Test Bank For Anatomy & Physiology 1st edition Elizabeth, Exams of Anatomy

Download Test Bank For Anatomy & Physiology 1st edition Elizabeth and more Exams Anatomy in PDF only on Docsity! Anatomy and Physiology 1st Edition by Elizabeth Co Complete Test Bank Chapter 02 : Introduction to the Human Body Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following definitions describes the scientific study of human anatomy? a. The study of the body’s metabolic functions. b. The study of the body’s structures. c. The study of body’s chemical processes. d. The study of the body’s molecular processes. e. The study of the body’s evolution. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.1 Overview of Anatomy and Physiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1.1 - Define the terms anatomy and physiology. 2. What two approaches do anatomists use to study the body’s structures? a. regional and systemic b. global and detailed c. holistic and microscopic d. internal and external e. active and passive ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.1 Overview of AnWaWtoWm.yTaBnSd MP.hyWsSiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1.2 - Give specific examples to show the interrelationship between anatomy and physiology. 3. Which of the following describes the study of regional anatomy? a. The skin and its functions. b. The interrelationships of all of the structures in a specific body region. c. Human evolution by regions of the world. d. The specific functions of an organ. e. Chemical changes in the human body. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.1 Overview of Anatomy and Physiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1.2 - Give specific examples to show the interrelationship between anatomy and physiology. 4. Which of the following describes the study of systemic anatomy? a. The operation of body functions. b. The sequence of chemical reactions in the body. c. The structures that make up a discrete body system. d. The evolution of the human body. e. The changes in the body over time. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.4 Flow LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.4.3 - Predict how differences in resistance will affect flow rate. 13. What is the definition of homeostasis? a. The state of dynamic stability of the body’s internal conditions. b. The condition of humanity at any point in history. c. The sum of all chemical reactions within the blood stream. d. Molecular concentrations within specific organs. e. The environment for human development. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.1 - Define the following terms as they relate to homeostasis: setpoint, variable, receptor (sensor), effector (target), and control (integrating) center. 14. Which of the following statements describes the set point for maintaining homeostasis? a. The physiological value around which the normal range fluctuates. b. The physiological value that should not be exceeded. c. The minimal physiological value that should be maintained. d. One of a range of values that could be maintained. e. A fixed value that must be maintained. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.3 - List the main physiological variables for which the body attempts to maintain homeostasis. 15. What is the set point for normal body temperature? a. Approximately 35 °C (95.0 °F) b. Approximately 36 °C (96.8 °F) c. Approximately 37 °C (98.6 °F) d. Approximately 38 °C (100.4 °F) e. Approximately 35 °C (102.2 °F) ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.3 - List the main physiological variables for which the body attempts to maintain homeostasis. 16. Which of the following variables is homeostatically regulated? a. body weight b. blood sugar levels c. stress levels d. bone density e. metal alertness ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.3 - List the main physiological variables for which the body attempts to maintain homeostasis. 17. Which statement best describes a negative feedback loop? a. A mechanism that reverses a deviation from the set point. b. A mechanism that eliminates the cause of the deviation from the set point. c. A mechanism that replaces molecules required by the body. d. A mechanism that accelerates the production of hormones. e. A mechanism that freezes the cause of negative impacts to the body. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.4 - List the steps in a feedback mechanism (loop) and explain the function of each step. 18. Which of the following variables is regulated by a positive feedback loop? a. body temperature b. blood sugar levels c. childbirth d. thyroid hormone levels e. pH levels ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.5 - Compare and contrast positive and negative feedback in terms of the relationship between stimulus and response, and describe examples of each. 19. Which statement best describes a negative feedback loop? a. A mechanism that reverses a deviation from the set point. b. A mechanism that eliminates the cause of the deviation from the set point. c. A mechanism that replaces molecules required by the body. d. A mechanism that accelerates the production of hormones. e. A mechanism that freezes the cause of negative impacts to the body. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.2 - Explain why negative feedback is the most common mechanism used to maintain homeostasis. 20. What is the smallest independently functioning unit of a living organism? a. An atom b. A molecule c. A cell d. An element e. A proton ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.1 - Describe, in order from simplest to most complex, the major levels of organization in the human organism. 21. What is the name of the protective membranous structure that encloses a variety of tiny functioning units within human cells? a. molecules b. elements c. organelles d. cytoskeleton e. enzymes ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.2 - Give an example of each level of organization. 22. What do you call a group of many cells that work together to perform a specific function? a. tissue b. organism c. molecules d. organ e. element ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.3 - List the organ systems of the human body and their major components. 23. What do you call a structure of the body that is composed of two or more tissue types? a. cell b. membrane c. organ d. element e. enzyme ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.4 - Describe the major functions of each organ system. 24. What do you call a group of organs that work together to perform major functions to meet the physiological needs of the body? a. organ system b. biological system ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference. 33. What term would you use to describe a position below, or lower than, another part of the body proper? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior e. lateral ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference. 34. What term would you use to describe a structure toward the side of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior e. lateral ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Rememb W er WW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference. 35. What term would you use to describe an anatomical structure along the midline or toward the middle of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. medial e. lateral ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference. 36. What term would you use to describe a position closer to the surface of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. superficial e. lateral ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference. 37. What term would you use to describe a position further away from the surface of the body, or within the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. superficial e. deep ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference. 38. How would you describe an anatomical structure on a limb that is near the point of attachment or the trunk of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. proximal d. superficial e. lateral ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical PoWsiWtioWn.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference. 39. How would you describe an anatomical structure on a limb that is father from the point of attachment or the trunk of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. proximal d. distal e. lateral ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference. 40. What do you call the vertical plane that divides the body or an organ into right and left sides? a. sagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. median plane e. parasagittal plane ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.6 - Identify and define the anatomic planes in which a body might be viewed. 41. What do you call the plane that runs vertically directly down the middle of the body, bisecting the body into right and left halves? a. sagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. median plane e. parasagittal plane ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.6 - Identify and define the anatomic planes in which a body might be viewed. 42. What do you call the plane that divides the body into unequal right and left sides? a. sagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. median plane e. parasagittal plane ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical PoWsiWtioWn. LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.6 - Identify and define the anatomic planes in which a body might be viewed. 43. What do you call the plane that divides the body or an organ into an anterior (front) portion and a posterior (rear) portion? a. sagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. median plane e. parasagittal plane ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.6 - Identify and define the anatomic planes in which a body might be viewed. 44. What do you call the plane that divides the body or organ horizontally into upper and lower portions? a. sagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. median plane e. parasagittal plane ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember maintain melanin levels that protected their cells from the strong UV rays of equatorial sunlight, while allowing sufficient UV radiation for the production of Vitamin D. As humans migrated to locations with less intense UV radiation, their skin cells adapted and expressed less melanin. Although these individuals had less melanin and lighter skin, they were still able to produce Vitamin D even with low UV radiation. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.3 Evolution and Human Variation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3.2 - Contrast the impact of selection on traits that affect reproduction and traits that do not; use this to explain examples of anatomical and physiological variation. 53. Substances, whether they are air or sodium ions, flow (i.e., move) according to gradients. What are the types of gradients that drive flow, or the movement of these molecules, from one area to another in physiological context? List the types of gradients, describe how molecules move for each, and give an example. ANSWER: The three types of gradients that drive flow in the physiological context are concentration, electrical, and pressure gradients. Pressure gradients drive the flow of fluids or gases from high pressure to low pressure. For example, the pressure generated by the pumping of the heart drives the flow of blood. Concentration gradients drive the flow (here called diffusion) of individual molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration. For example, sodium ions flow from the outside of the cell (high concentration) to the inside of the cell (low concentration) when sodium ion channels are opened. Electrical gradients influence the flow of charged particles, including ions. For example, positively charged ions flow toward negatively charged ions. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.4 Flow LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.4.1 - Describe how a gradient determines flow between two regions, and give examples of gradients that exist in different levels of organization in the body. 54. Much of the study of physiology centers on the body’s tendency to move toward homeostasis. Define homeostasis and give an example. ANSWER: Homeostasis is the state of dynamic stability of the body’s internal conditions. Our bodies can withstand a variety of external, or environmental, disturbances because our internal conditions stay relatively stable to maintain the health of our cells. Maintaining homeostasis requires the body to monitor internal conditions continuously, typically using a negative feedback loop. Parameters such as oxygen levels, pH, nutrient availability, and temperature must remain constant for our cells to survive and perform their functions. Each physiological condition has a particular set point. A set point is the physiological value around which the normal range fluctuates. For example, the set point for normal human body temperature is approximately 37°C (98.6°F). Examples may range from body temperature, blood pressure, or blood glucose levels (to name a few). DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.1 - Define the following terms as they relate to homeostasis: setpoint, variable, receptor (sensor), effector (target), and control (integrating) center. 