ANSWERS 85% How long should an animal be allowed to not eat before intervention is sought? - CORRECT ANSWERS 3 days How can a vet tech determine whether a patient's pain was successfully managed through surgery and into the postop phase - CORRECT ANSWERS + recovery is smooth + that patient is calm and quiet postop + signs of overt pain are absent SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED Statements regarding postop analgesia is true - CORRECT ANSWERS Patients undergoing soft tissue elective surgery should receive an opioid for 24 hours and NSAIDs for 3 to 4 days postop True or false: NSAIDs are the only calss of analgesics that may safely be sent home with the owner for home pain management - CORRECT ANSWERS False What is the difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic - CORRECT ANSWERS Disinfectants inhibt or prevent growth of microbes on inanimate objects Antiseptic is a chemical that inhibits or prevents growth of microbes on living tissue 2 disinfectants that either bind to organic material or are inactivated by organic material are ________ and ____________ - CORRECT ANSWERS + quaternary amine based + iodine disinfectants What three aspects of sterilization of instruments should be kept in mind - CORRECT ANSWERS + cleaning + decontaminiation or sanitizing + sterilizing If using an ultrasonic cleaner, what type of solution should be used and why? - CORRECT ANSWERS An enymatic solution should be used. The enzymes break down the debris on the instruments and the surfactant reduces the surface tension so that the solution can penetrate into the dried debris __________ of the autoclave is a critical step in the sterilization process - CORRECT ANSWERS Proper loading SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED Whats the typical temperature, pressure, and time used in regular gravity air-displacement sterilizers? - CORRECT ANSWERS The steam pressure of 15 - 27 psi causes the temperature to rise 250 - 270 degrees F + the usually time is 15 mins and then the door is cracked open for 15 mins to allow moisture to evaporate In what room should anal sacs surgeries and absecessed wounds be lanced and flushed? - CORRECT ANSWERS Preparation room What items should be located in the scrub area/room - CORRECT ANSWERS + scrub sink + autoclave + table or counter space to open gown packs True or false: all procedures should be performed in the surgery room, whether they are "clean" or "dirty" - CORRECT ANSWERS False True or false: the surgery room needs to have easy access, so doors should not be placed between surgery rooms and scrub/prep areas - CORRECT ANSWERS False True or false: the air pressure in the sx room should be greater than that in the rest of the hospital to reduce the influx of bacteria into the room - CORRECT ANSWERS True True or false: movable equipment should not leave the surgery room - CORRECT ANSWERS True When moveable equipment is removed from the sx room: - CORRECT ANSWERS It should be thoroughly cleaned and disinfected before being returned In the absence of cleaning instructions from the manufacturer, stethoscopes, BP cuffs, and other noncritical items can be cleaned in what manner for use in surgery - CORRECT ANSWERS Cleaned and then disinfected with alcohol SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED + make sure there is no redness, moisture, heat, or odor on the skin next to the bandage edge + make sure the bandage doesn't get wet + watch for signs of chewing What instructions should be given regarding e-collars? - CORRECT ANSWERS + should remain on at all times until otherwise directed + if patient's struggle with eating you can raise bowls + keep in mind that other pets can irritate the site If the pet has had ortho sx, excessive activity and exercise can _______ the healing process - CORRECT ANSWERS delay When trying to determine the patient's pain level, what parameters should you consider? - CORRECT ANSWERS +physiologic responses: HR, RR, and depth + behavior responses: vocalization, body posture, activity, attitude, appetite, urinary/bowel habits, self-grooming + the anticipated pain associated with the procedure and how the patient is currently responding True or false: pain creates adverse physiologic changes - CORRECT ANSWERS True The American Animal Hospital Association encourages hospitals to recognize pain as: - CORRECT ANSWERS a vital sign Preemptive pain management prevents the liklihood of: - CORRECT ANSWERS + hyperexcitability SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED + hyperalgesia + allodynia True or false: it is possible to anticipate the amount of postop pain on the basis of the procedure performed - CORRECT ANSWERS Treu Treu or false: because each animal is an individual, it is in the best interest of the pet to wait until it shows signs of pain before administering analgesia - CORRECT ANSWERS False - the animal should not have to "request" pain medication True or false: dysphoria can be quieted with calm interaction - CORRECT ANSWERS False True or false: Fentanyl is recommended for one-time bolus use - CORRECT ANSWERS False - the half life is too short True or false: the overall goal of postop pain management should be to maintain the analgesic plan acheived throughout surgery - CORRECT ANSWERS True What does increasing the concentration of gas anesthetic durig a painful prcoedure do - CORRECT ANSWERS keeps the animal immobile but does not manage pain When might a patient need an IV bolus of analgesic drug? - CORRECT ANSWERS + if the patient moves during surgical stimulation + if the HR rapidily increases + if the BP markedly rises Which of the following drug group(s) is (are) most often given CRI - CORRECT ANSWERS + local anesthetics SURGICAL NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS NEW UPDATED 2024/2025 BEST RATED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED + opioids + N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) antagonists Signs of prolonged recovery from anesthesia: - CORRECT ANSWERS + lethargy + ataia +depression How often should the surgical site be observed once the patient is discharged to the owners? - CORRECT ANSWERS twice daily, as a minimum When checking the surgical site, what should be noted? - CORRECT ANSWERS + number of sutures + any swelling + any redness or discharge from the incision Serous discharge tends to accumulate where a surgical drain exits the skin. What can be done to prevent this accumulation from occluding the drainage site and thereby preserve the intended function? - CORRECT ANSWERS + application of warm socaks around the exit site + application of a thin film of petroleum jelly True or false: when a dog has a bandage, splint, or cast on a limb, it should be walked only by leash - CORRECT ANSWERS True True or false: a plastic bag may be continuously kept over a bandage, splint, or cast to prevent it from getting dirty or damaged - CORRECT ANSWERS False