Surgical Procedures: A Study Guide with Questions and Answers, Exams of General Surgery

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ABSA Study Guide Questions with Correct Answers

1.1. Which is not considered part of a sterile field?: Gloves of sterile person who has folded his

arms

2.2. The presence of only one living microorganism means an object is:: Con- taminated

3.3. Which statement concerning masks is not true?: Ties may be tied criss- cross on top of

head

4.In draping a table, the scrub nurse drapes from to , protecting

her gloves .: Front, back, by cuffing drape edge

5.The purpose of the hand scrub by the team is to render their skin:: Surgically Clean

6.After steam sterilization, which items should not be considered sterile?: - Suction tips attached

to tubing, Asepto syringes with bulbs attached, Cautery tips bound with rubber bands

7.7. Because there is less chance contamination, the preferred method of gloving is. For

changing only a glove during a case, this method be used.: Closed, cannot

8.8. Which directive for loading a pressure steam sterilizer is incorrect: Load- ing liquids first to

prevent spillage on packs

9.10. If the prep site contains a colostomy or draining sinus which cannot be sealed off, it should be

scrubbed:: Last with sponges used once and discarded

10.11. Operating room floors should be flooded with and at the

end of each .: Detergent germicide, wet-vaccumed, case

11.What are some potential sources for surgical infection:: Circulating air, patient's bronchial

2 / 34 tree, scrub teams hair, patients circulating blood, instruments, patients and scrub teams skin

12.Which statement regarding the use of masks is false?: Cross strings behind the head for better

aeration

13.Strike-through: The soaking of moisture through unsterile layers to sterile lay- ers or vice

versa

14.Which statement concerning the use of boiling water as a sterilizing agent is false?: Minimum

boiling period is 10 minutes

15.The OR ventilating system ensures controlled air supply: air ex-

changes per hour are recommended for infection control and a percent humidity is mandatory to suppress static electricity: 25, 50

16.Which draping principle is false?: Drape far side of unsterile table first

17.Which are not essential considerations in the design of an OR suite:: Win- dows, top floor

locations, central corridor

18.8. Which statement regarding sterile items is false?: Covered sterile set ups may be used later

in the day

19.9. When is the open glove technique preferred over the closed glove technique?: To

change a glove during a procedure

20.The first step in the decontamination process of instruments after a pro- cedure should be::

Mechanical decontamination washer-sterilizer

21.11. Which antiseptic solutions are effective against both gram-negative and gram-positive

microorganisms: Iodophors, Chlorhexidine gluconate

22.Which statement regarding sterile technique is false: Paper or peel-open packages are torn

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23.13. Which is (are) used to check the effectiveness of sterilizers:: Biological spore strip

24.Which statement concerning ethylene oxide sterilization is false?: Polyvinyl chloride wrappers

are recommended

25.Predisposing factors that substantially increases the risk of infection are:: Duration of

operation, invasive monitoring techniques, indiscriminate use of antibioties, gastrointestinal surgery, prosthetic devices.

26.An area of a gown considered sterile is ( are ) the while the is

considered unsterile.: Sleeves, neck

27.Which is the major source of contamination in the operating room?: Per- sonnel

28.Which is (are) not effective method (s) of disinfection in an operating room:: Mercurial

compounds, Fogging

29.Which statement concerning pathogenic Streptococci species of microor- ganism is false?: They

are gram-negative, nonmotile organisms

30.The preferred method of sterilization for heat-sensitive items and anes- thesia equipment when

EO sterilization is impractical is soaking in:: Activated glutaraldehyde

31. Which disadvantage in use of muslin wrapper material for sterile packs and items?: It must be

laundered to rehydrate

32.Which statement regarding hexachlorophene as an antiseptie solution is false?: It is soluble in

water

33.Completely unwrapped items may be sterilized in a flash sterilizer at

pounds of pressure, degrees F, for minutes: 27, 270, 3

34.The foundation for the practice of strict aseptic and sterile technique is:: A surgical conscience

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35.Factors that have adverse affects on the shelf life of sterile items include:-

: Open cabinets, high temperature, extremes in humidity

36.All of the following may cause arterial hypotension surgical patient ex- cept:: Hypervolemia

