TCFP EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE TEST BANK 2024, Exams of Nursing

Download TCFP EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE TEST BANK 2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 | P a g e TCFP EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE TEST BANK 2024 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS |FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+|NEWEST|GUARANTEED PASS|LATEST UPDATE What is the proper and safe position for an acetylene cylinder that is part of a cutting torch kit? secure and upright What is the most common use of a chain saw during fire ground operation? ventilation Why should the use of a cheater on a prying tool be avoided? the tool can break and injure the firefighter What is the best method for sharpening the cutting edge of an axe? by hand What is the best lubricant for unprotected metal surfaces? light machine oil What is the device used to prevent a patio sliding door from being forced open? burglar block Which type of overhead door is generally easiest to force unless it is motor driven? sectional 2 | P a g e What are the devices attached to the inside of the beams on fly sections used to hold the fly section in place? pawls Which type of ladder is used to gain access to attics and can be carried in narrow hallways? folding ladder An extension ladder with the fly sections fully retracted is in the: bedded position Where should the ladder tip be placed when using a ladder to perform a rescue from a window opening? tip of ladder just below windowsill Which carry is typically used for a 35 ft. extension ladder? three firefighter flat shoulder carry What is the minimum distance of separation between a ladder and energized electrical equipment? 10 feet What is the proper location for the fly section of a metal ladder when the fly section(s) are extended? fly out The tendency of gases to form into layers, according to temperature, with the hottest gases at the top is known as: thermal layering How does ventilation control fire spread during a structural fire? The release of smoke and heat reduces the rate at which fire will spread. What is a sign of a potential backdraft? smoke stained windows What is the typical construction used for flat roofs on commercial buildings? joists covered with decking What type of ventilation is used to stop the spread of a fire in a long, narrow structure? trench ventilation Which type of valve used as a control valve for a sprinkler system indicates whether the valve is open or closed by the position of the center screw? OS&Y Valve 5 | P a g e salvage What should be developed for buildings with high-value contents that are susceptible to water and smoke damage? Special preincident plans A common obstacle to efficient salvage operations in commercial occupancies and warehouses is a lack of: skids or pallets under stock What percentage of convictions occurs as a result of suspected incendiary fires? 2% The cause of a fire is a combination of the fuel that is ignited, the form and source of the heat of ignition, and: an act or omission that brings them together Observations made by firefighters upon arrival at the fire scene include wind direction and velocity, the presence of burglary tools, and: familiar faces in the crowd of bystanders ______________ may produce abnormally high heat intensity and may be confused with the use of accelerants. Polyurethane A ____________________________ is any location or facility at which 9-1-1 calls are answered either by direct calling, rerouting, or diversion. Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) A predetermined number of fire units assigned to respond to an emergency is known as: alarm assignment Two common emergency signals are broadcasting a radio message ordering the evacuation and: Sound the audible warning devices on apparatus at the scene. Which of the following components of a fire is most manageable through fire prevention? heat source Which of the following will cause mechanical heat energy? machine bearings What fire hazard arises from the processes or operations peculiar to an individual occupancy? special fire hazard 6 | P a g e Which of the following code violations must be corrected immediately by the property owner? obstructed exit door NFPA 1001 is the Standard for Firefighter Professional Qualifications One of the primary functions of the truck/ladder company is performing forcible entry to fire scene buildings OSHA may establish regulations governing fire department activities such as health and safety In the ICS, the functional area responsible for all incident activities, including the development and implementation of strategic decisions, is Command What normal body cooling mechanism is lost when wearing PPE? Evaporation of perspiration What is one aspect of high rise fires that is especially draining of energy? walking up many flights of stairs in PPE A _______ permits firefighters to gain access during an emergency key box/lock box In kernmantle rope, the kern or core of the rope accounts for approximately _____ of its strength 75 percent The combination of knots recommended to hoist a pike pole includes a clove hitch and half hitches The order of rank and authority in the fire service describes chain of command The street, or address side of the structure is termed Division A The ratio of the mass of a given volume of liquid compared with the mass of an equal volume of water at the same temperature is specific gravity Life safety rope should be stored in 7 | P a g e coils in rope bags Toxic atmospheres due to smoke and heat are called immediately dangerous to life and health Which of the following has the highest priority for radio transmission? Emergency traffic from a unit working at a fire or rescue The telecommunicator's first responsibility is to obtain the information that is required to dispatch the appropriate units to the correct location Before transmitting any information over the fire department radio, a fire fighter should listen to be sure the channel is not being used When using positive pressure SCBA, a poor seal between the face piece and the firefighter's face is dangerous, because it is depleting the air supply more quickly The bypass valve on a SCBA is used in emergency situations involving a malfunctioning regulator The first noticeable sign of oxygen deficiency is increased respiratory rate and impaired muscular coordination Four hazardous atmospheres that firefighters are likely to encounter at a fire are super heated air, toxic gases, oxygen deficiency, and smoke Trapped firefighters awaiting rescue will use less air if they control their breathing The primary function of the bypass valve on the SCBA is for use if the regulator fails The proper position of the bypass valve on positive pressure SCBA under normal conditions is fully closed Hypoxia is a deficiency of oxygen inhaled toxic gases