55. In homeostasis, many of our variables are regulated by feedback loops. Describe the two types of feedback loops and give an example of each. ANSWER: The two types of feedback loops are negative and positive feedback loops. A negative feedback loop occurs when the stimulus deviates from the setpoint and is then reversed to return the body to homeostatic levels, or back to the setpoint. Examples are body temperature and blood sugar levels. A positive feedback system, in contrast, intensifies a change in the body’s physiological condition. A deviation from the normal range results in more change, and the system moves farther away from the normal range, or the setpoint. A positive feedback cycle within the body will continue and intensify until there is a stop signal. Childbirth is one example of a positive feedback loop that is healthy but does not work to maintain homeostasis. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.4 - List the steps in a feedback mechanism (loop) and explain the function of each step. 56. Anatomists take two general approaches to the study of the body’s structure: regional and systemic. What are the differences between the two approaches? ANSWER: Regional anatomy is the study of the interrelationships of all the structures in a specific body region, such as the abdomen or thorax. Studying regional anatomy helps us appreciate the relatedness of body structures, such as how muscles, nerves, blood vessels, and other organs work together to serve a particular body region. A significant learning goal through a regional anatomy approach is to build a three-dimensional understanding of the placement of and relationships among structures. When an individual is then presented with an image taken from a various perspective, or while performing surgery or dissection, there is a better understanding of the structures within the image. In contrast, a systemic anatomical approach is the study of the structures that make up a discrete body system, or a group of structures that work together to perform a unique body function. For example, a systemic anatomical approach of the muscular system would consider all the skeletal muscles of the body. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.2 - Give an example of each level of organization. 57. Organs and organ systems are fundamental levels of organization in human physiology. Define the terms organ and organ system. ANSWER: An organ is a structure of the body that is composed of two or more tissue types; each organ performs one or more specific physiological function. An organ system is a group of organs that work together to perform major functions or meet physiological needs of the body. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.3 - List the organ systems of the human body and their major components. 58. The posterior and anterior body cavities are each subdivided into smaller cavities. Describe the smaller cavities within each major cavity. ANSWER: In the posterior (dorsal) cavity, there is the cranial cavity and the spinal cavity. The cranial cavity houses the brain and the spinal cavity (or vertebral cavity) encloses the spinal cord. Just as the brain and spinal cord make up a continuous, uninterrupted structure, the cranial and spinal cavities that house them are also continuous. The brain and spinal cord are protected by the bones of the skull and vertebral column and by cerebrospinal fluid, a colorless fluid produced by the brain, which cushions the brain and spinal cord within the posterior cavity. The anterior cavity has two main subdivisions: the thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity. The thoracic cavity is the superior subdivision enclosed by the rib cage and contains the lungs and the heart. A smaller cavity within the thoracic cavity is the mediastinum, which contains the heart, esophagus, trachea, and great vessels. Within the mediastinum is the pericardial cavity, which encloses only the heart. Each lung is contained within a separate pleural cavity, another smaller cavity within the thoracic cavity. The diaphragm forms the floor of the thoracic cavity and separates it from the abdominopelvic cavity. The abdominopelvic cavity is the largest cavity in the body. Although no membrane physically subdivides the abdominopelvic cavity, it can be useful to distinguish between the abdominal cavity, the division that houses the digestive organs, and the pelvic cavity, the division that houses the organs of reproduction. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Terminology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.9 - Identify and describe the location of the four abdominopelvic quadrants and the nine abdominopelvic regions, and the major structures found in each. 59. Certain directional anatomical terms appear throughout your anatomy textbook. The ten most common directional terms describe front/back, above/below, toward the side/toward the middle, close to the surface/father from the surface, and near the point of attachment/farther from the point of attachment. List these terms and define them. ANSWER: Anterior (front), posterior (back), superior (above), inferior (below), lateral (toward the side of the body), medial (toward the middle or midline), superficial (close to the surface), deep (away from the surface or within the structure), proximal (near the point of attachment) and distal (away from the point of attachment). DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Terminology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.5 - Describe the location of body structures, using appropriate directional terminology. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.7 - Predict, by examining the properties of an atom, the likelihood that it will ionize or form bonds. 9. Which of the following statements best describes an ionic bond? a. An ongoing, close association between ions of opposite charges. b. It shares electrons in a mutually stabilizing relationship. c. A bond that is individually weak and easily broken. d. An unbreakable bond between atoms. e. A strong bond between molecules. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.1 - Explain the mechanism of each type of chemical bond and provide biologically significant examples of each: covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 10. Which of the following statements best describes a covalent bond? a. An ongoing, close association between ions of opposite charge. b. It shares electrons in a mutually stabilizing relationship. c. A bond individually weak and easily broken. d. An unbreakable bond between atoms. e. A strong bond between molecules. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.1 - Explain the mechanism of each type of chemical bond and provide biologically significant examples of each: covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 11. Which of the following statements best describes a hydrogen bond? a. An ongoing, close association between ions of opposite charge. b. It shares electrons in a mutually stabilizing relationship. c. A bond individually weak and easily broken. d. An unbreakable bond between atoms. e. A strong bond between molecules. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.1 - Explain the mechanism of each type of chemical bond and provide biologically significant examples of each: covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 12. Which of the following statements best describes a nonpolar covalent bond? a. In a covalent bond, the electrons are shared equally between two atoms. b. In a covalent bond, the electrons are shared unequally between two atoms. c. In a covalent bond, the electrons between two atoms are oriented by their poles. d. In a covalent bond, the electrons between two atoms are eliminated by each other. e. In a covalent bond, the electrons between two atoms are expelled from their orbit. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.3 - Compare and contrast nonpolar covalent and polar covalent bonds. 13. Which of the following statements best describes the role of hydrogen bonds? a. Hydrogen bonds are critical to the functioning of our molecules and cells. b. Hydrogen bonds are rarely found in nature. c. Hydrogen bonds are resistant to temperature changes and acids. d. Hydrogen bonds rarely bond with other atoms. e. Hydrogen bonds do not change with environmental factors. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.2 - List the following types of bonds in order by relative strength: nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 14. How is metabolism defined? a. The sum total of all of the chemical reactions that occur inside the body. b. The conversion of food to kinetic energy. c. The chemistry of the human brain. d. The absorption of liquids by the body. e. The speed at which the body can move. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.1 - Compare and contrast kinetic and potential energy. 15. Which statement best describes kinetic energy? a. The energy produced by the body. b. The energy of motion. c. Energy not produced in the body. d. Energy stored within plants. e. The energy source primarily from the sun. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.1 - Compare and contrast kinetic and potential energy. 16. What is always required to complete an endergonic reaction? a. sunlight b. energy c. chemicals d. water e. hydrogen ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.2 - Compare and contrast endergonic and exergonic chemical reactions. 17. Which of the following lists describes the three types of chemical reactions? a. synthesis, decomposition, and exchange b. external, internal, and holistic c. potential, kinetic, and static d. dormant, active, and aggressive e. slow, medium, and fast ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.3 - Describe and draw examples of the three basic types of chemical reactions. 18. Chemical reactions tend to proceed at a faster rate in which medium? a. solids b. liquids c. gases d. space e. the oceans ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Rememb W er WW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.4 - List and explain several factors that influence the rate of reactions. 19. Which statement best describes the function of enzymes? a. Enzymes reduce the activation energy required for chemical reactions to proceed. b. Enzymes provide the body with nutrients. c. Enzymes control cellular function. d. Enzymes destroy harmful molecules. e. Enzymes provide energy to the cell. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.5 - Define enzyme and describe factors that affect enzyme activity. 20. What is the percentage of the composition of water in an average adult body? a. 5% to 10% b. 10% to 30% c. 30% to 50% d. 50% to 70% e. 70% to 90% ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember 29. What statement best describes an organic compound? a. A substance that does not contain carbon or hydrogen. b. A substance primarily composed of water. c. A substance that contains both carbon and hydrogen. d. A substance that contains mostly oxygen. e. All substances that contain carbon and oxygen. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.1 - Compare and contrast organic and inorganic compounds and give examples of each. 30. What are groupings of carbon and hydrogen called? a. carbolic groupings b. hydroxides c. hydrocarbons d. carbide groupings e. water-based groupings ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.1 - Compare and contrast organic and inorganic compounds and give examples of each. 31. What statement best describes an inorganic compound? a. A substance that does not contain carbon or hydrogen. b. A substance primarily composed of water. c. A substance that contains both carbon and hydrogen. d. A substance that contains mostly oxygen. e. All substances that contain carbon and oxygen. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.1 - Compare and contrast organic and inorganic compounds and give examples of each. 32. What statement best describes why there is an abundance of organic compounds? a. They are required for all living organisms. b. They evolved with human evolution. c. Carbon atoms have four electrons in their valence shell. d. Carbon atoms accept and donate electrons. e. Carbon is abundant in the earth’s crust. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.1 - Define the term organic molecule. 33. What is the term to describe any large molecule? a. A super molecule b. An extended molecule c. A macromolecule d. A compound molecule e. A composite molecule ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.1 - Define the term organic molecule. 34. What are the individual units of organic molecules called? a. polymers b. monomers c. macromolecules d. atoms e. ions ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.2 - Explain the relationship between monomers and polymers. 35. Which of the following statements best describes an hydrolysis reaction? a. A molecule of water disrupts a compound, breaking its bonds. b. The reaction always results in the absorption of water. c. One reactant gives up an atom of oxygen and the other reactant gives up a carbon group. d. One reactant is water and the other reactant is an oxygen molecule. e. The reaction always results in the synthesis of carbon compounds. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.3 - Define and provide examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. 36. Which of the following is correct about fatty acid chains? a. Fatty acid chains are composed of multiple inorganic molecules. b. Fatty acids are long chains of carbon and hydrogen molecules. c. Fatty acids chains are composed of heavy metals that are stored in adipocytes. d. Fatty acids are primarily made of water molecules. e. Fatty acid chains are composed of several oxygen isotopes. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.3 - Define and provide examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. 37. Which of the following statements best describes a dehydration synthesis reaction? a. The reaction always results in the absorption of water. b. One reactant gives up an atom of oxygen and another reactant gives up a carbon group. c. One reactant is always water and the other reactant an oxygen molecule. d. The reaction always results in the synthesis of carbon compounds. e. A covalent bond that joins two monomers is broken. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.3 - Define and provide examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. 38. What elements are carbohydrates composed of? a. carbon and oxygen b. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen c. carbon and water d. hydrogen, oxygen, and sucrose e. carbon and sucrose ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic CompWouWnWd.s TEBssSeMnt.iaWl tSo Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.4 - Compare and contrast the general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids using chemical formulas. 39. What characteristic do all lipids share? a. All lipids are radioactive. b. All lipids are hydrophobic. c. All lipids dissolve in water. d. All lipids contain nitrogen. e. All lipids contain heavy metals. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.4 - Compare and contrast the general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids using chemical formulas. 40. What do the five monosaccharides (glucose, fructose, galactose, ribose, and deoxyribose) have in common? a. They are not found in plants or animals. b. These molecules are all hydrocarbon rings. c. These molecules are sourced from the earth’s crust. d. They all are destroyed by sunlight. e. They are major causes of cancer. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember Hydrogen bonds are relatively weak. While individual hydrogen bonds are weak, hydrogen bonds among many water molecules simultaneously can be quite strong. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.2 - List the following types of bonds in order by relative strength: nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 49. Explain how temperature generally affects chemical reactions and describe temperature homeostasis within the body. ANSWER: Nearly all chemical reactions occur at a faster rate at higher temperatures. The kinetic energy of subatomic particles increases in response to increases in thermal energy. The higher the temperature, the faster the particles move, and the more likely they are to come in contact and react with each other. For this reason, the human body maintains temperature homeostasis around 37°C (98.6°F), allowing for a predictable rate of kinetic energy and therefore rate of reactions. When the body deviates from this homeostatic range, such as during a fever, reaction rates increase but the stability of hydrogen bonds may be compromised. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.2 - Compare and contrast endergonic and exergonic chemical reactions. 50. Name and describe the most important catalysts in the human body and their impact on activation energy. ANSWER: The most important catalysts in the human body are enzymes. An enzyme is a protein that lowers the activation energy to speed up chemical reactions. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.5 - Define enzy W m W e W a . n T d B d S es M c . rib W e S factors that affect enzyme activity. Chapter 04 - The Cellular Level of Organization Multiple Choice 1. What are the components of cellular membranes? a. oxygen, iron, and carbon b. phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins c. water and salts d. bases, acids, and water e. organic and inorganic compounds ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.1 - Describe the structure of the cell (plasma) membrane, including its composition and arrangement of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates. 2. What is a glycoprotein? a. A protein that has carbohydrate molecules attached to it. b. A protein found in the blood. c. A protein required for digestion. d. A protein found only in nerve cells. e. A protein that has water molecules attached to it. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: RemembWerWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.3 - Describe the functions of different plasma membrane proteins (e.g., structural proteins, receptor proteins, channels). 3. Interstitial fluid is considered . a. part of the extracellular fluid contained within blood vessels b. part of the intracellular fluid not contained within blood vessels c. part of the extracellular fluid not contained within blood vessels d. a fluid only found in the brain e. a fluid that supports digestion ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.2 - Compare and contrast intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid with respect to chemical composition and location. 4. What is the function of the membrane’s lipid bilayer structure? a. To control the intake of water to ensure homeostasis. b. To stimulate the production of lipids. c. To control the movement of all polar, charged, or large molecules across the membrane. d. To control the movement of all fluids in the body. e. To support the follow of blood. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.4 - Compare and contrast simple diffusion across membranes and facilitated diffusion in respect to their mechanisms, the type of material being moved, and the energy source for the movement. 5. What is a concentration gradient? a. The gradient of a liquid within the cell. b. The difference in concentration of a substance between two regions. c. The amount of blood cells in the body. d. The highest concentration level expected. e. The accumulation of all gradients in a fluid. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.5 - Compare and contrast facilitated diffusion, primary active transport, and secondary active transport in respect to their mechanisms, the type of material being moved, and the energy source for the movement. 6. What statement best describes diffusion? a. The movement of molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. b. Molecular separation within the cell. c. The movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. d. The dilution of ions in water. e. The separation of different molecules in the body. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.5 - Compare and contrast facilitated diffusion, primary active transport, and secondary active transport in respect to their mechanisms, the type of material being moved, and the energy source for the movement. 7. Which of the following statements best describes osmosis? a. The diffusion of water though a semipermeable membrane. b. The transfer of fluids from the environment to the body. c. The flow of blood to all parts of the body. d. The voluntary transfer of fluids. e. The evaporation of water from cells. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.6 - Define osmosis and explain how it differs from simple diffusion across membranes. 8. Which of the following statements best defines isosmotic solutions? a. Solutions with different osmolarities – concentrations of solutes. b. Solutions that maintain the same temperature and viscosity. d. elastic, inelastic, and intermediate filaments e. microtubules, macrotubules, and cytofibers ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.5 - Describe the structure and roles of the cytoskeleton. 17. Which of the following best describes organelles? a. A membrane surrounding the cell. b. Membrane-enclosed bodies within the cell. c. The molecules within the cell. d. The chemical elements on the surface of the cells. e. The membranes not included in the cell. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.2 - Define the term organelle. 18. What are the three types of appendages on various human cells? a. organelles, hydrocarbons, and membranes b. micromembranes, macromembranes, and organelles c. microvilli, cilia, and flagella d. microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments e. water molecules, hydrocarbons, and oxides ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.4 - Describe the structure and function of the various cellular organelles. 19. Which of the following statements best describes microvilli and their function? a. They are large projections on the surface of the cell to protect the cell. b. They are membranes within the cell to support energy production. c. They are molecules within the cell to support protein production. d. They are tiny and numerous projections on the surface of cells that expand surface area. e. They are large bodies within the cell that provide stability. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.4 - Describe the structure and function of the various cellular organelles. 20. Which of the following best describes mitochondria? a. An organelle that provides water to the cells. b. Membranes within the cell that produce oxygen. c. Molecules within the cell to support protein production. d. Tiny and numerous projections on the surface of cells that expand surface area. e. Membranous organelles that produce energy for the cell. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.4 - Describe the structure and function of the various cellular organelles. 21. The entire set of genetic instructions of an organism is called a(n) . a. genome b. DNA c. RNA d. genetic make-up e. genetic sequence ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.3 The Nucleus and DNA LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3.1 - Describe the structure and contents of the nucleus. 22. What is the largest and most prominent organelle of the cell called? a. The membrane b. The nucleus c. The mitochondria d. The nucleosome e. The chromosome ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Rememb W er WW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 4.3 The Nucleus and DNA LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3.1 - Describe the structure and contents of the nucleus. 23. The collection of genetic instructions used to build and maintain every molecule of every cell is coded in the . a. RNA b. DNA c. cell membrane d. chromosomes e. genome ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.3 The Nucleus and DNA LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3.2 - Explain the organization of the DNA molecule within the nucleus. 24. The four types of nitrogenous bases in DNA are represented by which four letters? a. A, B, C, and D b. B, T, C, and G c. A, T, C, and G d. A, X, C, and G e. C, G, T, and B ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.3 The Nucleus and DNA LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3.2 - Explain the organization of the DNA molecule within the nucleus. 25. What do you call a segment of DNA that provides the genetic information necessary to build a single protein? a. gene b. genome c. mRNA d. RNA e. ATMG ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.1 - Define the terms genetic code, transcription, and translation. 