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TCAR POST TEST EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECTLY SOLVED ANSWERS, Exams of Nursing

TCAR POST TEST EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECTLY SOLVED ANSWERS , FULLY SOLVED AND UPDATED

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TCAR POST TEST EXAM QUESTIONS

WITH 100% CORRECTLY SOLVED

ANSWERS , FULLY SOLVED AND

UPDATED

A+ GRADED

  1. Helmets and automobiles work because A) They prevent blows to the head B) Reduce acceleration injuries C) Increase deceleration speed D) Add deceleration distance -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Reduce acceleration injuries
  2. Which of the following statements best describes knife wounds? Their velocity is , the temporary cavity , and damage. A) low; depends on the size of the knife; is usually extensive B) low; is insignificant; is limited to structures directly in object's path C) high; will be small; affects structures at some distance from the wound tract D) high; may be massive; results in widespread tissue destruction -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” low; is insignificant; is limited to structures directly in object's path
  3. Injury to which body structure is commonly a DELAYED finding in the blast trauma patient? A) Heart Bladder B) Bowel C) Spleen -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Bowel
  1. Shock occurs when? A) the sodium-potassium pump fails. B) ATP levels are less than lactic acid levels. C) cellular oxygen demand is greater than supply. D) aerobic metabolism exceeds anaerobic metabolism. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” cellular oxygen demand is greater than supply.
  2. ________shock is the most common type of shock immediately after traumatic injury. A) Distributive B) Septic C) Cardiogenic D) Hypovolemic -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Hypovolemic
  3. Which findings suggest a trauma patient is experiencing cardiogenic shock? A) Bradycardia, cyanosis, and elevated mean arterial pressure B) High shock index, mottling, and hypotension C) Tachycardia, flushing, and widened pulse pressure D) Pallor, course breath sounds, and hypertension -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” High shock index, mottling, and hypotension
  4. A multisystem trauma patient has become progressively tachycardic and hypotensive one week after hospital admission. Pulse pressure is wide. The most likely explanation for this finding is: A) dehydration. B) fat embolism syndrome. C) surgical site bleeding. D) sepsis. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” sepsis.
  5. Normalizing a trauma patient's body temperature helps control bleeding because: A) hypothermia produces shivering and makes platelets hyperactive.

B) causes platelet dysfunction and clotting system failure. C) stimulates the clotting cascade and reduces blood pressure. D) increases tissue oxygen consumption and cold diuresis. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” causes platelet dysfunction and clotting system failure.

  1. What are the 3 components of the "trauma triad of death"? A) Coagulopathy, hypothermia, and acidosis B) Hypothermia, alkalosis, and coagulopathy C) Alkalosis, hyperthermia, and tissue injury D) Tissue injury, hyperthermia, and acidosis -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Coagulopathy, hypothermia, and acidosis
  2. Compensatory responses to hypovolemic shock include A) vasoconstriction, tachycardia, and oliguria. B) immune system activation, water retention, and bradycardia. C) tachycardia, diuresis, and hypoglycemia. D) fluid shifts, histamine release, and increased urine output. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” vasoconstriction, tachycardia, and oliguria.
  3. What four factors determine a patient's cardiac output? A) Pulse pressure, afterload, shock index, and blood pressure B) Heart rate, preload, contractility, and afterload C) Preload, mean pressure, heart rate, and central venous pressure D) Contractility, systolic pressure, shock index, and pulse pressure -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Heart rate, preload, contractility, and afterload
  4. Trauma resuscitation is considered complete when hemorrhage is controlled, the patient has normal vital signs, and body temperature has been stabilized. hemoglobin level is greater than 8 g/dL.

aerobic metabolism is reestablished. the Glasgow Coma Scale score exceeds 13. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” aerobic metabolism is reestablished.

  1. A patient with posterior rib fractures is at the highest risk for concomitant fractures of the sternum. A) T-spine. B) clavicles. C) ribs 1 and 2. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” T-spine.
  2. A motocross racer hit a ditch at high speed. The rider's chest was thrown against the handlebars. Which assessment finding indicates the patient has a flail chest? A) Paradoxical movement of the right chest wall B) A bubbling wound located on the upper thorax C) Subcutaneous emphysema and pain on palpation D) Chest dissymmetry with unilateral hyper expansion -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Paradoxical movement of the right chest wall
  3. Pulmonary contusions cause a problem at what point on the tissue oxygenation cascade? A) Hemoglobin availability B) Cardiac output C) Diffusion D) Ventilation -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Ventilation
  4. What is the usual intervention for a patient with subcutaneous emphysema? A) Chest tube insertion B) Emergent surgical repair C) Needle decompression D) Observation and reassessment -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Observation and reassessment
  5. 15 hours after a motor vehicle collision, an unrestrained driver is experiencing frequent, irregular heartbeats. The most likely cause of this finding is injury to the:

A) Left atrium. B) Left ventricle. C) Right atrium. D) Right ventricle. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” right atrium.

  1. In the patient with chest trauma, which of these findings is the earliest indicator of cardiac tamponade? A) Elevated heart rate B) Systolic hypotension C) Jugular vein distention D) Unilateral breath sounds -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Elevated heart rate
  2. In a patient with blunt chest trauma, what simple assessment can be used to screen for thoracic aortic injury? A) Side-to-side pulse oximeter saturation comparisons B) Bilateral upper extremity BP measurements C) Pulsus paradoxus calculation D) BP cuff inflation to elicit carpal spasm -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Bilateral upper extremity BP measurements
  3. A hemorrhaging patient is receiving 1:1:1 transfusion. This man will also need cryoprecipitate to boost his_______ level. A) tranexamic acid B) fibrinogen C) platelet factor VIII -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” fibrinogen
  4. When a patient is receiving multiple blood transfusions, a priority nursing intervention is to prevent A) hemoconcentration. B) alkalosis. C) hypercalcemia. D) hypothermia. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” hypothermia.
  5. Following emergent transfusion, which electrolyte disturbances can be anticipated in the patient who received 12 units of blood products? A) Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

B) Hypernatremia and hypomagnesemia C) Hypochloremia and hypercalcemia D) Hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia

  1. A trauma patient underwent damage control surgery for major abdominal hemorrhage. Post- operatively, her hand spasms when the blood pressure cuff inflates. Which of the following blood tests is indicated? A) TEG or ROTEM B) Lipase level C) ALT or AST level D) Ionized calcium -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Ionized calcium
  2. In the trauma patient with a blood pressure of 110/ mm Hg, mean arterial pressure is approximately A) 83 mm Hg B) 90 mm Hg C) 76 mm Hg D) 40 mm Hg -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” 83 mm Hg
  3. A trauma patient has a heart rate of 92/min; systolic blood pressure is 115 mm Hg. This patient's shock index is A) 0. B) 1. C) 2. D) 0.8 -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” 0.
  4. A young adult who fell from a third-floor balcony has a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a heart rate of 108/min. Pulse pressure is A) 55 mm Hg

B) 70 mm Hg C) 40 mm Hg D) 35 mm Hg -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” 40 mm Hg