can directly cause disease of the lung tissue What is incorrect about the two SCBA types in fire service use? The closed circuit type is commonly used for structural firefighting 10 | P a g e It is the preferred way to load large diameter hose What is the safest and best way to advance a hose line up a ladder? Charged What is a recommended practice to prevent mechanical fire hose damage? Open and close nozzles, valves, and hydrants slowly The usual cause of collapse of open web steel joist is the Amount of heat generated by the fire in a structure Hidden fires can be detected by Feeling it with the back of the hand What feature is required on a fire department connection that allows a ff to charge the first hose line prior to connecting the second Clapper valve A blue circle with a letter designation in the center would indicate an extinguisher for use on ___ fires Class c Dry powder extinguishers are rated for use on ____ metals Class D Halon fire extinguishers are primarily designed for use on ____ fires Class B and C A blue circle with a letter designation in the center would indicate an extinguisher is rated for use on ____ fires Class C Pump tank extinguishers are used to apply Water When drying synthetic rope, keep it Out of sunlight _____ should be applied to wooden tool handles to prevent roughness and warping Boiled linseed oil The main advantage of the donut roll Both ends are available on the outside of the roll 11 | P a g e Hose is unloaded at the scene of a fire and the pumper proceeds to the water source this is A forward lay About how much of a kernmantle rope's strength is provided by the mantle 25 to 30 percent The strategy of an incident which of the following Offensive and defensive mode What does automatic number identification feature of enhance 911 do? Show the caller's phone number What is NOT a limitation of a ff's ability to use SCBA Oxygen cylinder size When filling an SCBA cylinder, the cylinder must be Placed in a fragmentation containment or other shielded device A cutting torch has a flame temperature of 5000 degrees f During which of the following operations are personnel allowed to be outside the cab while an apparatus is in motion? hose loading An informal discussion with incident responders conducted after the incident is known as: defusing What is the minimum noise level, in decibels, which requires firefighters in the United States to wear hearing protection? 90 The instantaneous explosion of superheated gases that occurs when oxygen is introduced into an oxygen-depleted confined space is known as a: backdraft Which of the following best represents nonflaming or smoldering combustion? fire triangle Which of the following best represents flaming combustion? fire tetrahedron What is the most common product of combustion encountered in structure fires? 12 | P a g e carbon monoxide Controlling fire by interrupting the combustion reaction is known as: chemical flame inhibition Which of the following is a type of expelling agent used in a portable fire extinguisher? stored pressure What is the difference between dry chemical and dry powder extinguishing agents? dry powder is suitable for combustible metal fires What type of extinguishing system is frequently installed in range hoods and places where grease may accumulate? wet chemical system What is a commonly used dry chemical in portable fire extinguishers? monoammonium phosphate How many gallons of water is required for a fire extinguisher to have a 2-A rating? 2.5 The three factors that determine the value of a fire extinguisher are its serviceability, its accessibility, and its simplicity of operation What is the only type of rope construction that is approved for use as a life safety applications? block creel construction Which of the following is a characteristic of synthetic fiber rope? resistant to mildew What type of rope is used for most rope-rescue incidents? static rope What is the minimum allowed diameter for rope that is rated as general use life safety rope? 7/16 inch What is the minimum breaking strength required for general use life safety ropes? 9000 lbs Rope constructed by twisting several groups of individual strands together is known as: laid rope 15 | P a g e NFPA 1001 NFPA Standards are ____? Consensus Documents The individual responsible for the overall management of an incident is the ____? Incident Commander. What is the term for acting without a superior's orders or outside of a departments SOP's? Freelancing Which organization developed the Everybody Goes Home program? National Fallen Firefighters Foundation (NFFF) If, during training, you observe an unsafe practice, what should you do? Bring it to the attention of the instructor or designated safety Officer. What type of heat injury is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical care? Heat Stroke If a team member must exit a hazard area for any reason, what should the rest of the team do? Exit as the entire team together. Who has the authority to directly and immediately stop any activity on the fire ground that he/she judges to be unsafe? Safety Officer Who should accompany a firefighter sent to the rehabilitation area? The entire crew. What does the "buddy system" refer to? A team of two partners who maintain constant contact. NFPA standards require an SCBA low-air alarm to sound when the cylinder pressure drops to ___ percent of capacity? 25% Which fire gas is a product of incomplete combustion of common household items? Phosgene The primary hazard of ____ is that it can displace oxygen from the atmosphere. Carbon Dioxide 16 | P a g e Which fire gas is a product of burning plastic? Hydrogen Cyanide Pressure readings on an SCBA cylinder gauge and the regulator or remote pressure gauge should not differ by more than ______ psi? 100 PSI (kPa) NFPA standard for structural firefighting PPE NFPA 1971 Which fire gas kills by replacing oxygen in the blood? Carbon Monoxide What is the primary function of the moisture barrier in the structural firefighting PPE? Keep liquids and vapors from reaching the skin. Smoke has how many major components ? 3 NFPA Standard for Wildland Firefighting PPE. NFPA 1977 A structural firefighting PPE ensemble includes which specific piece of equipment? SCBA Self-contained breathing apparatus Which type of breathing apparatus recycles the users exhaled air? Closed Circuit SCBA What is the commonly used technique for conserving SCBA air? Skip Breathing Which gas is most commonly produced by residential or commercial fires? Hydrogen Cyanide What is the function of the EOSTI ? ( End of Service Time Indicator) Warn the wearer of low pressure/air in SCBA cylinder When donning SCBA, firefighters should check that the cylinder has a minimum of ___% of its rated maximum pressure 90% What is the flame resistant material used in PPE? 17 | P a g e PBI What is an approved material for structural firefighting boots? Leather How often should SCBA Face Piece be fit-tested? Every 12 months Firefighters should be able to don PPE clothing within ___ seconds? 