26. Which of the following best describes the process called transcription? a. The production of water molecules within the cell. b. The transfer of genetic information into an MMA molecule. c. The destruction of genes. d. The copying of a single strand of DNA. e. The production of a protein product. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthe W s W is W.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.1 - Define the terms genetic code, transcription, and translation. 27. What are the three stages of the transcription process? a. beginning, continuation, and completion b. exclusion, separation, and termination c. initiation, elongation, and termination d. initiation, distraction, and completion e. start, processing, and completion ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.1 - Define the terms genetic code, transcription, and translation. 28. What is the process of synthesizing a chain of amino acids called? a. transcription b. DNA Synthesis c. RNA Synthesis d. translation e. genome synthesis ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis 37. What are the phases during interphase, in order, prior to mitotic cellular division? a. G1 – G2 – S b. G1 – G2 – G3 c. S – G1 – G2 d. S1 – G1 – G2 e. G1 – S – G2 ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.1 - Compare and contrast somatic cell division (mitosis) and reproductive cell division (meiosis). 38. What do you call the process by which the cell nucleus breaks down and two new, fully functional, nuclei are formed? a. mitosis b. DNA replication c. meiosis d. nucleation e. translation ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.1 - Compare and contrast somatic cell division (mitosis) and reproductive cell division (meiosis). 39. During which of the following phases does DNA replication occur? a. G1 phase b. S phase c. G2 phase d. G1 and S phases e. G1 and G2 phases ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.3 - Describe DNA replication. 40. What is the enzyme that adds free nucleotides to the end of a replicating DNA chain? a. nucleic acid b. RNA c. DNA polymerase d. mRNA e. telomerase ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.3 - Describe DNA replication. 41. What are the three stages of the DNA replication process? a. beginning, continuation, and completion b. exclusion, separation, and termination c. initiation, elongation, and termination d. initiation, distraction, and completion e. start, processing, and completion ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.4 - Compare and contrast chromatin, chromosomes, and chromatids. 42. What happens to chromosomes during mitosis? a. They are eliminated from the cell. b. They are divided into their subunits. c. They are replicated. d. They are organized and distributed equally. e. They are transformed into different chromosomes. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.5 - Describe the events that take place during mitosis and cytokinesis. 43. Which of the following best describes stem cells? a. A cell specialized for brain function. b. A highly differentiated cell in the body. c. A cell with specialized functions. d. Cells never found in early embryos. e. An unspecialized cell that can be replicated as needed. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.6 Cellular Differentiation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6.2 - Discuss how the generalized cells of a developing embryo or the stem cells of an adult organism become differentiated into specialized cells. 44. What is the term that describes the process by which unspecialized cells become specialized? a. differentiation b. specialization c. cell conversion d. cell evolution e. cell modification ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.6 Cellular Differentiation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6.1 - Summarize the properties of cells that distinguish them from differentiated cells. 45. What is the class of proteins that bind to specific genes on the DNA molecule and promote its expression? a. transcription factors b. RNA molecules c. chromosomes d. stem proteins e. proteosomes ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.6 Cellular Differentiation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6.1 - Summarize the properties of cells that distinguish them from differentiated cells. Essay 46. Define and describe the differences between intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid. ANSWER: Intracellular fluid (ICF) is the fluid within the cells which makes up the majority of total body water. The extracellular fluid (ECF) is the fluid outside of the cell and includes plasma and interstitial fluid. The term extracellular fluid always refers to the fluid immediately outside of a cell; however, it can be referred to by more regionally specific terms as well. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.1 - Describe the structure of the cell (plasma) membrane, including its composition and arrangement of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates. 47. Describe the composition of cellular membranes and their affinity for water. ANSWER: The cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer embedded with many types of proteins. The phospholipid bilayer is arranged so that the polar heads, which are hydrophilic, are in contact with water (e.g., intracellular fluid or extracellular fluid) and the nonpolar tails, which are hydrophobic, are not in contact with the surrounding water. Like phospholipids, proteins arrange themselves within the membrane according to their solubility in water. Hydrophobic regions of a protein will be found within the hydrophobic phospholipid tails and protein hydrophilic regions are typically at the peripheries of the membrane, near the hydrophilic, polar heads. Other molecules within the plasma membrane include cholesterol and carbohydrates on the surface. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.3 - Describe the three main parts of a cell (plasma [cell] membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus), and explain the general functions of each part. 48. Name the two forms of membranous endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and describe differences in their structure and function. ANSWER: There are two forms of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) within a typical cell: the rough ER and smooth ER. Rough ER (RER) is referred to as “rough” because of the rough, or studded, appearance of ribosomes on the surface of the ER membrane under an electron microscope. The ribosomes on the surface of the RER aid in protein synthesis. RER also function in protein storage and vesicular transportation to the Golgi apparatus. Smooth ER (SER) lacks surface ribosomes and has a smooth appearance under the electron microscope. SER generally functions to synthesize lipid molecules. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.3 - Compare and contrast the general features of the four major tissue types. 5. What statement best describes nervous tissue? a. Tissue only found in the brain. b. Tissue that attaches muscle to bone. c. Tissue that ties the cells and organs of the body together. d. Tissue only found in muscles. e. Tissue capable of short- and long-distance communication throughout the body. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.3 - Compare and contrast the general features of the four major tissue types. 6. What statement best describes extracellular matrix (ECM)? a. A network of substances that surround and support the cells in a tissue. b. A substance found in all tissues with the same properties. c. A substance found only in neural tissue. d. A substance only found as an intracellular component. e. A matrix found inside all types of cells. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.4 - Describe the components and functions of extracellular matrix. 7. What statement best describes collagen? a. A protein only found in the brain and spinal cord. b. The most abundant protein in the human body. c. A watery substance found in cells. d. A type of tissue found in muscles and bone. e. A type of cell found in all tissue types. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.4 - Describe the components and functions of extracellular matrix. 8. What are the three basic types of cell-to-cell connections? a. weak, strong, and variable b. tight, loose, and weak c. tight junctions, desmosomes, and gap junctions d. tight, gap, and weak e. strong junctions, weak junctions, and gap junctions ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.5 - Compare and contrast the types of intercellular connections (cell junctions) with respect to structure and function. 9. What are specialized cell junctions that allow electrical and metabolic coupling between adjacent cells? a. desmosomes b. tight junctions c. fluid-like junctions d. gap junctions e. electro-metabolic junctions ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.5 - Compare and contrast the types of intercellular connections (cell junctions) with respect to structure and function. 10. What is the main function of epithelial tissue? a. Production of enzymes. b. Transfer of information from the brain to the spinal cord. c. Water homeostasis in the surrounding tissues. d. Protection, a tissue barrier. e. Connection among multiple organs. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of epithelia. 11. What important structural and functional features do all epithelia share? a. Very viscous with a lot of extracellular material present. b. Watery substance with limited structural support. c. Loosely packed cells. d. Very elastic and never replaced. e. Highly cellular, with little or no extracellular material present between cells. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of epithelia. 12. Why is epithelial tissue considered avascular? a. It has no direct access to blood vessels. b. It does not move from place to place. c. It is composed of many blood vessels. d. It is close to other blood vessels. e. It is often difficult to remove. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.2 - Classify different types of epithelial tissues based on structural characteristics. 13. What is the name of the epithelial edge exposed to the external environment within the lumen space? a. basal membrane b. apical membrane c. superior membrane d. exposed membrane e. top surface ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.2 - Classify different types of epithelial tissues based on structural characteristics. 14. Epithelial cells can be classified into three different shapes. What are the three shapes? a. small, medium, and large b. squamous, cuboidal, and columnar c. flat, round, and oblong d. cubic, spherical, and columnar e. circular, rectangular, and triangular ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.3 - Describe the microscopic anatomy, location, and function of each epithelial tissue type. 15. What are two characteristics of epithelial cell classification? a. location and function b. size and number of cells c. shape and number of cell layers d. cellular composition and location e. cell shape and size ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.3 - Describe the microscopic anatomy, location, and function of each epithelial tissue type. 16. What is generally observed with simple squamous epithelium? a. Very slow passage of chemical compounds. b. Very thick cellular structure. c. No passage of any chemical compounds. d. Rapid passage of certain chemical compounds. e. The ability to move on the surface. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue REFERENCES: 5.3 Connective Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3.2 - Classify different types of connective tissues based on their structural characteristics, functions, and locations in the body. 25. What statement best describes fibroblasts? a. They remove all unwanted tissue. b. They produce and secrete enzymes into the extracellular fluid. c. They are intracellular molecules. d. They are responsible for synthesizing protein fibers. e. They are found only in skeletal muscle tissue. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.3 Connective Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3.2 - Classify different types of connective tissues based on their structural characteristics, functions, and locations in the body. 26. What are the three main types of fibers secreted by fibroblasts? a. weak, fluid, and strong b. elastic, inelastic, and variable c. collagen, fluid, and fixed d. reticular, standard, and variable e. collagen, elastic, and reticular ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: RemembWerWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 5.3 Connective Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3.3 - Identify examples of each type of connective tissue. 