  1. A jockey was thrown from a running horse and hit the rail. On hospital Day 3, right flank bruising is present. This finding suggests the patient has a A) subcapsular splenic hematoma. B) renal laceration. C) aortic rupture. D) pancreatic contusion. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” renal laceration.
  2. An amateur boxer sustained a powerful punch to the upper abdomen. 36 hours after the event, which of the following findings suggests pancreatic injury? A) Bowel sounds in the chest B) Serum lipase elevation C) Left shoulder pain D) Blood in the urine -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Serum lipase elevation
  3. The goals of damage control surgery in the trauma patient include each of the following EXCEPT A) restoration of normal physiology. B) repair of all traumatic injuries. C) early blood product transfusion. D) active hemorrhage control. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” repair of all traumatic injuries.
  4. A hemodynamically stable patient was transfused 500 mL of red blood cells. Approximately how much of that volume will remain in the vascular space 60 minutes later? A) 250 mL B) 83 mL C) 333 mL D) 500 mL -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” 500 mL
  1. Common causes of non-hemorrhagic fluid loss in the trauma patient during the post-resuscitation phase of care include A) mechanical ventilation and isotonic tube feedings. B) hypometabolism and interstitial fluid shifts. C) diarrhea and hypertonic enteral formulas. D) pressure dressings and renal contusions. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” hypometabolism and interstitial fluid shifts.
  2. The primary goal of early, small-volume enteral feeding is to support the intestinal mucosa and reduce A) bacterial and toxin translocation. B) post-traumatic muscle wasting. C) the hyperglycemic stress response. D) protein-calorie malnutrition. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” bacterial and toxin translocation.
  3. Clinical findings that suggest sepsis development in the trauma patient include: A) bradycardia, hypertension, and an elevated shock index. B) tachycardia, a narrowed pulse pressure, and a low shock index. C) bradycardia, hypotension, and a high mean pressure. D) tachycardia, a widened pulse pressure, and tachypnea. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” tachycardia, a widened pulse pressure, and tachypnea.
  4. On hospital Day 5, a polytrauma patient has the following vital signs: BP 97/50; HR 133/min; RR 22/min. Urine output is 12 mL/hr. Skin is cool and mottled. The pulse oximeter is not sensing dependably. These findings suggest A) an anaphylactic reaction. B) hemorrhagic hypovolemia. C) early sepsis. D) neurogenic shock. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” early sepsis.
  1. A patient has a positive "seat belt sign" across the epigastrium. This patient is at greatest risk for trauma to the; A) colon, kidneys, and stomach. B) duodenum, mesentery, and pancreas. C) T-spine, urethra, and gallbladder. D) spleen, pelvis, and bladder. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” duodenum, mesentery, and pancreas.
  2. A construction worker crushed by a falling beam has compartment syndrome of the left thigh. This patient will be closely monitored for signs of rhabdomyolysis, including; A) dark-colored urine and dropping urine output. B) dilute urine and an elevated creatine kinase level. C) increasing urine output and myoglobinemia. D) diminished urine output and hypokalemia. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” dark-colored urine and dropping urine output.
  3. Care of the trauma patient with prerenal failure chiefly involves A) initiating hemodialysis. B) limiting fluid intake. C) refilling the vascular space. D) administering diuretics. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” refilling the vascular space.
  4. A previously healthy young adult is recovering from a motorcycle crash that resulted in complex orthopedic injuries. Which of the following dietary discharge instructions is appropriate for this patient? A) Reduce total carbohydrates and eliminate lactose- containing products. B) Restrict fats, increase calcium intake, and avoid foods with high-protein content. C) Take an iron supplement and limit both leafy green vegetables and salty foods. D) Eat a standard diet but increase total calories, protein, and calcium-rich foods. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Eat a standard diet but increase total calories, protein, and calcium-rich foods.
  1. In the patient with an open fracture, IV antibiotics significantly decrease the risk of osteomyelitis if administered within of hospital arrival. A) hour B) 4 hours C) 6 hours D) 8 hours -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” 1 hour
  2. An 82-year-old man was admitted to the hospital after he fell down two steps. The patient is alert and oriented but has several bruises and abrasions. Which vital sign findings would be most concerning? A) Heart rate 97/min; blood pressure 134/78 mm Hg B) Heart rate 65/min; blood pressure 108/90 mm Hg C) Heart rate 94/min; blood pressure 101/82 mm Hg D) Heart rate 118/min; blood pressure 163/82 mm Hg -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Heart rate 118/min; blood pressure 163/82 mm Hg
  3. Two days after an episode of intimate partner violence, a patient complains of headache and nausea. She has poor recall of the events leading up to the injury. However, her brain computed tomography scan is normal. These findings suggest which type of brain trauma? A) Subdural hematoma B) Concussion C) Diffuse axonal injury D) Traumatic stroke -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Concussion
  4. In the first week after injury, interventions for the patient with a diffuse axonal injury primarily focus on ; A) preventing post-traumatic hydrocephalus. B) initiating cognitive rehabilitation. C) restoring axonal connections. D) limiting secondary brain damage. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” limiting secondary brain damage.
  1. A patient sustained a cribriform plate fracture. Which of the following is an expected assessment finding? Cerebral spinal fluid rhinorrhea. flow obstruction. Otorrhea accumulation. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” rhinorrhea.
  2. What is the priority intervention for the patient with a large expanding subdural hematoma? A) Emergent surgery for clot evacuation B) Craniectomy to increase intracranial pressure C) Ventriculostomy drainage to remove CSF D) Hospital admission for hourly neuro checks -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Emergent surgery for clot evacuation
  3. Which triad of symptoms are LATE signs of deterioration in a traumatic A) Agitation, bradycardia, and narrowing pulse pressure B) Tachycardia, dropping mean pressure, and headache C) Disorientation, nausea/vomiting, and posturing D) Bradycardia, irregular respirations, and hypertension -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Bradycardia, irregular respirations, and hypertension
  4. Which findings suggest impending herniation in a patient with a right temporal epidural hematoma? A) Left pupillary dilation, right-sided weakness B) Right pupillary dilation, right sided weakness C) Right pupillary dilation, left-sided weakness D) Left pupillary dilation, left-sided weakness -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Right pupillary dilation, left-sided weakness
  1. A patient with a spinal cord injury has no motor function below the T4 level but retains his sense of vibration. Which incomplete cord syndrome does this man have? A) Central cord syndrome B) Posterior cord syndrome C) Anterior cord syndrome D) Brown-Sรฉquard syndrome -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” Anterior cord syndrome
  2. A patient who sustained a complete C7 spinal cord injury nine days ago is being transferred from bed to a reclining wheelchair. This maneuver is likely to cause A) respiratory arrest. B) autonomic dysreflexia. C) postural hypotension. D) neurogenic bladder. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” autonomic dysreflexia.
  3. A patient who was ejected from a moving vehicle has a complete spinal cord injury at the T1 level. Bedside care providers can anticipate this patient will have issues maintaining a A) stable acid-base balance. B) urine output. C) body temperature. D) intracranial pressure. -- ANSWER โœ”โœ” urine output.