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TCRN Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers, Exams of Advanced Education

Comprehensive TCRN exam questions with 100% correct answers covering a wide range of trauma care topics, including inflammatory mediators, intraosseous access, fluid resuscitation, shock treatment, PTSD management, legislation, research, ethics, wound care, burn treatment, cardiac injury, pulmonary contusion, trauma management, and more. Detailed and verified answers make this a valuable TCRN exam preparation resource.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 10/02/2024

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Download TCRN Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! TCRN Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest Version List three effects of inflammatory mediators - Correct Answer- Diaphoresis, glycogeonolysis, bronchodilation, increased: HR, contractility, automasticity, RR Describe the technique for inserting IO into distal femur - Correct Answer-Anterior midline above the external epicondyles, 1 - 3cm above the femoral plateau; the knee slightly flexed and the hip externally rotated and flexed Describe the technique for inserting IO into distal tibia - Correct Answer-just proximal to the medial malleolus Describe the technique for inserting IO into humerus - Correct Answer-Directly above the greater tuberosity Describe the technique for inserting IO into proximal tibia - Correct Answer-2cm distal and slightly medial to the tibial tuberosity Recognize adequate fluid resuscitation using four end points to resuscitation - Correct Answer-Traditional - Vital signs, urinary output (>0.5mg/kg/hr), Mental status Invasive hemodynamic monitoring - Central Venous Pressure (normal 2-6mmHg), Pulmonary wedge pressure (8-10mmHg), Cardiac Index (2.5 - 4.0L/minute/m^2), Delivery of oxygen (DO2) (500-600mL O2/min/m^2) Metabolic parameters - Lactate (>4 is severe), Base Deficit (>6mmol/L indicates severe injury) Treatment for neurogenic shock - Correct Answer-1 -2 L bolus (often insufficient and may cause pulmonary edema) Vasopressors (Epi, Norepi, dopamine, phenylephrine, or vasopressin) MAP 85-90mmHg Atropine respiratory support as needed List 6 effects that a state of crisis may have on a trauma patient - Correct Answer-Disruption of family Depression Failure to return to pre-event life Economic problems Elevation Tourniquet Describe primary wound closure - Correct Answer-Immediate wound closure Describe secondary wound closure - Correct Answer-Allowed to close on own over time (for clean wounds with significant tissue loss) Describe tertiary wound closure - Correct Answer-Closure is delayed for a period of time (wounds with significant bacterial contamination) The Rule of Nines - adult - Correct Answer-Head 9% Chest 9% Abdomen 9% upper back 9% lower back 9% Arm 9% upper leg 9% lower leg and foot 9% Genitals 1% Rule of Nines - pediatric - Correct Answer-Head 18% Chest 9% Abdomen 9% upper back 9% lower back 9% arm 9% upper leg 7% lower leg and foot 7% Four treatment strategies for electrical burns - Correct Answer-Fluid replacement using Modified Parkland Formula Consider starting with 20ml/kg bolus and adjust to maintain 1ml/kg/hr Continuous cardiac monitoring Osmotic diuretics Sodium bicarb (to alkalinize urine) Monitor for compartment syndrome Two complications associated with exposure to hydrocarbons - Correct Answer-Respiratory failure Hepatic injury (delayed) Describe Volkmann's contracture - Correct Answer-muscle contraction distal to nerve impingement injury List injuries commonly associated with blunt cardiac injury - Correct Answer-Pericardial tamponade Cardiac contusion - Electrical disturbances - Chest pain - Heart failure, primarily right sided HF Great vessel injuries Care for pulmonary contusion - Correct Answer-Pain management Maintain respiratory rate, ventilation Adequate gas exchange - ETCO2, SaO2 Mobilize and clear blood and secretions Define Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) - Correct Answer- Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema Describe components of ABD assessment on a traumatically injured patient - Correct Answer-FAST - Focused Abdominal Sonography Assessment DPA - Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage Define secondary injury prevention - Correct Answer-designed to reduce the severity of the injury Define tertiary injury prevention - Correct Answer-improvement in outcomes related to traumatic injuries Advantages of ground transport - Correct Answer-Larger payloads Readily available Advantages of helicopter transport - Correct Answer-Rapid point to point transfer Can reach areas of difficult terrain Usually has advanced care crew Advantages of fixed wing transport - Correct Answer-Can travel long distances rapidly Cabin is pressurized and roomy Can transport multiple patients Not limited by weather Disadvantages of ground transport - Correct Answer-Slow Affected by weather Disadvantages of helicopter transport - Correct Answer-Expensive Limited by: - weight - distance - weather Loud Cabin not pressurized Disadvantages of fixed wing transport - Correct Answer-Expensive Limited accessibility due to landing strip Usually requires ground support to complete transport Four factors that increase risks of falls - Correct Answer-Muscle weakness Drugs which increase sleepiness Use of cane or walker Need to use bathroom frequently Members of rehab team - Correct Answer-Patient and family Nurse Physical therapist Respiratory therapist Occupational Therapist Speech pathologist Physiatrist Conditions of brain death - Correct Answer-Irreversible Body temp > 35C Fixed pupils Apnea in presence of hypercarbia (PaCO2 > 60) No reflex activity: oculocephalic, oculovestibular, cough, gag, and corneal Describe corneal reflex - Correct Answer-Brush a wisp of cotton against the cornea, or apply a small drop of saline; normal response is rapid closing of eyelid Gag reflex - Correct Answer-Stimulate back of pharynx, normal response is to gag Swallow reflex - Correct Answer-Stimulate uvula, normal response is elevation of uvula What is oculocephalic reflex - Correct Answer-Dolls eyes; if eyes move opposite direction of head movement, it is abnormal finding