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37.The anesthesiologist evaluates the patient's oxygenation and carbon by measuring arterial::

pH, pCO2, H2CO

38.Which statement is not true about fluids?: Lab report of a dehyrdated patient shows a

decrease in packed cell volume and hemoglobin

39.The center which regulates the rhythm of respirations is located in the:: -

Pons

40.In surgical patients, the most common cause of shock is oligemia which is a/an:: Deficient

circulating blood volume

41.Which of the following may cause apnea: Stimulation of the pharynx by irritating

chemicals, Sudden cold stimulation applied to the skin, Sudden painful stimulation

42.7. Which statement is not true about the sino-atrial atrium?: Impulses pass from it to the bundle

of His

43.Oxygen is carried in the blood:: As physically dissolved oxygen in plasma, in combination

with the hemoglobin of the red blood cells

44.After cardiovascular surgery, hypocalcemia may result from and hy- perkalemia may result

from .: Multiple transfusion of citrated blood, red cell breakdown from pump perfusion

45.The basic approach to the treatment of shock is to:: Determine the cause

46.An accurate index of cardiac performance is:: Central Venouse pressure

47.Solutions whose volumes and pressures remain the same if the two solu- tions are separated

membrane are:: Not hypertonic, hypotonic or isotonic

48.To produce inspiration, pressure must be lower than pressure; it must be to produce

expiration.: Intrathoracic, atmospheric, higher

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49.In a two-bottle water seal suction setup for chest drainage, the first bottle provides and the

second provides the .: Water seal and collect drainage, suction control

50.Operating for empyema include:: Thoracoplasty and decortication of the lung

51.Following open heart surgery, drainage catheters may inserted into;: The pericardium and

anterior mediastinum

52.The blood component administered to patient with a clotting problem is: Fresh Frozen

Plasma

53.Which of the following statements concerning erythrocytes (RBC) is not true?: Transport

oxygen and carry carbon dioxide

54.Which of the following concerning the lymphatic system is not true?: -

Lymph nodes act as absorbers and diffusers

55.The continuous rhythmic lavage of the bladder to stimulate reflex control is: Closed drainage

56.21. Edema can result from:: Kidney disease and severe burns, lymphatic and venous

blockage and overdilation of arterioles

57.Which of the following methods are not used to control blood loss in the OR: Deoxydized

cellulose and cotton plegets

58.23. The main indication for dialysis in renal failure is a high .The methods

of dialysis are and .: Serum Potassium, hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis

59.A patient receiving IV therapy develops shortness of breath with increased respiratory rate and

blood pressure. The diagnosis and the nurse should .: Circulatory overload, slow the IV

60.All of the following are function of the spleen except:: Stabilize arterial flow

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61.Which of the following men discovered body absorbs sutures made from animal tissues?: Philip

Syng Physick

62.Which of the following suture materials is not absorbed but remains living tissue in the body?:

Fascia lata

63.The space caused by the separation of wound edges which have not been closely approximately

by sutures is called:: Dead space

64.An interrupted suture, which is placed through the tissue from one side of the tissue from one

side of the wound to the other and then through the called: Mattress

65.Suture material which, during the healing process, becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue

called:: Non-absorbable suture

66.In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of surgical gut is:: In- creased

67.Which of the following sutures may be used in the presence of infection?-

: Polypropylene

68.A suture in which short lateral stitches are taken beneath: Subcuticular

69.The healing process in which a wound is purposely left open and allowed to heal from the bottom

upward is called: Secondary intention

70.Surgical gut is made from the:: Submucosa layer of sheeps intestines

71.Which of the following is most inert in tissue?: Wire

72.A stay suture does not pass through:: Mesentery

73.The spitting open or gaping of a wound is called:: Dehiscence

74.Which of the following is used to stop bleeding and oozing on the surfaces of severed bones?: A

mixture of waxes (chiefly beeswax)

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75.The protrusion of bowel through the separated of an abdominal wound closure: Evisceration

76.Silk is not recommended for use in the gallbladder, kidney, or bladder because:: It may

become the nucleus for stone formation

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77.Most braided or twisted nonabsorbable sutures should be used in the presence of active

infection because:: The sutures become a breeding place for infection

78.The Halsted Technique consists mainly of:: Interrupted Silk Sutures

79.Another name for a stick tie or transfixion suture is: Suture ligature

80.Bumpers or guards are used on tension to:: Prevent the heavy suture from cutting into the

skin

81.Tissue trauma will be kept to a minimum by using:: Sutured swagged to a needle

82.The amount of weight or pull necessary to break the suture or ligature material is called::