27. What statement best describes adipose tissue? a. Loose connective tissue with cells that have little extracellular matrix. b. Strong connective tissue with an abundance of extracellular matrix. c. Connective tissue only found in the central nervous system, brain and spinal cord. d. Watery connective tissue found on the surface of the skeleton. e. Loose connective tissue that is not replaced. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.3 Connective Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3.3 - Identify examples of each type of connective tissue. 28. What are the three types of muscle tissue? a. smooth, rough, and elongated b. skeletal, cardiac, and smooth c. cardiac, elongated, and strong d. strong, weak, and elongated e. concentrated, light, and strong ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of muscle tissue. 29. What statement best describes skeletal muscle? a. Mostly fixed with minimal movement. b. Found mainly within the abdominal cavity. c. Attached to bones and produces body movements. d. Responsible for involuntary movements of internal organs. e. Forms the contractile walls of the heart. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of muscle tissue. 30. What statement best describes cardiac muscle? a. Mostly fixed with minimal movement. b. Found mainly within the abdominal cavity. c. Attached to bones and produces body movements. d. Responsible for involuntary movements of internal organs. e. Forms the contractile walls of the heart. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: RemembWerWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.2 - Classify different types of muscle tissue based on structural characteristics, functions, and locations in the body. 31. What statement best describes smooth muscle? a. Mostly fixed with minimal movement. b. Found mainly within the abdominal cavity. c. Attached to bones and produces body movements. d. Responsible for involuntary movements of internal organs. e. Forms the contractile walls of the heart. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.2 - Classify different types of muscle tissue based on structural characteristics, functions, and locations in the body. 32. What are the reasons for skeletal muscle cells remaining relatively constant in number throughout life? a. Their location within the body does not allow for replication. b. They are the same as the other muscle cell types. c. There is no replication of muscle cells. d. Their DNA does not allow for replication. e. They are incapable of mitosis due to their shape and multiple nuclei. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.3 - Identify examples of each type of muscle tissue. 33. What statement best describes neurons? a. They are cells that enable communication from one body part to another. b. They are cells that protect the nervous system. c. They are cells only found in the brain. d. They are cells that can easily replicate. e. They are cells that are responsible for body movement. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.5 Nervous Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5.1 - Describe and draw neurons and glial cells. 34. What is the gap between a neuron and its target called? a. neuronal gap b. synapse c. target gap d. electron e. glial gap ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.5 Nervous Tissu W e WW.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5.1 - Describe and draw neurons and glial cells. 35. Short branches of the neuronal cell body that receive signals from neighboring cells are . a. neurons b. synapses c. dendrites d. axons e. electrons ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.5 Nervous Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5.2 - Compare and contrast neurons and glial cells with respect to cell structure and function. 36. What do you call the electrochemical impulses sent from the neuronal cell body to other cells throughout the body? a. chemical charges b. ion flow c. electrical gradients d. action potentials e. charged impulses ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.7 Tissue Growth and Healing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.7.3 - Discuss the progressive impact of aging on tissue. 45. What do you call an error made while replicating DNA? a. DNA-error b. evolution c. mutation d. transformation e. alteration ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.7 Tissue Growth and Healing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.7.4 - Describe cancerous mutations’ effect on tissue. Essay 46. List the four main tissue types and explain how they differ. ANSWER: In general, epithelial tissue covers exterior surfaces of the body, lines internal cavities and passageways, and forms certain glands. Connective tissue, the most diverse category of tissue, binds cells and organs together, and functions in the protection, support, and integration of all regions of the body. Muscle tissue is excitable and produces contractions for movement; movement can be movement of the skeleton (e.g., walking) or contracting to pump blood through the body (i.e., cardiac muscle). Nervous tissue is capable of short- and long-distance coWmWmWu.niTcaBtiSonMt.hrWouSghout the body. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.2 - List the four major tissue types. 47. Describe the important structural and functional features that all epithelial tissue shares. ANSWER: All epithelial cells share some important structural and functional features. Epithelial tissue is highly cellular, with little or no extracellular material present between cells. Cells are in contact with other cells in almost every direction, resembling a brick wall. Often, adjoining cells are linked by cellular junctions. Similarly, epithelial cells are described as polar because they have two sides that are distinct. The apical side is exposed to the external environment, or an internal space, and the basal surface is the only side of the cell that faces the ECM. The specialized ECM that supports and anchors the basal epithelium is known as a basement membrane. This supportive membrane consists of two layers: the lamina lucida, a mixture of glycoproteins and collagen, which provides the immediate attachment site for the epithelium; and a lamina densa, which has a denser and more structural weave of tough collagen fibers. The lamina densa connects the epithelium to the underlying connective tissue. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.2 - List the four major tissue types. 48. Discuss where skeletal muscles can be found in the body and give some examples. Then, list some basic characteristics and functions of skeletal muscle. ANSWER: About 40 percent of your body mass is made up of skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscle is primarily attached to bones. A muscle contraction moves the bones at the joint and aids in maintaining posture. For example, the muscles that attach to the vertebrae are important for vertebral extension, or upright posture. Some skeletal muscle is not attached to bones. For example, the muscles that attach to the skin are responsible or facial expression and the muscles found on the superior region of the throat aid in swallowing. Skeletal muscle uses a tremendous amount of energy, and the increased conversion of nutrients to ATP during skeletal muscle contraction generates a lot of heat. Therefore, skeletal muscles have a role in body temperature homeostasis. When body temperature falls, involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles, shivering, is one mechanism to return body temperature back to the homeostatic range. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of muscle tissue. 49. Describe the characteristics and function of tissue membrane. ANSWER: Tissue membrane is a thin sheet of cells that covers the outside of the body (for example, skin), the organs (for example, pericardium), internal passageways that lead to the exterior of the body (for example, abdominal mesenteries), or the lining of the moveable joint cavities. There are four types of tissue membranes: mucous; serous; cutaneous; and synovial. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 5.6 Membranes LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6.1 - Describe the structure and function of mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial membranes. 50. Describe the four signs of inflammation and the treatment of each. ANSWER: Inflammation is generally presented with these four signs: heat; pain; redness; and swelling at the site of injury. Pain associated with inflammation is due to the secretion of prostaglandins that bind to the neurons that send pain signals to the brain. The perceived pain from inflammation is from physical damage to the tissue and the tissue constraints of swelling. To help alleviate the pain, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), like acetaminophen and ibuprofen, are drugs that prevent the release of prostaglandins by inhibiting enzymes that make them. To reduce the swelling and the pain associated with it, the most effective mechanism is to induce vasoconstriction (i.e., a reduction in blood flow). The best way to vasoconstrict at an injured area is to cool the inflamed region using ice. The body’s natural reaction to cold is vasoconstriction. Another treatment that can be helpful is compression or elevation of the area to assist in fluid drainage through the lymph vessels. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 5.7 Tissue Growth and Healing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.7.1 - List the benefits of the inflammatory response and describe the mechanisms that comprise this response. Chapter 06 - The Integumentary System Multiple Choice 1. What is the largest organ in the body? a. skin b. heart c. lungs d. intestine e. skeleton ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.1 - List the components of the integumentary system. 2. What is the name of the organ system that refers to the skin, hair, nails, and exocrine glands? a. integumentary b. epidermis c. exoskeleton d. dermis e. exterior ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the SWkWinW.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.1 - List the components of the integumentary system. 3. What do you call the intracellular fibrous protein that gives hair, nails, and skin their hardness and water-resistant properties? a. keratinocyte b. facia c. keratin d. melanin e. basale ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.4 - Identify and describe the layers of the epidermis, indicating which are found in thin skin and which are found in thick skin. 4. What do you call the epidermal layer of cells that is only found on the palms of the hands and the sole of the feet? a. keratinocyte b. stratum corneum c. stratum granulosum d. stratum lucidum e. stratum spinosum ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.10 - Identify and describe the dermis and its layers, including the tissue types making up each dermal layer. 13. The relative coloration of the skin depends on which of the following factors? a. The type of enzymes produced by the skin. b. Exposure to UV light. c. The amount of melanin stored in the melanocytes. d. The speed of skin cell reproduction. e. The number of Langerhans cells in the skin layers. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.8 - Describe the factors that contribute to skin color. 14. The thickness of the dermis varies based primarily on which of the following factors? a. Age of the individual. b. Nutrients ingested daily. c. Exposure to UV light. d. Location on the body. e. Altitude of the external environment. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: UnderstaWndWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.10 - Identify and describe the dermis and its layers, including the tissue types making up each dermal layer. 15. When the dermis is stretched beyond its limits of elasticity, the skin shows evidence of . a. wrinkles b. massive skin deformities c. dermal destruction d. dermatitis e. stretch marks ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.10 - Identify and describe the dermis and its layers, including the tissue types making up each dermal layer. 16. What are the major functions of the hypodermis, or subcutaneous layer? a. Water retention, reproduction of new epithelium and temperature regulation. b. Fat storage, insulation and cushioning. c. A barrier against pathogens, water retention and cushioning. d. A barrier against pathogens and water retention. e. Water repellent, insulation and temperature regulation. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.11 - List and identify the types of tissues found in the hypodermis. 