60 Seconds What item is an optional component of the structural firefighting PPE ensemble? Hearing Protection What is a requirement for structural firefighting boots? Slip-resistant sole. What piece of equipment must be worn with structural firefighting PPE and SCBA? PASS device NFPA standard for Personal Alert Safety System (PASS) NFPA 1982 NFPA Standard for Open-circuit Self Contained Breathing Apparatus NFPA 1981 What is the first step in cleaning an SCBA? Rinse the entire unit with clean water from a hose What is the thick, quilted layer of the turnout coat? Thermal liner the NFPA requires that, at minimum ppe clothing should be cleaned every _______ months a. 12 b. 6 c. 9 d. 14 b. 6 National Fire Protection 1001 is ? A. Standard for firefighting professional qualifications B. Standard for Industrial Fire Brigades 20 | P a g e c. determine chain of command d. make specific and clear-cut assignments d. make specific and clear-cut assignments One of the basic duties of an engine company is? a. attack and extinguish fires b. forcible entry c. perform technical rescue d. perform search and rescue a. attack and extinguish fires In the fire service, the basic definition of the word rescue is ? a. looking for victims who are in danger b. removing a victim from a hazardous situation to safety c. performing CPR on a victim d. stabilizing a victim before transport b. removing a victim from a hazardous situation to safety Which is considered one of the basic tasks of a traditional ladder company crew ? a. Securing a water source b. deploying hand lines c. Forcible entry d. high angle operations c. Forcible entry What is the term for a rescue situation requiring specialized knowledge or training such as high-angle rescue or trench rescue ? a. Class 1 rescue b. technical rescue c. barrel rescue d. second stage resuce b. technical rescue Which statement regarding NFPA standards is true ? a. they are viewed as regulations. b. they are viewed as consensus documents c. they are law and, therefore, must be implemented d. they are adopted by OSHA 21 | P a g e b. they are viewed as consensus documents Fire Department employee assistance programs provide ____________ help with problems that might affect performance. a. instantaneous b. confidential c. all-encompassing d. common knowledge B. confidential NFPA 1500 provides guidance for which program to benefit firefighters ? a. employee assistance programs b. collective bargaining agreements c. professional certifications d. Disciplinary plan a. Employee assistance programs Which would be considered a program offered by an Employee assistance program? a. Driving course for adolescents b. dealing with physical problems c. junior firefighter programs d. Juvenile arson setter program b. dealing with physical problems st. 1 Federal OSHA authority and regulations apply mainly to private sector and do not cover employees of state and local goverments st.2 Federal OSHA has jurisdiction over every state in the U.S. st.3 Agencies must adopt OSHA as recognized national standards a. statements 1 and 2 are true;3 is false b. statements 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true c. Statement 1 is true ; statements 2 and 3 are false d. All three statements are true. C. What topic is covered by NFPA 1500 a. salvage ops b electrical safety req 22 | P a g e C. budgeting req d. Safety programs d. safety programs toxic atmospheres due to smoke and heat are called? a. FF hazardous environments b immediately dangerous to life and health c. carcinogenic hazard areas d. exclusionary zones b. immediately dangerous to life and health Following notification of an emergency response, when should firefighters don PPE a. immediately upon mounting the apparatus at the scene b. while on the apparatus en route to the call' c. while on the apparatus, prior to pulling out of the station d. Prior to mounting the apparatus d. Prior to mounting the apparatus when parking the apparatus at the emergency scene, the firefighters should? a. park and walk with their back to traffic b. set out flares 10 ft from the truck c. turn off lights that face opposing traffic to avoid blinding other drivers d. close at least two lanes of traffic to operate more safely c. turn off lights that face opposing traffic to avoid blinding other drivers to maintain scene security, the FF may use control zones using which of the following guidlines? a. tape should be tied to the emergency vehicles to anchor the scene b. the FF will need to determine the appropriate distance from the scene of the area c. FF should only operate in the cold zone d. media are authorized to work in the warm zone b. the FF will need to determine the appropriate distance from the scene of the area When dismounting the apparatus on the roadside, firefighters should a. turn lights to face opposing traffic so they will detour the incident b. never walk with their backs to the traffic c. block as many lanes as possible to ensure firefighter safety d. establish isolation zone of at least 200ft. b. never walk with their backs to the traffic 25 | P a g e c. show the caller phone number The primary purpose of a public fire service communication system is to a. accept reports of emergencies and dispatch emergency b. accept reports of emergencies and generate supportive data c. dispatch and communicate with emergency units d. communicate with emergency units and generate supportive data a. accept reports of emergencies and dispatch emergency Hearing impaired citizens may report an emergency via a ? a. task assist team b. teletype c. push to talk d. regional hearing system b. teletype What is the configuration when a fire dept switches from a duplex channel to a simplex channel for on- scene communications called? a. a talk around channel b. a repeater system c. an On scene communication switch d. a trunking system a. a talk around channel A trunked digital radio system allows? a. only one agency on the system b. different agencies on different systems c. different agencies on the same system d. less users to communicate c. different agencies on the same system Radio signals are either ? a. simple or duplex b. analog or digital c. simple or complex d. private or public b. analog or digital 26 | P a g e When operating on a digital radio system, end users should expect? a. a minor time delay between transmitting and receiving b. overlapping transmissions bleeding into one another c. an increase in the amount of static or interference d. the need for vehicle-mounted repeaters a. a minor time delay between transmitting and receiving We have an expert-written solution to this problem! ________ is the transition between the growth and fully developed stages of fire. a. ignition temperature b. flash point c. backdraft d. flashover d. flashover Thermal layering is ? a. a column of heat rising from a source b. a process in which the molecules of a liquid are liberated into the atmosphere at a rate at which the molecules return to a liquid c. the configuration of heat with higher temperatures at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. c. the configuration of heat with higher temperatures at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels When establishing a collapse zone around a building, the minimum distance from the building must extend a. the height of the building b. dependent on the buildin'g construction type c. 1-1/2 times the height of the building d. whatever the safety officer decides is safe c. 1-1/2 times the height of the building the least desirable point to force entry into a structure is a. a check rail window 27 | P a g e b. a swinging door c. plate glass d. a revolving door d. a revolving door Fire doors are operated a. manually, mechanically, electrically b. electrically, hydraulically, battery supplied c. by portable or fixed power units d. by manual or electrical power a. manually, mechanically, electrically Slab doors are constructed in two configurations a. slab and panel b. solid core and hollow core c. raised and flat d. ledge and framed b. solid core and hollow core Which is true regarding fire walls a. they are used for structural support so they are load bearing b. masonry is commonly used due to its noncombustible quality c. fire walls do not provide any fire rating d. stones are a good source of fire walls as they do not spall b. masonry is commonly used due to its noncombustible quality the reaction of wood to fire conditions depends mainly on two factors a. where it is pressure treated and its diameter b. if it is interior or exterior and if synthetics were added c. where it is load bearing and it's placement d. size of the wood and it's moisture content d. size of the wood and it's moisture content The measure of how long structural assemblies will maintain their load-bearing ability under fire conditions is known as a. fire code approved b. noncombustible construction c. fire resistance rating d. NFPA rated 30 | P a g e a. delamination b. depolymerization c. spalling d. stressing c. spalling When exposed to intense heat, a lightweight metal truss can a. maintain its structural integrity b. often contain a fire specific to the area c. be expected to fail in 5-10 minutes d. be expected to support firefighting ops for at least 20 mins c. be expected to fail in 5-10 minutes What type of construction, found on some older wooden building, provides a path of rapid fire extension a. side split b. bungalow c. slate roof d. Balloon frame d. Balloon frame Type 1 is ___________construction a. non combustible b. heavy timber c. ordinary d. fire resistive d. fire resistive The weight of the building materials and any part of the building permanently attached or built in, such as heating, ventilation, and air conditioning units or water tanks, is the definition of a(n) _________ load a. impact b. fire c. design d. dead d. dead At ______ Fahrenheit the length of a steel structural member will begin to elongate. a. 800 31 | P a g e b. 1100 c. 1400 d. 1000 d. 1000 indications of building collapse include a. decorative stars b. closed compartments c. deteriorating mortar d. yellowish, puffing smoke c. deteriorating mortar a chord is ? a beam or joist b. the main member of a truss, the top or bottom structural element c. a framing member that supports floor or roof decking d. a large structural member used to support beams or joist b. the main member of a truss, the top or bottom structural element a parapet wall is best described as a. exterior wall extending above the roof line b. fire resistant c. attached to the building by its floors or columns d. supports its on weight and the weight of the walls and floors above it a. exterior wall extending above the roof line Modern wood-frame construction uses a technique that builds one floor at a time and inserts a plate between each floor that acts as a fire stop. the technique is called a. flitich plate b. platform frame c. balustrade d. awning b. platform frame the term that refers to how a building is used a. ownership b. occupancy c. design type d. residence 32 | P a g e b. occupancy What is another name for a lamella arched roof a. bowstring truss arched roof b. buttressed arched roof c. parapet arched roof d. diagonal grid d. diagonal grid Which describes a horizontal member between arches that supports a type of trussless arched roof a. purlin b. parapet c. Lamella d. bowstring a. purlin A poisonous gas with the odor of almonds is a. sulphur dioxide b.Hydrogen cyanide c. propane d. chlorine b.Hydrogen cyanide Which is true regarding smoke a. complete combustion results in dark black smoke b. the lighter the smoke, the more fuel it contains c. the color of smoke does not indicate fuel content d. the denser the smoke, the more fuel it contains d. the denser the smoke, the more fuel it contains What method of fire suppression is most widely used on Class A combustibles a. cooling b. removing of fuel c. smothering d. inhibition of chain reaction a. cooling What does the E stand for in Lower _____ Limit (LEL) 35 | P a g e the stages/phases of fire development are a. initial, growth, developed, and decline b. incipient/ignition, growth, fully developed, and decay c. origin, intermediate, growth, and decline d. spontaneous, incipient, growth/development, and decay b. incipient/ignition, growth, fully developed, and decay the movement of heat through a steel beam to an unexposed part of a building where it can start another fire is an example of a. conduction b. radiation c. convection d. direct-flame contact a. conduction Besides the growth stage, in what other stage is the fire fuel controlled a. incipent/ignition stage b. fully developed stage c. decay c. decay the amount of heat energy released per unit of time as a given fuel burns is called a. ignition rate b. heat release rate c. heat energy rate d. rate of combustion b. heat release rate Pyrolysis is defined as a. a physical reaction that produces heat b. the concentration level of a substance at which it will support ignition and continuous burning c. a state where a balance has occurred in a mixture d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. The temperature at which a liquid fuel produces sufficient vapors to support combustion is the a. fire point b. flash point 36 | P a g e c. ignition point d. vapor density a. fire point the ratio of the mass of a given volume of a liquid compared with the mass of an equal volume of water at the same temperature is a. specific gravity b. vapor density c. flash point d. surface to mass ratio a. specific gravity Rollover occurs when a. there is spontaneous ignition of combustible gases b. everything in a confined area ignites at almost the same time c. unburned smoke is heated in the absence of O2 d. pressurized smoke rises to the ceiling and then begins to rapidly bank down a. there is spontaneous ignition of combustible gases Backdraft is .... A. a boiling liquid/expanding vapor explosion b. a layer of air that has the same temperature c. the rapid ignition of smoke/unburned gases d. sudden ignition of all of the combustible objects within a compartment c. the rapid ignition of smoke/unburned gases A British Thermal Unit (BTU) is a. the amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit b. a substance or an agent that causes two or more objects or parts to bind c. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by light the concentration level of a substance at which it will burn a. the amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit There are two types of ignition a. exothermic and endothermic b. piloted ignition and autoignition c. pryolysis and spontaneous d, internal and external 37 | P a g e b. piloted ignition and autoignition Autoignition temperature is a. the term used to denote a place where heat is drained away from a source b. the temperature at which a material sustains combustion a catalyst in the breakdown of molecules d. a chemical reaction that absorbs heat b. the temperature at which a material sustains combustion Which material is a poor conductor of heat ? a. wood b. steel c. aluminum d. copper a. wood Which has the wider flammable range a. propane b. Methane c. Diesel d. carbon monoxide d. carbon monoxide In which physical state is a material easiest to ignite ? a. gas b. liquid c, solid d. neutrons a. gas the minimum temp at which combustion can be initiated under specific conditions is called a. heat rise b. fire point c. ignition temp d. heat release rate. c. ignition temp The mass of an object and its surface area influence heat absorption in what way ? 40 | P a g e When donning a SCBA, the firefighters should check to ensure that the cylinder is at what minimum specified percentage of its capacity of air ? a. 90 percent b. 75 percent c. 50 percent d. 10 percent a. 90 percent When tightening the straps on a SCBA facepiece the _______straps should always be tightened first a. lower b. temple c. upper d. harness a. lower Four hazardous atmospheres that firefighters are likely to encounter at a fire are a. super-heated air, toxic gases, o2 deficiency, and smoke b. toxic gases, hyperventilation, o2 deficiency, and heat c. Heat, smoke, and chemical reaction d. carbon monoxide, ammonia, water, hydrogen sulfide a. super-heated air, toxic gases, o2 deficiency, and smoke The purpose of the barriers found in structural firefighting PPE is to a. keep the skin from drying out b. increase perspiration from the body from evaporating and allows the transfer of fluids c. keep steam evolved from the body from escaping. d.prevent fluids from transferring to the skin and acts as an insulating barrier. d.prevent fluids from transferring to the skin and acts as an insulating barrier. Which type of breathing apparatus recycles the user's exhaled breath after removing carbon dioxide and adding supplemental o2 a. open-circuit b. closed-circuit c. special assisted respirator d. positive pressure b. closed-circuit What are the two general types of SCBA 41 | P a g e a. Demand and pressure-demand b. Open-circuit and closed-circuit c. OSHA approved and NIOSH approved d. compressed air and liquid O2 b. Open-circuit and closed-circuit An advantage of a face-piece nose-cup is that it a. assist in communication b. helps control internal fogging c. increases user time d. makes breathing easier b. helps control internal fogging Atmospheres are classified as O2 deficient when they fall below _________ percent O2 a. 25 b. 19.5 c. 16 d. 13.5 b. 19.5 What type of SCBA is most commonly used for structral firefighting a. closed-circuit b. Open-circuit c. Multi-circuit d. rebreather b. Open-circuit All SCBA should be inspected a. bi-weekly b. quarterly c. after each use d. semi-anually c. after each use The low alarm of the SCBA will sound when ____ percent of the cylinder's air supply is remaining a. 15 b. 18 c. 33 d. 30 42 | P a g e c. 33 NFPA 1971 covers a. structural PPE b. hazardous materials PPE c. firefighter safety standards d. physical abilities requirements a. structural PPE The universal air rescue connection is a. the female quick fill inlet sound on the back of a SCBA by the cylinder valve b. used to refill cylinders normally c. the term used for a short section of hose used to share air between users' masks d. used to refill a cylinder of a firefighter running out of air. d. used to refill a cylinder of a firefighter running out of air. What does NFPA 1981 address a. Open-circuit SCBA emergency services b. Station/work uniforms c. Fire department occupational safety and health program d. structural firefighter ensembles a. Open-circuit SCBA emergency services How long does it take for the PASS device to alarm if the wearer becomes inactive a. 20 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 45 seconds d. 60 seconds b. 30 seconds If apparatus sirens and noise levels exceed _____decibels, firefighters should wear hearing protection a. 30-40 b. 50-60 c. 70-80 d. 90 d. 90 Which statement regarding work uniforms is correct 45 | P a g e b. CO2 does not leave a residue or corrode electrical contacts A blue circle with a letter designation in the center would indicate an extinguisher is rated for for use on ______fires a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D c. Class C Class B fires involve fuels such as a. flammable liquids b. energized electrical equipment c. combustible metals d. ordinary combustibles a. flammable liquids A green triangle containing a letter would indicate extinguisher to be used on __________ fires a. class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D a. class A Energized electrical equipment and the surrounding area have to be protected with extinguishers that have a ______rating a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D c. Class C The preferred method of applying dry chemical agents to flammable liquid spill fires is to a. direct the stream into the flame and allow it to settle b. deflect the stream a minimum of 5 feet in front of the spill to prevent agitation c. direct the stream up-wind and allow it to be blown onto the fire d. direct the stream at the base of the fire using a sweeping motion d. direct the stream at the base of the fire using a sweeping motion 46 | P a g e Carbon dioxide extinguishers are generally rated for _______fires a. Class A and B b. Class B and C c. Class C and D d. Class B and D b. Class B and C An electric motor fire is best extinguished by using CO2 because it a. freezes the components and prevents re-ignition b. leaves no residue c. can be applied from 25 ft away from the equipment d. provides a smothering blanket of soft foam that does not effect electrical equipment b. leaves no residue Extinguishers suitable for Class B fires can be identified by a _________ containing the letter B a. blue circle b. green triangle c. red square d. yellow star c. red square The proper type of extinguisher for a fire involving magnesium, titanium, or sodium is a. dry chemical b. CO2 c. dry powder d. water c. dry powder A class D fire involves a. combustible metals b. flammable liquids c. electrical equipment d. ordinary combustible a. combustible metals Fires involving flammable liquids and gases where applied foam and/or dry chemical agents will be needed are ________ fires a. Class A 47 | P a g e b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D b. Class B Extinguishers suitable for class D fires can be identified by a ___________ containing the letter D a. blue circle b. yellow star c. green triangle d. red square b. yellow star Dry powder extinguishers are rated for use on ______ fires a. class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D d. Class D Which type of portable fire extinguisher is least likely to expose the operator to electrical shock a. dry chemical b. pressurized water c. Stored pressure AFFF d. Film-forming fluoroprotein a. dry chemical Class K fires involve a. atomic material b. computer network equipment c. hazardous waste d. high temp cooking oils, such as vegetable or animal oils and fats d. high temp cooking oils, such as vegetable or animal oils and fats The greatest concern associated with selecting too small of an extinguisher is that a. the contents will expel too quickly b. delicate equipment could be damaged by over application c. the operator has to get to close to the fire d. excessive amounts of dry chemical result in poor visibility 50 | P a g e c. 14-16 d. 18-20 c. 14-16 Utility rope should be used for a. rappeling b. belaying c. hoisting tools d. life safety c. hoisting tools The kern of a kernmantle rope is the a. core b. sheath c. end d. weave a. core About how much of a kernmantle rope's strength is provided by the mantle a. 10-15% b. 25-30% c. 45-50% d. 60-75% b. 25-30% The application of a safety knot is to a. finish the other basic knots b. keep a rope from running completely through the pulley or eye c. form a loop that does not tighten d. connect two ropes together a. finish the other basic knots The kind of loop that a figure 8 on a bight creates is a a. secure, closed loop in the end of a rope b. loop that will tighten at the standing end c. sliding loop at the running end d. double loop at both ends a. secure, closed loop in the end of a rope 51 | P a g e The primary use of the _______is to attach a rope to a round object a. rescue knot b. becket/sheet bend c. bowline d. clove hitch d. clove hitch The part of the rope that is used for hoisting or pulling is called the a. working end b. round turn c. running end d. standing part c. running end The knot used to tie two ropes of unequal diameter together is the a., clove hitch b. square knot c. becket/sheet bend d. half hitch c. becket/sheet bend A bowline is used primarily to a. join two ropes of unequal size b. form a loop around an object c. join tow ropes of the same size together d. connect and tighten a rope between two objects b. form a loop around an object A class 1 harness, used during technical rescues, is known as a a. chest harness b. full body harness c. leg harness d. seat harness d. seat harness When hoisting a ladder, the rope should be threaded and secured through the ladder _________the distance from the top. a. 1/6 52 | P a g e b. 1/5 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 c. 1/3 Elements for forming a knot are a. bight, loop, and round turn b. loop, bend, and crown c. round turn, standing, and running d. standing, bight, and hitch a. bight, loop, and round turn A tag line should be used to a. minimize the number of personnel to hoist object b. eliminate the need for a safety knot c. reduce strain on life safety rope d. prevent equipment from striking the structure d. prevent equipment from striking the structure Which is an advantage of sythetic kermantle ropes a. very strong, thin and heavy weight b. fibers making up the rope are not continuous from end to end c. excellent strength and requires extensive maintenance d. well suited for rescue work d. well suited for rescue work Which is the best choice for rescue rope a. braided b. laid (twisted) c. Polypropylene d. Kernmantle d. Kernmantle Which is true regarding hoisting tools and equipment a. use hand over hand method to control rope when hoisting b. fire extinguishers and SCBA should never be hoisted c. use with webbing over sharp edges to prevent physical damage to rope d. when working with heights, use additional ropes for added safety 55 | P a g e C. Preincident plan D. GPS triangulation B. Specialized computer software Which is a critical factor in determining the appropriate level of PPE? A. The experience of the fire fighters on hand B. The availability of protective gear available C. The physical state and characteristics of the material D. The responders' experience with this material C. The physical state and characteristics of the material Which is a defensive action? A. Plugging B. Patching C. Diking D. Product transfer C. Diking Which function should occur in the warm zone? A. Command post B. Decontamination corridor C. Triage area D. Staging area B. Decontamination corridor What does the R stand for in ERG? A. Radiological B. Response C. Region D. Rules B. Response What is the first priority on any hazardous material incident? A. Safety of responders B. Rescue of victims C. Stop leak D. Confine material A. Safety of responders 56 | P a g e Which is a critical factor in determining the decontamination methods employed for a specific incident? A. Level of PPE B. Area exposed C. Specific hazard(s) involved D. Incident commander's preference C. Specific hazard(s) involved What can be used to determine the pH of a hazardous material? A. Litmus paper B. Organic paper C. M-8 paper D. M-9 tape A. Litmus paper What does the abbreviation TLV stand for? A. Type limit variable B. Total limit viability C. Time length variable D. Threshold limit value D. Threshold limit value Which value is the maximum concentration to which an adult can be exposed 8 hours per day, 40 hours per week? A. Time-weighted average B. Long-term exposure limit C. Working exposure limit D. Ceiling level A. Time-weighted average _______________ is an atmospheric concentration of any substance that poses an immediate threat to life. A. Ceiling level B. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) C. Short-term exposure limit D. Maximum exposure limit B. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) Which Threshold Limit Value sets a maximum concentration above which no exposure of any duration should be permitted? 57 | P a g e A. Ceiling B. Maximum exposure limit C. Short-term exposure limit D. Permissible exposure limit A. Ceiling Which threshold limit value is the maximum concentration at which exposure should not exceed 15 minutes and should not be repeated more than four times per day? A. Time-weighted average B. Immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) C. Short-term exposure limit D. Permissible exposure limit C. Short-term exposure limit In the yellow and blue-bordered sections of the ERG, how are materials that are included in the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Distances identified? A. They are in bold print. B. They are italicized. C. They are highlighted. D. They are underlined C. They are highlighted. Materials are listed in the green section of the ERG because of their: A. flammability or explosion hazard. B. toxicity. C. reactivity. D. instability. B. toxicity. In the ERG, the Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances are found on pages that have __________ borders. A. red B. yellow C. blue D. green D. green The ERG refers to the __________ as the area downwind of the spill or leak where steps must be taken to protect the public. 60 | P a g e B. Assist victims cautiously. What does the EVADE acronym address? A. Decontamination B. Nerve agent poisoning C. Scene assessment D. Secondary devices D. Secondary devices What does the D stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Deny entry. B. Do not become part of the problem. C. Designate and enforce scene control zones. D. Dike, dam, dilute, and divert. C. Designate and enforce scene control zones. Diversion of material is an example of which mode of operation? A. Offensive B. Confinement C. Combined D. Defensive D. Defensive Dilution of material is an example of which mode of operation? A. Offensive B. Confinement C. Combined D. Defensive D. Defensive What service does the NFPA perform with regard to hazardous materials PPE? A. Creates standards B. Testing and certification C. Recommendations for usage D. All of the above. A. Creates standards Where will you find recommendations for levels of hazardous materials PPE to be used under specific conditions? 61 | P a g e A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B B. Emergency Response Guide (ERG) C. NFPA standards D. Material safety data sheets A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B For which situation will structural firefighting protective clothing provide you with adequate protection? A. You will be exposed to splashes of the material. B. You will have to handle the material. C. There are high atmospheric concentrations of the material. D. None of the above D. None of the above What is a proximity suit designed for? A. Limited exposures to high temperatures B. Protection from radiological hazards C. Protection from both chemical and heat hazards D. Hazardous materials support work, such as decontamination A. Limited exposures to high temperatures Which term describes when a chemical passes through a material on a molecular level? A. Degradation B. Permeation C. Infiltration D. Impregnation B. Permeation Signs that chemical protective clothing is undergoing the process of __________ include discoloration, charring, swelling, and shrinking. A. degradation B. corrosion C. decomposition D. deterioration A. degradation An EPA Level _____ chemical-protective suit is one that is designed to protect the wearer from gases, vapors, and liquids. A. A 62 | P a g e B. B C. C D. D A. A Which EPA level of protective equipment is required when working with highly toxic vapors? A. A B. B C. C D. D A. A You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a substance that has been positively identified. It is determined that this substance is harmful by inhalation but not by skin contact. What is the minimum EPA level of PPE for this situation? A. A B. B C. C D. D B. B What is the highest level of EPA chemical protective clothing that permits the use of an air-purifying respirator? A. A B. B C. C D. D C. C The use of EPA Level _____ protective clothing should only be used in situations where there is no atmospheric hazard. A. A B. B C. C D. D D. D Which form of decontamination typically consists of removing contaminated clothing and dousing the victim with large volumes of water? 65 | P a g e B. Communication C. Corrosive D. Contac A. Chemical Which type of breathing apparatus is equipped with an escape cylinder? A. Supplied-air respirator B. Powered air-purifying respirator C. Closed-circuit SCBA D. Open-circuit SCBA A. Supplied-air respirator A person has a radioactive material on their clothing. What is the term for this? A. Exposure B. Contamination C. Absorption D. Contact B. Contamination A fully encapsulated suit is part of EPA Level _____ protective clothing. A. A B. B C. C D. D A. A Preincident plans should be available to a. the highest ranking field supervisor b. units that respond to that location c. the first due unit only d. staff officers only b. units that respond to that location When calling a Mayday, you should a. transmit your location b. stay off the radio and listen for instructions c. throw your helmet out of a window to signal your location d. continued to talk until you are found 66 | P a g e a. transmit your location Which best describes the technique to use when exiting through restricted passages while using SCBA a. completely remove the SCBA backpack and harness assembly while keeping the facepiece in place and dragging the backpack behind you b. loosen the SCBA waist strap and remove one shoulder strap. Maintain control of the regulator side of the SCBA and sling the SCBA to one side to reduce your profile c. Completely remove the SCBA backpack and harness assembly while keeping the facepiece in place and pushing the backpack in front of you. b. loosen the SCBA waist strap and remove one shoulder strap. Maintain control of the regulator side of the SCBA and sling the SCBA to one side to reduce your profile What hould a firefighter do if their SCBA becomes dmaged or malfuncitons ? a. use the protective hood as filter b. deactivate the PASS device c. Remain calm and stay with their team d. run for the nearest exit as quickly as possible c. Remain calm and stay with their team Firefighters should practice reduced profile maneuvers with SCBA, but they must realize that this procedure a. should be used at every fire b. should be used as a last resort for an emergency escape c. does not require much practice to attain proficiency d. is best left to the chief officers b. should be used as a last resort for an emergency escape While inside the IDLH atmosphere, the technique of buddy breathing is a. considered unreliable by the NFPA and the NIOSH b. acceptable and should be implemented immediately c. required to be initiated by the rapid intervention crew d. unsafe unless performed by trained personnel a. considered unreliable by the NFPA and the NIOSH Which is true regarding the physical limits of wearing a SCBA a. physical and emotional stress has little effect on firefighters wearing SCBA's b. different firefighters consume air at the same rates based on physical activities 67 | P a g e c. company officer should assign strenuous activites to the youngest FF to help older FF conserve air d. firefighters consume air at different rates based on their aerobic fitness d. firefighters consume air at different rates based on their aerobic fitness What is one source of facts about a structure a. eyewitness accounts b. caller information c. a preincident plan d. Generalized assumption c. a preincident plan The three crucial fireground ops that must go hand in hand to keep the operation as safe as possible are a. fire attack, search and rescue, and ventilation b. command, operations, and planning c. overhaul, salvage, and ventilation d. direct, indirect, and combination attacks a. fire attack, search and rescue, and ventilation Once overhead doors have been forced they should be a. removed b. unlocked to prevent re-locking c. locked d. blocked open d. blocked open If you become trapped inside a burning building, which would be the best safe haven ? a. the basement b. clothes closet c. a linen closet d. a room with a door and a window d. a room with a door and a window In the term LUNAR, the L stands for a. location b. low on air c. lead firefighter is coming out d. ladder side A for firefighter coming out a. location 70 | P a g e c. firefighters will hold a victim by his ankles and wrists d. the victim and firefighters keep low to the ground b. both firefighters face the same direction When performing search and rescue, you should a. have at least three rings to attach and extend the original search line b. use one inch kernmantle search rope of at least 100 feet c. use search rope devices for all structures over 1,000 square feet only d. know that implementing a search line system requires a team of three or more firefighters d. know that implementing a search line system requires a team of three or more firefighters A rapid intervention crew team is composed of a. at least four firefighters b. firefighters to rescue occupants if found c. at least two firefighters d. firefighters waiting by ready to don PPE if necessary c. at least two firefighters Once the downed firefighter is found, they should be a. hooked up for buddy breathing b. log rolled and their mask removed to check their air supply c. medically evaluated before any move is attempted d. given a class 1 harness for lowering out of the building c. medically evaluated before any move is attempted Which left or drag is effective for carrying children or small adults who are conscious a. cradle-in-arms lift/carry b. incline drag c. blanket drag d. webbing drag a. cradle-in-arms lift/carry Which lift or drag is effective for two rescuers carrying a victim ? a. cradle-in-arms lift/carry b. incline drag c. blanket drag d. Seat lift/carry d. Seat lift/carry 71 | P a g e immobilizing a victim who is suspected of having a spinal injury on a long backboard requires _____ rescuers a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 c. 4 In what order should you search building areas for victims a. top floor, bottom floor, fire area, and fire floor b. fire area, fire floor, floor below the fire, and floor above the fire c. fire floor, floor above the fire, top floor,floors between top floor and previously searched floors d. bottom floor, fire floor above the fire, and top floor c. fire floor, floor above the fire, top floor,floors between top floor and previously searched floors In times of stress, most people leave building a. by the closest exit b. by the same routes they use everyday c. by the route designated in the fire pre-plan d. only if specific instructions to do so b. by the same routes they use everyday A secondary search a. checks only those areas not covered by the primary search b. is often done before the fire has been controlled c. look for victims inside and outside the structure d. is less thorough than a primary search c. look for victims inside and outside the structure In a three-firefighter interior search a. one firefighter stays at the door as an orientation point b. communication between firefighters is discouraged c. tools are not needed due to the increased number of search mebers d. constant noise will alert victims to a firefighters presence a. one firefighter stays at the door as an orientation point Thermal imaging cameras a. require no training before use 72 | P a g e b. are proven technology and will not fail c. make it impossible for a firefighter to become disoriented d. must never take place of a tried-and-true search techniques d. must never take place of a tried-and-true search techniques The most appropriate search technique for a warehouse or supermarket a. light scan search b. perimeter search c. rope-guided search d. hoseline search c. rope-guided search The firefighter carry a. should be performed on unconscious victims only b. should not be used in a smoke-filled environment c. is suitable for a victim of any weight d. is designed for use on firefighters only, not civilians b. should not be used in a smoke-filled environment When descending basement stairs, you should advance a. head first b. sideways c. backwards d. feet first d. feet first _______ glass is most commonly used in side windows in vehicles. a. regular/plate b. laminated c. tempered d. wired c. tempered Which belongs to the cutting group of firefighting tools a. Rabbet tool b. hydraulic spreader c. Spring-loaded center punch d. hydraulic shears 75 | P a g e c. duck bill d. rex tool b. Power saw A _____ tool provides a mechanical advantage in forcing locks, opening doors, and forcing windows a. cutting b. striking c. power d. prying d. prying Which procedure is a recommended method for making entry through barred windows a. cutting the bar assembly with a rotary saw or rebar cutter b. Prying the bar assembly with a pry bar c. Cutting the bar assembly using bolt cutters d. cutting the bar assembly with a jig saw a. cutting the bar assembly with a rotary saw or rebar cutter The best tool for the removal of iron window bars is a a. hydraulic rebar cutter b. bolt cutter or crow bar c. pry bar d. crowbar and battering ram a. hydraulic rebar cutter Metal swinging doors are difficult to force due to a. construction and design b. the locking mechanism c. weight and thickness d. the way they open a. construction and design What equipmesnt is recommended to force entry into a window covered with heavy iron bars or grates that is resistant to conventional equipment a. crowbar b. bolt cutters c. oxyacetylene cutting torch d. sledge hammer and wedge 76 | P a g e c. oxyacetylene cutting torch When forcing entry through a locked wood checkrail/double-hung window, the pry should be made at the a. center of the upper sash b. center of the lower sash c. side of upper sash d. top of lower sash b. center of the lower sash