Tensile strength

83. 23. Which of the following would have a weakening effect on suture?: Soak- ing it in saline,

testing its tensile strength, straightening it

84.Which of the material is least reactive tissue?: Polypropylene

85.What type of suture would be used when closing the anus for the perineal stage of an abdominal

perineal resection: A purse-string suture

86.The ampulla of Vater is dilated for:: Common Duct Stones

87.2. Select the procedure(s) that require(s) isolation of instruments from operative field: Open

intestinal anastomosis, common duct exploration, exterior- ization of colostomy

88.A longitudinal ulcer in the anal canal is and is a tubular tract that has

its skin opening beside the anus: Fissure in ano, fistula in ano

89.Protrusion of viscera through the abdominal incision following surgery is:: Evisceration

90.All of the conditions require immediate surgery except:: Massive rectal prolapse

91.Cessation of peristalsis is:: Paralytic ileus

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92.An abdominal incision made parallel and about four cm lateral to midline is a incision.:

Paramedian rectus

93.Which statement concerning hernias is not true?: Direct hernia leaves the abdomen through

the inguinal ring

94.Subtotal gastric resection with gastrojejunostomy anterior to the trans- verse Colon is a:

Billroth 2

95.A saccular dilation leading from the lumen of the bowel is:: Diverticulum

96.The surgical procedure for carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is a

operation: Whipple

97.Vagotomy is performed with partial gastrectomy for peptic ulcer disease to:: Decrease

secretion of hydrochloric acid

98.Esophageal varices occur when an increase in obstruction forces blood to seek new

avenue of return to the .: Portal vein, venous, right atrium

99.A Roux-Y procedure for common duct repair is a:: Choledochojejunostomy

100. Surgical bypass procedure for portal hypertension is a shunt between and or

between and .: Portal vein, inferior vena cava, splenic vein, left renal vein

101. All of the following cause intestinal obstruction except:: Colitis

102. Which statement concerning thyroid is not true?: A glandular segment that is essential

to life

103. Which statement concerning small bowel obstruction is not true?: It caus- es distension

of distal intestine

104. In which of the following is a loop colostomy done?: Bowel decompression

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105. Which of the following must be sutured to close an upper paramedian incision::

Anterior rectus sheath, posterior rectus sheath, peritoneum

106. A benign intestinal tumor is while is malignant: Fibromata, lym- phosarcoma

107. Which statement concerning splenectomy is not true?: Surgery causes an increase in

antibody production

108. Which of the following does not require immediate surgery?: Fecal im- paction,

sigmoid colon volvulus, paralytic ileus

109. The four major sources of blood supply to the stomach are:: Right and Left

gastroepiploic, right and left gastric

110. Anastomosis between the small intestine and colon is a:: Ileocolostomy

111. Surgical removal of an endocrine gland effects the:: Body Metabolism

112. Which structure must be identified in a parotidectomy procedure?: Cra- nial nerve VII

113. Which procedures may be performed for breast and/or prostatic malig- nancy:

Prostatectomy, mastectomy, adrenalectomy, hypophysectomy, oophorecto- my, orchiectomy

114. The salivary glands consist of:: The sublingual, submaxillary, parotid

115. Which statement(s) about the endocrine glands is/are true: They release their

secretions into the blood stream, They are essential for growth and develop- ment, They are ductless glands

116. Acromegaly is the result of hyperfunction of the:: Pituitary

117. Which statement concerning a postoperative hypophysectomy patient is true?:

Replacement adrenal steroid therapy is required, Diabetes insipidus may occur, Cessation of menstruation and infertility occurs

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118. The secreting cells of the mammary glands:: Are the alveoli

119. Whipple operation for carcinoma of the pancreas includes removal of the

of the pancreas, entire , portion of the and the distal segment of the .: Head, duodenum, stomach, common bile duct

120. Low levels of adrenocortical hermone in the blood or urine is indicative of

diseases: Addison's

121. R

adical mastectony for cancer involves removal of portion of the muscle(s): Pectoralis major and minor

122. Bleeding from a tonsillar bed is controlled with rather

than which might damage the artery: Pressure, suture ligatures, external carotid

123. Which is the master gland of the endocrine system?: Pituitary

124. The pancreas secretes the hormones

and which involved in metabolism: Glucagon, insulin, carbohydrate

125. Adrenocorticotropin follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and lutenizing hormone (LH)

are secreted by;: Pituitary

126. The hermone estrogen is secreted by the:: Adrenal cortex and ovaries

127. Which gland is vital to the body's immunity mechanism?: Thymus

128. A test of thyroid function is a which measures

the .: BMR, oxygen consumption at rest

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129. Which statement(s) about surgery of the breast is/are false: Augmentation

mammoplasty is done for gynecomastia

130. Excessive accumulation urie acid in the bloed with disposition of acid crystal in tissue

causes: Gout

131. Care must damage structures during a thyroidectomy:: Parathyroid, tra- chea,

reccurent laryngeal nerve

132. The hormone secreted by thegland(s) regulates

the metabolism of calcium and phosphorus: Parathyroid, parathyroid

133. Which statement(s) about the thyroid is/are true?: Tracheal compression can occur

from postoperative edema

134. The three main vessels which are legated in thryreidectomy are:: Superior, Middle,

Inferior thyroid veins

135. Complete removal of the gland(s) results in severe tetany.:

Parathyroid

136. A choledochotomy is an:: Incision into the commin bile duct

137. The characteristic symptom of perforated peptic ulcer is: Shock

138. Separation of the congenital hypertrophied sphincter which prevents emptying of the

stomach in an infant is a:: Pyloromyotomy

139. In surgical correction of a hiatal hernia, the:: Diaphragm crura is tightened

140. Hemorrhage occurring during operation on the biliary tree usually results from injury to:

Cystic artery

141. Which diagnosis does not require operation?: Paralytic ileus

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142. Longitudinal ulcer in the anal canal is an:: Fissure in ano

143. Which statement concerning the spleen is false?: The splenic vein drains into the

inferior vena cava

144. Which is/are postoperative complication (s) of total gastrectomy:: dump- ing syndrome,

anemia, vitamin B12 deficiency, diarrhea

145. The is attached to the .: Omentum, stomach

146. A partial gastrectomy followed by a gastroduodenal anastomesis is a: -

Billroth 1

147. Which anastomoses are completed in a Whipple operation:: Pancretoje- junostomy,

choledochojejunostomy, gastrojejunostomy

148. In an upper quadrant oblique incision (subcostal), which muscle is re- tracted of

transversely divided?: Rectus

149. Care must be taken during ligation of the vena cava for pulmonary em- bolism to

prevent injury to:: Lumbar veins and right ureter

150. Removal of fibrosed palmar aponeurosis is done for:: Dupuytren's contrac- ture

151. Removal of fibrinous deposit pleural with pulmonary ventilation is a:: -

Decortication

152. Postoperative

gastrointestinal bleeding can cause shock while shock is the result of failure of arterial resistance: Hypovolemic, neurogenic

153. Carcinoma of the lung may be confirmed by:: Scalene node biopsy, medi-

anstinoscopy, bronchoscopy

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154. Place these digestive system structures in correct sequence:: pyloric sphincter,

fundus, diaphragm

155. Place these digestive system structures in correct sequence:: Esophagus, diaphragm,

cardiac sphincter, fundus, pyloric sphincter, duodenum, ampulla of Vater, jejunum, ileum

156. Which are some hemostatic agent(s): Bone wax, oxidized cellulose, styptics, thrombin

157. Acute cholecystitis usually is associated with:: gallstones, cystic duct ob- struction,

bacterial infection, empyema

158. Which is/are serious postoperative problemis) following parathyroidecte- my?: Tetany,

Gout & Renal Stones

159. A weakness of the fascial

margin of the internal ring is a hernia; a weakness of the faseial floor of the inguinal canal is hernia,: Direct, Indirect

160. Portacaval shunt is indicated for:: Esophageal varices, back portal vein, Laennec's

cirrhosis.

161. Vagotomy for peptic ulcer oftes is accompanied by pyloroplasty because-

: Vagotomy may cause gastric atony

162. In two-layer bowel anastomosis, the inner layer is closed with

and the outer layer with sutures: Mucosal, absorbable, sersosal, nonab- sorbable

163. Combined

with an antrectomy or gastroenterostomy, is the most common operative procedure for peptic ulcer: Vagotomy

164. The pancreas functions as an gland secreting insulin and directly

into the .: Endocrine, glucagon, blood serum

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165. As a consequence of ligating the

inferior mesenteric (Mesozoic) artery and vein, it is necessary to remove the entire colon and anastomose the colon to the colon.: Left, distal transverse, sigmoid

166. The operative carcinoma of the head of the pancreas or ampulla of Vater is a

procedure.: Whipple

167. Whichh structures are amenable to stapling: .: bronchus, galea, bowel, split thickness

graft, ankle bones

168. Small bowel obstruction leads to electrolyte imbalance: first to from loss of : then to

due to loss of : Alkalosis, hydrochloric acid, acidosis, water& sodium

169. In gastric bypass for morbid obesity, stapling the portion of the stomach

provides a small outlet: Proximal, gastrojejunostomy

170. Which of the following factors can cause intestinal obstruction:: volvulus, hernia,

mesenteric infarction, paralytic ileus, intussusception

171. The causes of peritonitis include which of the following:: ruptured spleen, puerperal

infection, gangrenous obstruction of the bowel, acute pancreatitis, ulcer- ative colitis?

172. The dumping syndrome occurs after gastric resection because of the: -

Rapid entry of food into the jejunum

173. After completion of the anastomosis in colon resection procedures, the mesentery is

carefully reapproximated to:: Prevent internal hernias with bowel entrapment

174. Which statement concerning parenteral hyperalimentation therapy fol- lowing

gastrointestinal surgery is true: Catheter is inserted in a large-diameter vein with high blood low, Too rapid flow of solution causes hyperglycemia, Constant monitoring is necessary

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175. The purpose of vagotomy is treating patients with peptic ulcers is to:: -

Decrease gastric acid hypersecretion

176. is/are life-threatening obstruction in which the intestinal lumen is obstructed both

proximally and distally, leading to bowel necrosis, perforation and peritonitis: Volvulus

177. Many postoperative patients are in a state of due to depletion, a condition that retards

wound healing.: Negative Nitrogen imbalance, protein

178. The is the most common site for cancer of the large intestine: Rec- tosigmoid

179. To provide necessary calories in the nutritionally deficient postoperative patient,

parenteral hyperalimentation is preferred over routine IV therapy be- cause: IV fluid volume could surpass bodys fluid tolerance

180. The preoperative bowel prep for intestinal surgery may include adminis- tration of

neomycin which:: Reduces aerobic and anaerobic resident bacteria in bowel

181. When a loop of jejunum is anastomosed end-to-side with the

esophagus in a total gastrectomy, a is necessary to : Jejunojejunostomy, prevent regurgitation esophagitis

182. For a perforated diverticulum of the colon, the affected bowel segment is resected

followed by a/an:: Two-stage operation

183. Which urinary diversion procedures are used when the bladder no longer serves as the

urine reservoir: Ureterosigmoidostomy, ureterocutaneous trans- plant, ileal conduit

184. Which partial gastrectomy precedure includes a gastroduodenal anasto- mosis:: Billroth

185. To provide complete rest to the colon or following resection of the large bowel,

a/an is performed.: Illeostomy

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186. Reconstruction of the gastrointestinal tract in a Whipple procedure is accomplished by

the following anastomosis:: Pancreatojejunostomy, choledo- chojejunostomy, gastrojejunostomy

187. All of the following statements concerning the menopause are true ex- cept:: There is

an associated loss of libido

188. All of the following are functions estrogen in ovulation and pregnancy except::

Inhibition of uterine contractions

189. The needleholder used by the close the vaginal vault following hysterec- tomy be::

Considered contaminated and discarded

190. An indwelling catheter is inserted in the bladder of a patient receiving radium treatment

order to:: Prevent distention and maintain bladder out of path of radiation

191. The fallopian tubes receive their blood supply from the branches of the:: Uterine

and ovarian arteries

192. According to the International Classification, a patient with a diagnosis of a Stage 4

Cancer of the cervix has:: A lesion extending to the bladder and rectum

193. Which of the following are used by GYN surgeons to identify renal struc- tures in pelvic

laparotomies for large tumor masses?: Ureteral catheters

194. The placement of a purse-string sature in the submucosal layer of the cervical os to

prevent spontaneous abortion in the second trimester is a:: - Shirodkar procedure

195. The procedure for determining the patency of the fallopian tubes by introducing carbon

dioxide through a sterile cannula into the uterus, the tubes, and then into the peritoncal cavity is a:: Rubin test

196. An ectopic pregnancy may occur in:: The cervix, a uterine ligament, the abdominal

cavity

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197. Which of the following is not a uterine ligament?: Triangular

198. Uterine bleeding between regular menstrual periods or alter the menopause

is:: Metrorrhagia

199. In which of the following conditions is a vaginal hysterectomy contraindi- cated?:

Endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, large uterine myoma

200. A protrusion of the cul-de-sac and loops of bowel within the peritoneal inte the vaginal

outlet is a:: Enterocele

201. Oral contraceptives prevent the release of the hormone from the

anterior pituitary so does not take place. fertilization: Follicle-stimulating; ovulation

202. All of the following statements concerning gonerrhea are true:: Mode of transmission is

sexual intercourse, incubation period is from three to eight days, disease may be relatively asymptomatic in females

203. Which of the following statements concerning the ovaries is true?: They are

homologous with the testes of the male, they produce ova after puberty, they function as endocrine glands producing hormones

204. The causative organism of syphilis is:: Treponema pallidum

205. The progesterone hormone is secreted by the:: Corpus luteum

206. A Papanicolaou smear of Class 4 indicates: Cytology strongly suggestice of malignancy

207. Which of the following operations produces a surgical menopause in the patient?:

Panhysterectomy

208. In which of the following patients with uterine myomas is a myomectomy the procedure of

choice?: Nullipara patient with a fertility problem

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209. The tubular glands situated in the wall of the female urethra just inside the meatus are::

Skenes ducts

210. The operation for uterine prolapse consisting of a colporrhaphy, perine- orrhaphy, and

amputation of the cervix is a:: Manchester repair

211. All of the following statements concerning cancer of the cervix are true:: - Primary

candidates are multiparas who married young, it is the most common cancer of the reproductive system, chief symptoms are leucorrhea and irregular vaginal bleeding

212. According to the National Classification, a patient with a diagnosis of stage 3 cancer of

the cervix has a lesion:: Involving the lower third of vagina and pelvic walls

213. Which of the most common inhabitant of the vaginal tract?: Trichomonas vaginalis

214. A growth that occurs in the gravid uterus and develops from the chronic villi is a::

Hydatiform mole

215. The blood

vessels which the female pelvis are the and the arteries.: Internal iliacs, median sacral

216. List the phases of the menstrual cycle in correct order:: Proliferative, ovulation,

luteal, menses

217. Which is a postconceptional procedure?: Shirodkar operation

218. The hormone secreted by the is essential fer the

implantation of the fertilized ovum: Progesterone; corpus luteum

219. Colpocleisis, cdosure of the vagina for uterine prolapse, may be sched- uled as a::

Manchester repair

220. A perineorrhaphy or posterier colporrhaphy is the treatment of choice for:: Rectocele

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221. An ectopic pregnancy may occur in the:: ovary, infundibulum, tubal ampulla, cervical

222. A 38-year-old mother of four is admitted for stress incontinence. She is scheduled for a::

Marshall-Marchetti procedures

223. Which statement concerning uterine fibroids is true: The condition does not require a

hysterectomy, it is the most common benign tumor in woman, sponta- neous abortions can increase in this condition

224. The greater vestibular glands or glands in the female are homologous to the

gland(s) in the male: Bartholin, bulbourethral

225. The removal of torn surfaces of the anterier and posterior cervical lips with

reconstruction of the cervical canal is a: Trachelorraphy

226. Which structure(s) pass(es) close to the uterine ligaments and must be carefully

identified during their division?: Ureters

227. Which are causative factors in infertility:: endometriosis, fallopian fube ob- struction,

adhesions

228. Which statement concerning endometriosis is true?: It is a benign lesion, it is the

presence of uterine lining cells in the pelvic cavity, it can be a cause of infertility

229. An abnormal opening between the bladder and the vagina is a/an: Vesico- vaginal fistula

230. The body of the uterus is composed of:: endometrium, myometrium, parietal

peritoneum, musculature

231. The ligaments which are clamped, divided and ligated abdominal hys- terectomy are::

Broad, mesovarian, round

232. If radon seeds are accidentally expelled from a patient's vagina, shielding may be

accomplished with since the seeds emit rays: A layer of paper, alpha

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233. Trace the route of the ovum from ovary, through the fallopian tube to the uterus: Graafian

follicle, ova, fimbria, infindibulum, ampulla, isthmus, endometrium

234. Pelvic inflammatory disease can be caused by:: gonorrhea, tubercle bacilli, gram-

negative bacteria, streptococci

235. Which statement concerning laparoscopy is true: The procedure includes a

pneumoperitoneum, the patient js placed in trendelenburg position, it may be a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure

236. The leading cause of cancer death in women is cancer of the:: Lung

237. A congenital anomaly in which the urethra opens on the under side of the penis or on the

perineum is:: Hypospadias

238. When a patient is postured in the lateral position for a kidney operation the lower leg is

and the upper leg .: Flexed; remains straight

239. In an orchiopexy, the attachment of the testis to the fascia of the thigh in an effort to

reduce tension on the vessels and suture line is known as a:: Torek procedure

240. Following a transurethral resection of the prostate, the surgeon may leave a three-way

Foley catheter. The third lumen provides a means for:: Continous irrigation of the bladder postoperatively

241. A urethrovesical suspension operation for urinary stress incontinence in the female is

called a:: Marshall-Marchetti

242. In kidney transplant surgery, the donor kidney is usually placed in the:: -

Iliac fossa

243. Which of the following type of urological catheters can be steam steril- ized?: Rubber

catheter, nylon ureteral catheter, bougie

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244. The kidneys receive their blood supply through the arteries, which

eriginate from the .: Renal; Aorta

245. When X-rays are taken during surgery a lead apron should be worn by operating room

personnel if they must remain:: Within three feet of the patient

246. A patient with urinary retention cannot void because of:: A failure of the bladder to

release urine

247. Involuntary emptying of the bladder: Enuresis

248. All of the following statements about the testes are true:: In fetal life they are located in

the abdomen, they are normally well down into the scrotum at birth, untreated, bilateral undescended testes can cause infertility

249. An embryonal, adenomyosarcoma of the kidney that occurs predominant- ly in children is

called:: Wilm's tumor

250. Which of the following are used for calibration of the urethra?: Olive-tipped bougies

251. A radiopaque dye is injected intravenously. Within aset period of time it is excereted by

the kidneys and is visible on X-rays. This is called:: Intravenous pyelogram

252. Stones in thee urinary tract are the ost common complication associat- ed with which of

the following diseases?: Hyperparathyroidism

253. The popular method of supravesical urinary diversion for malignant pelvie tumors,

neurogenie bladder dysfunction, and chronic urinary obstruc- tion is a cutancous ureteroileostomy, Another name for this anastomosis is: Ileal conduit

254. All of the following are found in normal urine except: Protein

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255. Alcohol should not be used on cystoscopes as it: Dissolves the cement around the

lenses

256. Which of the following groups of instruments should be on a setup

for transurethral prostatic resection?: Resectoscope, Bakelite sheaths, cutting electrodes

257. Which of the following are the catheters of choice for dilating narrow strictures?:

Filiform and follower

258. The concave notch in the kidney through which the ureter, arteries, and veins enter and

leave is the:: Hilum

259. An abnormal accumulation of fluid within the scrotum around the capsule of the testis and

the tunica vaginalis is a:: Hydrocele

260. During the course of transurethral surgery, the hazards of contamination and short

circuits from electrical apparatus are increased due to:: The fluid used for distending and irrigating the bladder

261. Saline and distilled water are not the irrigating solutions of choice for TUR operations

because they are:: Electolytic and hemolytic

262. Which solutions may be used for irrigation during a TUR operation:: -

Glycine and sorbitol

263. Which instrument(s) for transurethral surgery use(s) electrical current to resect tissue and

coagulate bleeding vessels?: Resectoscope

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264. Which muscles are split and retracted in a flank incision for surgery on kidneys and

ureters?: Internal and External oblique

265. The glands in the

male are homologues to the glands in the female: Cowper's, Bartholin's

266. Which of the following approaches can be used for removal of the prostate

gland:: perineal, retropubic, suprapubic, transurethral

267. Which type of catheter has an angulated tip?: Coude

268. Which procedure(s) may be performed in the cysto room:: Urethroscopy,

cystolitholapaxy cystoretrograde, meatotomy

269. Suspension of the bladder neck to the posterior surface of the pubis in the female

patient for stress incontinence is a:: Marshal-Marchetti operation

270. The excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis is:: Hydrocelectomy

271. Which is not a postoperative complication of radical resection of the prostate?:

Epiditymitis

272. A congenital defect in which the urinary meatus is located on the

ventral surface of the penis is ; a dorsal urinary meatus is .: Hypospadius, epispadius

273. Urinary tract calculi may form such element as:: Calcium, Magnesium ammonium

phosphate, calcium carbonate, calcium phosphate, uric acid

274. Which of the following conditions would be a contraindication to hemodial- ysis:: Severe