17. What is the name of the layer directly below the dermis and serves to connect the skin to the underlying facia? a. reticular layer b. papillary layer c. hypodermal layer d. stratum basale e. stratum corneum ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.12 - Describe the functions of the subcutaneous layer. 18. What is the primary cause of wrinkles in the skin? a. dehydration during aging b. chronic excess salt intake c. decline in steroid hormones d. loss of collagen e. excessive adipose tissue ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understa W nd WW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.7 - Explain how each of the five layers, as well as each of the following cell types and substances, contributes to the functions of the epidermis: stem cells of stratum basale, keratinocytes, melanocytes, epidermal dendritic (Langerhans) cells, tactile (Merkel) cells and discs, keratin, and extracellular lipids. 19. What makes the skin thinner and slower to heal during aging? a. Chronic dehydration, or decreased water intake, during aging. b. An abundance of dietary salt intake. c. Reduced production of steroid hormones. d. Reduced number of stem cells in the basal layer. e. Excessive adipose tissue. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.7 - Explain how each of the five layers, as well as each of the following cell types and substances, contributes to the functions of the epidermis: stem cells of stratum basale, keratinocytes, melanocytes, epidermal dendritic (Langerhans) cells, tactile (Merkel) cells and discs, keratin, and extracellular lipids. 20. What statement best describes the composition of the reticular layer within the dermis? a. Sparce, or few, connective tissue cells. b. Lacks sympathetic nerve innervation. c. No significant collagen fibers. d. Very thin collagen fibers. e. Well vascularized and rich sensory nerve supply. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.9 - Describe the functions of the dermis, including the specific function of each dermal layer. 21. What statement best describes the role played by adipose tissue in the hypodermis, or subcutaneous layer? a. thermoregulation b. hydration c. respiration d. reproduction e. disease control ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.13 - Describe the thermoregulatory role played by adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer. 22. What is the name of the epidermal structure that the shaft of hair grows within? a. The hair follicle b. The hair bulb c. The hair matrix d. The hair root e. The dermis ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.1 - Describe the structure and function of hair. 23. The oil gland associated with each hair follicle is called the . a. hair eccrine gland b. sebaceous gland c. follicular gland d. merocrine gland e. bulbus gland ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.1 - Describe the structure and function of hair. 24. What is the name of the thin strip of just epidermis at the meeting point between the proximal nail fold and the nail body? a. nail folds 32. The presence of keratin layers and glycolipids in the stratum corneum prevent . a. water loss b. the loss of vitamin D c. blood loss d. the loss of lipids e. the loss of respiration ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.1 - Explain how the integumentary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 33. The tactile corpuscles are responsible for which of the following sensations? a. touch b. pressure c. temperature d. pain e. humidity ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.1 - Explain how the integumentary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 34. The nociceptors are responsible for which of the following sensations? a. touch b. pressure c. temperature changes d. pain e. heat ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.1 - Explain how the integumentary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 35. The lamellated corpuscles are responsible for which of the following sensations? a. touch b. pressure c. temperature d. pain e. water ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.1 - Explain how the integumentary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 36. The sympathetic nervous system is continuously monitoring and initiating appropriate responses to . a. changes in body temperature b. temperature of the environment c. humidity levels d. pain e. tactile pressure changes ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.2 - Explain how the integumentary system maintains homeostasis with respect to thermoregulation and water conservation. 37. The human skin needs to synthesize vitamin D. a. water b. steroid hormones c. UV radiation d. acidic proteins e. basic proteins ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.2 - Explain how the integumentary system maintains homeostasis with respect to thermoregulatioWnWanWd.wTaBteSrMc.onWsServation. 38. Rickets in children and osteomalacia in older adults have which of the following characteristic in common? a. Lack of exercise. b. Lack of protein in the diet. c. Lack of pure, or distilled, water. d. Lack of acidic intake. e. Lack of vitamin d. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.2 - Explain how the integumentary system maintains homeostasis with respect to thermoregulation and water conservation. 39. Where on the body are the specialized sensory nerves highly concentrated? a. Palm of the hand b. Tip of the fingers c. Bottom of the feet d. The face e. Both arms and legs ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.2 - Explain how the integumentary system maintains homeostasis with respect to thermoregulation and water conservation. 40. How do you accurately characterize a burn that affects both the epidermis and a portion of the dermis resulting in swelling and a painful blistering of the skin? a. First-degree burn b. Second-degree burn c. Third-degree burn d. Fourth-degree burn e. Severe burn ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 6.4 Healing the Integument LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4.1 - Given a factor or situation (e.g., second-degree burns [partial-thickness burns]), predict the changes that could occur in the integumentary system and the consequences of those changes (i.e., given a cause, state a possible effect). 41. What is the first step to repairing damaged skin? a. Formation of scar. b. Formation of granulation tissue. c. Formation of blood clot. d. Formation of scabs. e. Blood vessels infiltration. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.4 Healing the Integument LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4.1 - Given a factor or situation (e.g., second-degree burns [partial-thickness burns]), predict the changes that could occur in the integumentary system and the consequences of those changes (i.e., given a cause, state a possible effect). 42. What is the name of the scar tissue that has a sunken appearance due to insufficient collagen laid down in the healing process? a. keloid b. scab c. granulation tissue d. atrophic scar e. depression scar ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.4 Healing the Integument LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4.1 - Given a factor or situation (e.g., second-degree burns [partial-thickness burns]), predict the changes that could occur in the integumentary system and the consequences of those changes (i.e., given a cause, state a possible effect). 43. Damage to DNA from overexposure to UV light most likely promotes which type of disease? a. infectious disease b. deficiency disease c. hereditary disease nerves to send signals to the brain for processing. These cells are especially abundant on the surfaces of the hands and feet. The second cell type is a melanocyte, a cell that produces the pigment melanin. Melanin, a protein that can be made in two forms, protects cells from ultraviolet radiation damage. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.4 - Identify and describe the layers of the epidermis, indicating which are found in thin skin and which are found in thick skin. 50. Describe the composition of the epidermis and its layers, include both thin and think skin. ANSWER: The epidermis is composed of specialized stratified squamous epithelium called keratinized stratified squamous. Keratin is a fibrous protein that protects the underlying structures and gives hair, nail, and skin their hardness and water-resistant properties. Like all epithelia, the epidermis is avascular (does not contain blood vessels). The thin epithelium has four layers. From deep to superficial, the layers are the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, and stratum corneum. The thick epithelium, located mainly on the palm of the hands and sole of the feet, has five layers. From deep to superficial, the layers are the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.3 - Identify and describe the tissue type making up the epidermis. Chapter 07 - Bone Tissue and the Skeletal System Multiple Choice 1. Where is calcium stored in the body? a. bone extracellular matrix b. bone marrow c. cartilage surrounding the bones d. blood e. collagen ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the skeletal system. 2. What are the two types of bone marrow? a. weak and strong marrow b. yellow and red marrow c. active and inactive marrow d. viscous and solid marrow e. brown and yellow marrow ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.1 The FunctionsWoWf tWh.e TSkBeSleMta.l WSySstem LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the skeletal system. 3. Where does hematopoiesis occur? a. yellow marrow b. yellow and red marrow c. red marrow d. in the blood surrounding the bone e. in hyaline cartilage ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the skeletal system. 4. What is the principal cause of the familiar bone ache sensation that we experience during an illness? a. Impact of the disease cells. b. The variation in body temperature during an illness. c. Immune cells in bone marrow reproducing wildly. d. The effect of the fever. e. Increase in the level of calcium. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.4 - Predict disruptions to homeostasis if damage to the skeletal system occurred. 5. Circulating cells in your blood are generated from . a. multiple locations in the body, including bone marrow and the liver b. various organs over time c. multiple endocrine glands in the body and bone marrow d. stem cells in bone marrow e. bone marrow and the respiratory system ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.4 - Predict disruptions to homeostasis if damage to the skeletal system occurred. 6. What statement best describes the role of elastic cartilage in the skeletal system? a. A component of joints that can withstand heavy loads. b. Maintains hydration levels. c. Reduces any pain or damage to the underlying bones. d. Fights off pathogens, or disease. e. Found in the external ears, tip of the nose, and the epiglottis. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The FunctionsWoWf tWh.e TSkBeSleMta.l WSySstem LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.2 - Describe the locations of the three types of cartilage in the skeletal system. 7. What statement best describes the role of fibrocartilage in the skeletal system? a. A component of joints that can withstand heavy loads. b. Maintains hydration levels. c. Reduces any pain or damage to the underlying bones. d. Fights off pathogens, or disease. e. Found in the external ears, tip of the nose, and the epiglottis. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.2 - Describe the locations of the three types of cartilage in the skeletal system. 8. What statement best describes the role of hyaline cartilage in the skeletal system? a. A component of joints that can withstand heavy loads. b. Maintains hydration levels. c. Reduces any pain or damage to the underlying bones. d. Fights off pathogens, or disease. e. Found in the external ears, tip of the nose, and the epiglottis. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System 17. Which of the following statements best describes the distal epiphysis? a. It is located at both ends of a long bone. b. It is the end of the bone closest to the trunk. c. It is the end of the bone farthest from the trunk. d. It is the shaft between the two epiphyses. e. It is the hollow region within the diaphysis. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.2 - Identify and describe the structural components of a long bone, and explain their functions. 18. Which of the following statements best describes the diaphysis? a. It is located at both ends of a long bone. b. It is the end of the bone closest to the trunk. c. It is the end of the bone farthest from the trunk. d. It is the shaft between the two epiphyses. e. It is the hollow region within the diaphysis. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.2 - Identify and describe the structural components of a long bone, and explain their functions. 19. Which of the following statements best describes the medullary cavity? a. It is located at both ends of a long bone. b. It is the end of the bone closest to the trunk. c. It is the end of the bone farthest from the trunk. d. It is the shaft between the two epiphyses. e. It is the hollow region within the diaphysis. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.2 - Identify and describe the structural components of a long bone, and explain their functions. 20. An articulation is . a. a joint where two bone surfaces come together b. an area of a bone above the surface of the bone c. a rounded protuberance at the end of some bones d. a small, rounded process for muscle attachments e. a hole though bone ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.3 - Define common bone marking terms (e.g., condyle, tubercle, foramen, canal). 21. A projection is a bony marking that is a(n) . a. joint where two bone surfaces come together b. area of a bone above the surface of the bone c. rounded protuberance at the end of some bones d. small, rounded process for muscle attachments e. space, or hole, though the bone ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.3 - Define common bone marking terms (e.g., condyle, tubercle, foramen, canal). 22. A condyle is a bony marking that is a(n) . a. joint where two bone surfaces come together b. area of a bone above the surface of the bone c. rounded protuberance at the end of some bones d. small, rounded process for muscle attachments e. space, or hole, though the bone ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone ClassificWatWioWn.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.3 - Define common bone marking terms (e.g., condyle, tubercle, foramen, canal). 23. Which of the following statements best describes a tubercle? a. A joint where two bone surfaces come together. b. An area of a bone above the surface of the bone. c. A rounded protuberance at the end of some bones. d. A small, rounded process for muscle attachments. e. A space, or hole, though the bone. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.3 - Define common bone marking terms (e.g., condyle, tubercle, foramen, canal). 24. Which of the following statements best describes a foramen? a. A joint where two bone surfaces come together. b. An area of a bone above the surface of the bone. c. A rounded protuberance at the end of some bones. d. A small rounded process. e. A space, or hole, though the bone. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.3 - Define common bone marking terms (e.g., condyle, tubercle, foramen, canal). 25. Chondroblasts are . a. cells capable of generating cartilaginous matrix b. holes in the cartilage occupied by chondrocytes c. vascularized coverings of dense irregular connective tissue d. cartilaginous structures that aid in cellular removal e. blood vessels that run through the cartilage ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.3 - Using microscopic images, distinguish between the three different types of cartilage. 26. Lacunae are . a. cells capable of generating cartilaginous matrix b. holes in the cartilage occupied by chondrocytes c. vascularized coverings of dense irregular connective tissue d. cartilaginous structures that aid in cellular removal e. blood vessels that run through the cartilage ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: UnderstaWndWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.3 - Using microscopic images, distinguish between the three different types of cartilage. 27. What statement best describes perichondrium? a. Cells capable of generating cartilaginous matrix. b. Holes in the cartilage occupied by chondrocytes. c. Vascularized coverings of dense irregular connective tissue. d. Cartilaginous structures that aid in cellular removal. e. Blood vessels that run through the cartilage. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.3 - Using microscopic images, distinguish between the three different types of cartilage. 28. What statement best describes osteogenic cells? a. Bone stem cells capable of replication. b. The holes in the cartilage occupied by chondrocytes. c. Vascularized coverings of dense irregular connective tissue. d. Cartilaginous structures that aid in cellular removal. e. Blood vessels that run through the cartilage ANSWER: a REFERENCES: 7.4 Formation and Growth of Bone and Cartilage LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4.2 - Compare and contrast intramembranous and endochondral (intracartilaginous) bone formation 37. What is the only site where bone is capable of growing longer? a. The epiphyseal plate. b. The proliferative zone. c. The reserve zone. d. The zone of mature cartilage. e. The epiphyseal line. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.1 - Compare and contrast interstitial (lengthwise) and appositional (width or circumferential) growth in bone tissue. 38. What hormone inhibits osteoclast activity and stimulates calcium uptake by the bones, to reduce the concentration of calcium ions in the blood? a. parathyroid hormone (PTH) b. calcitonin c. testosterone d. estrogen e. growth hormone (GH) ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.2 - Compare and contrast the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts during bone growth, repair, and remodeling. 39. What do you call the process that results in the thickening of cartilage? a. interstitial growth b. elongation growth c. appositional growth d. cartelizational growth e. width development ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.1 - Compare and contrast interstitial (lengthwise) and appositional (width or circumferential) growth in bone tissue. 40. Which of the following hormones increases the activity of osteoblasts, resulting in more bone matrix? a. growth hormone (GH) b. estrogen c. thyroid hormone (T4) d. testosterone e. calcitonin ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.4 - Explain the hormonal regulation of skeletal growth. 41. Which of the following hormones increases the absorption of Ca+ and phosphate from the digestive track? a. growth hormone (GH) b. estrogen c. thyroid hormone (T4) d. calcitriol e. calcitonin ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.5 - Explain the roles of parathyroid hormone, calcitriol, and calcitonin in plasma calcium regulation and bone remodeling. 42. What do you call the fibrocartilage template formed within about 48 hours after a bone fracture? a. bone bond b. fibroplate c. bone template d. calcitriol e. callus ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.6 - Explain the steps involved in fracture repair. 43. Why is skeletal health a key component of homeostasis? a. It is a source of calcium. b. It keeps the body in an upright posture. c. It ensures blood flow to all areas of the body. d. It helps to maintain body temperature. e. It controls oxygen flow to the tissue. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.6 Bones and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6.1 - Explain how the skeletal system participates in homeostasis of plasma calcium levels. 44. What is the primary effect of a sedentary lifestyle and the absence of weight-bearing exercise on bone? a. Lateral growth of bone mass. b. Rapid loss of both collagen and mineral matrix. c. Loss of fluids, dehydration, of the bone marrow. d. The increase of fluids in bone mass. e. Reduction of vitamin D production. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 7.6 Bones and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6.2 - Explain how exercise impacts bone formation. 45. What is the primary cause of osteoarthritis? a. Lateral growth of bone mass. b. Rapid loss of both collagen and mineral matrix. c. Reduction in the amount of hyaline cartilage at the joints. d. Loss of calcium in the bones. e. Reduction of vitamin D production. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.6 Bones and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6.4 - Given a disruption in the structure or function of the skeletal system (e.g., osteoarthritis), predict the possible factors or situations that might have caused that disruption (i.e., given an effect, predict the possible causes). Essay 46. Discuss the five most important functions of bones. ANSWER: (1) Bones provide muscle attachments that enable movement; (2) bones provide hard, protective cases for our most vulnerable organs; (3) bone matrix functions to store calcium and other minerals for the body; (4) calcium is removed from the bones to be secreted into the bloodstream to serve other cells of the body as needed, but if too much mineral is removed, the bones may weaken; and (5) the hollow interior of bones is filled with red and yellow bone marrow. Red marrow contains stem cells for production of new blood cells and yellow marrow contains lipid for a potential energy source. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the skeletal system. 47. Define the term lamellae and state its principal function for bone. ANSWER: Lamellae are sheets of connected osteocytes within their lacunae that wrap around the central canal. Each osteocyte is alone in its lacuna but connected to osteocytes in neighboring lacunae through canaliculi. This system allows nutrients to be transported to the osteocytes and wastes to be removed from them. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.4 - Identify the microscopic structure of compact bone and spongy bone. 48. Explain intramembranous ossification, include the four stages of development and the changes that occur from birth to adult. ANSWER: The formation of bone within a sheet of connective tissue is a process that can be broken into four stages. (1) Mesenchymal cells group into a cluster and begin to differentiate into bone cells; (2) newly differentiated osteoblasts secrete an osteoid matrix; (3) trabeculae and periosteum form; and (4) compact bone develops, surrounding the trabecular bone. Intramembranous ossification begins in utero during fetal development but continues into adolescence. At birth, the skull and clavicles are not fully ossified; this is an evolutionary ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features. 5. Which of the following bones of the skull is unpaired? a. temporal bone b. maxilla c. parietal bone d. nasal bone e. frontal bone ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features. 6. What do you call the smaller air-filled spaces, or cavities, within the skull? a. sinuses b. air passages c. oral cavities d. nasal cavities e. pharyngeal spaces ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Rememb W er WW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features. 7. Which of the following statements best describes the glabella? a. The superior rim of the eye orbit. b. A slight depression between the eyebrows on the frontal bone. c. An opening that provides a passageway for nerves. d. Bones that form the superolateral sides of the skull. e. The joint that is visible on the lateral sides of the skull. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features. 8. Which of the following statements best describes the supraorbital margin? a. The superior rim of the eye orbit. b. A slight depression between the eyebrows on the frontal bone. c. An opening that provides a passageway for nerves. d. Bones that form the superolateral sides of the skull. e. The joint that is visible on the lateral sides of the skull. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features. 9. Which of the following statements best describes the supraorbital foramen? a. The superior rim of the eye orbit. b. A slight depression between the eyebrows on the frontal bone. c. An opening that provides a passageway for nerves. d. Bones that form the superolateral sides of the skull. e. The joint that is visible on the lateral sides of the skull. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features. 10. Which of the following statements best describes the parietal bones? a. The superior rim of the eye orbit. b. A slight depression between the eyebrows on the frontal bone. c. An opening that provides a passageway for nerves. d. Bones that form the superolateral sides of the skull. e. The joint that is visible on the lateral sides of the skull. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.2 - List and ide W n W tif W y . th T e B sk S u M ll . su W t S ures. 11. Which statement best describes the squamous suture? a. The superior rim of the eye orbit. b. A slight depression between the eyebrows on the frontal bone. c. An opening that provides a passageway for nerves. d. Bones that form the superolateral sides of the skull. e. The joint that is visible on the lateral sides of the skull. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.2 - List and identify the skull sutures. 12. What do all the sinuses have in common? a. They all connect to the nasal cavity. b. None of them are lined with nasal mucosa. c. They all vary by age. d. They are all the same size. e. They all flow in the same direction. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions. 13. What are the two major functions of the sinuses? a. Provide flow of air and nutrients for the skull. b. Lighten the skull and provide resonance. c. Capture pollens and nutrients in the air. d. Filter the air and capture pollens. e. Provide air to the skull. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions. 14. What statement best describes the frontal sinus? a. It is located just above the eyebrows, within the frontal bone. b. It is the largest paired sinus. c. A single midline sinus, the most posterior of the paranasal sinuses. d. It has multiple small spaces separated by very thin bony walls. e. It is located within the occipital bone. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions. 15. What statement best describes the maxillary sin W us W ? W.TBSM.WS a. It is located just above the eyebrows, within the frontal bone. b. It is the largest paired sinus. c. A single midline sinus, the most posterior of the paranasal sinuses. d. It has multiple small spaces separated by very thin bony walls. e. It is located within the occipital bone. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions. 16. What statement best describes the sphenoid sinus? a. It is located just above the eyebrows, within the frontal bone. b. It is the largest paired sinus. c. A single midline sinus, the most posterior of the paranasal sinuses. d. It has multiple small spaces separated by very thin bony walls. e. It is located within the occipital bone. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions. 17. What statement best describes the ethmoid sinus? a. The bulky anterior portion of each vertebra. b. Forms the posterior aspect of each vertebra, contains the lamina and the pedicles. c. Forms the lateral sides of the vertebral arch. d. Forms the posterior edge of the vertebral arch. e. Contains the spinal cord. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions. 26. What statement best describes the laminae? a. The bulky anterior portion of each vertebra. b. Forms the posterior aspect of each vertebra, contains the lamina and the pedicles. c. Forms the lateral sides of the vertebral arch. d. Forms the posterior edge of the vertebral arch. e. Contains the spinal cord. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions. 27. What statement best describes the vertebral foraWmWeWn?.TBSM.WS a. The bulky anterior portion of each vertebra. b. Forms the posterior aspect of each vertebra, contains the lamina and the pedicles. c. Forms the lateral sides of the vertebral arch. d. Forms the posterior edge of the vertebral arch. e. Contains the spinal cord. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions. 28. What is the name given to the first cervical (C1) vertebra? a. atlas b. axis c. superior vertebra d. premier vertebra e. lead vertebra ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.2 - Identify major bone markings (e.g., spines, processes, foramina) on individual vertebrae. 29. What is the name given to the second cervical (C2) vertebra? a. atlas b. axis c. superior vertebra d. premier vertebra e. lead vertebra ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.2 - Identify major bone markings (e.g., spines, processes, foramina) on individual vertebrae. 30. What statement best describes the thoracic vertebrae? a. Distinguished by the downward pointing spinous process. b. Characterized by the large size and thickness of the vertebral body. c. Formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. d. Formed by the fusion of four small vertebrae. e. Characterized by the very thin vertebral body. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.3 - Compare and contrast vertebrae from each region of the spinal column. 31. What statement best describes the lumbar verteWbrWaeW? .TBSM.WS a. Distinguished by the downward pointing spinous process. b. Characterized by the large size and thickness of the vertebral body. c. Formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. d. Formed by the fusion of four small vertebrae. e. Characterized by the very thin vertebral body. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.3 - Compare and contrast vertebrae from each region of the spinal column. 32. What statement best describes the sacrum? a. Distinguished by the downward pointing spinous process. b. Characterized by the large size and thickness of the vertebral body. c. Formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. d. Formed by the fusion of four small vertebrae. e. Characterized by the very thin vertebral body. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.3 - Compare and contrast vertebrae from each region of the spinal column. 33. What statement best describes the coccyx? a. Distinguished by the downward pointing spinous process. b. Characterized by the large size and thickness of the vertebral body. c. Formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. d. Formed by the fusion of four small vertebrae. e. Characterized by the very thin vertebral body. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.3 - Compare and contrast vertebrae from each region of the spinal column. 34. What do you call the fibrocartilaginous pad that fills the gap between adjacent vertebral bodies? a. cartilaginous pads b. fibropads c. z discs d. vertebral pads e. intervertebral disks ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.4 - Identify and describe the intervertebral joints. 35. The thoracic cage articulates with how many pairs of ribs? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14 e. 16 ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features. 36. What are the three parts of the sternum called? a. upper, middle, and lower sternum b. the body, lateral sides, and extremities. c. the manubrium, body, and sides. d. the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process. e. the interior, exterior, and lateral parts. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features. 37. What statement best describes the manubrium of the sternum? 45. What is the name of the channel tucked along the body of the rib where blood vessels and a nerve are located? a. rib channel b. rib groove c. rib nerve channel d. costal channel e. costal groove ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features. Essay 46. Describe the primary functions of the skeleton and how the human skeleton developed over time. ANSWER: The primary functions of the skeleton are to provide a rigid structure that can support the body’s weight, to attach muscles to produce body movements, and to assist the body in calcium homeostasis. Over generations, humans evolved to walk and run in pursuit of food and to carry objects and perform complex tasks. Therefore, the structure of the lower skeleton is specialized for stability during walking or running and the structure of the upper skeleton has greater mobility and ranges of motion, features that allow you to lift and carry objects or turn your head and trunk. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 8.1 Divisions of theWWSkWe.leTtaBl SyMs.teWmS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.1.1 - Distinguish between the axial and appendicular skeletons and list the major bones contained within each. 47. Discuss the differences in nose shapes among different ethnicities and their adaptation to climates and climate change. ANSWER: Differences in nose shape among different ethnicities are due to adaptations to climates and climate change. One of the main functions of the nasal cavity is to condition the air before it travels to the respiratory tract. As the air swirls around the nasal conchae, it is moistened and warmed. This feature would be of utmost importance if you were breathing in the cold dry air of, for example, Northern Europe, but it would be of much less importance if you were breathing in warm tropical air of, for example, the Philippines. Homo sapiens first evolved in the hot climates of Africa, and then slowly migrated around the world, adapting to their environments as they evolved over hundreds of thousands of years. Remains of early humans and related species indicate that humans had shorter, wider nostrils. Groups of humans from hotter, more humid climates kept this nose shape, but some humans who migrated to colder climates slowly evolved longer, narrower nostrils. It is likely that these longer noses provided an advantage in colder climates. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.4 - Describe the changes to the skull throughout development and aging. 48. Describe how the skull bones develop during embryonic development. ANSWER: During embryonic development, the skull bones develop in two different ways. The flat bones of the top and sides of the cranium develop through intramembranous ossification, while some facial bones and some bones at the base of the skull develop through endochondral ossification. Early in embryonic development, the brain is shielded by just a sheet (or membrane) of connective tissue. Throughout the fetal period, islands of bone develop within this sheet, eventually forming an incomplete cranial shell at the time of birth. At birth, the bones of the fetal skull remain separated from each other by large areas of dense connective tissue, each of which is called a fontanelle. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.4 - Describe the changes to the skull throughout development and aging. 49. Describe the sutures of the skull and unique structure of their articulations. ANSWER: The skull is a patchwork of bones, joined by immobile joints called sutures. The narrow gap between the bones is filled with dense, fibrous connective tissue that unites the bones. The long sutures located between the bones of the brain case are not straight, but instead follow irregular, tightly twisting paths. These twisting lines serve to tightly interlock the adjacent bones, thus adding strength to the skull for brain protection. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features. 50. Explain the location of the occipital bone and its function. ANSWER: The occipital bone forms the back, or the posterior aspect, of the cranium. From an inferior view, the occipital bone comprises much of the base of the skull and has the large foramen magnum through which the spinal cord passes. The occipital bone articulates with the first vertebra, the atlas (C1). DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features. Chapter 09 - The Appendicular Skeleton Multiple Choice 1. What statement best describes the clavicle? a. An S-shaped bone that connects the sternum to the scapula. b. A flat, triangular-shaped bone with a prominent ridge. c. A posterior bone that articulates with the thoracic vertebrae to stabilize the upper limb. d. A small anterior bone that does not articulate with any other bone. e. The principal stabilizing bone for the shoulder. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.1 - Identify the bones and bone features of the shoulder girdle. 2. What statement best describes the scapula? a. An S-shaped bone that connects the sternum to the shoulder. b. A flat, triangular-shaped bone with a prominent ridge. c. A posterior bone that articulates with the thoracic vertebrae to stabilize the upper limb. d. A small anterior bone that does not articulate with any other bone. e. The anterior bone that is the principal stabilizing bone for the shoulder. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder WGWirdWle.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.1 - Identify the bones and bone features of the shoulder girdle. 3. What statement best describes the acromioclavicular joint? a. The articulation between the clavicle and the sternum. b. The articulation between the clavicle and the scapula. c. The point, or tip, of the shoulder. d. The articulation between the scapula and the humerus. e. The only articulation within the upper limb that is immovable. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.1 - Identify the bones and bone features of the shoulder girdle. 4. What statement best describes the shoulder girdle? a. The bones of the upper limb, including the humerus, radius, and ulna. b. The place where the upper limb attaches to the trunk, the bones include the scapula and the humerus. c. The articulation between the sternum and the clavicle. d. The place where the upper limb attaches to the trunk, the bones include the clavicle and scapula. e. The point, or tip, of the shoulder. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle