TEST BANK FOR HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY ( LATEST AND BEST STUDY GUIDE ) 2024 EDITION WITH ANSWERS, Exams of Human Physiology

Download TEST BANK FOR HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY ( LATEST AND BEST STUDY GUIDE ) 2024 EDITION WITH ANSWERS and more Exams Human Physiology in PDF only on Docsity! TEST BANK FOR HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY ( LATEST AND BEST STUDY GUIDE ) 2024 EDITION WITH ANSWERS / BEST FOR REVISION/ ALL BUNDLED TO BOOST AND EASE YOUR STUDY/ VERIFIED BY EXPERTS 1) The circulatory system helps to maintain normal body temperature. True or False - ANSWER TRUE 2) Transportation functions of the circulatory system include ________. A) carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide B) carrying metabolic waste C) carrying leukocytes D) carrying absorbed products of digestion E) All of the choices are correct. - ANSWER E 3) The circulatory system is able to provide regulation of other body systems by circulating ________. A) clotting B) hormones C) immunity D) blood gases - ANSWER B 4) How does the circulatory system function in a protective role in the body? A) Prevents blood loss through clotting B) Leukocytes fight infection C) Delivers leukocytes to areas of inflammation and infection D) All of the choices are correct. - ANSWER D 5) Interstitial fluid is derived from ________. A) lymph B) cells C) plasma D) formed elements - ANSWER C 6) Arteries usually carry oxygen-rich blood toward the heart. True or False - ANSWER FALSE 7) The "buffy coat" is made up of thrombocytes and leukocytes. True or False - ANSWER TRUE 8) I Damage to capillaries would prevent cells from exchanging gases and nutrients with one another. True or False - ANSWER FALSE 9) Dark red colored blood would be found in the ________, traveling to the ________. A) arteries; heart B) veins; heart C) heart; veins D) capillaries; arteries - ANSWER B 10) How much blood does the average-sized adult have? A) 2 liters B) 4 liters A) globin B) fibrinogen C) transferrin D) albumin - ANSWER C 22) A patient has a large portion of his stomach removed during a weight reduction surgery. Following this procedure, he experiences fatigue and is short of breath upon exertion. His surgery most likely resulted in ________. A) iron-deficiency anemia B) pernicious anemia C) aplastic anemia D) leukemia - ANSWER B 23) Polycythemia would be induced by ________ in the blood. A) decreased oxygen B) increased oxygen C) decreased carbon dioxide D) increased infection - ANSWER A 24) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of white blood cells? A) Have nuclei and mitochondria B) Have amoeboid movement C) Can leave blood vessels D) Make up the major formed element - ANSWER D 25) The most common type of anemia is ________. A) polycythemia B) pernicious anemia C) iron-deficiency anemia D) aplastic anemia - ANSWER C 26) The most abundant leukocytes in the blood are the ________. A) eosinophils B) basophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes - ANSWER C 27) Which of the following is NOT a granulocyte? A) Neutrophil B) Eosinophil C) Monocyte D) Basophil - ANSWER C 28) Which of the following cells produces antibodies? A) Monocyte B) Plasma cell C) Basophil D) Neutrophil - ANSWER B 29) Blood would clot more slowly in an individual with 100,000 platelets/mm3. True or False - ANSWER TRUE 30) Leukocytes secrete serotonin, which will reduce the loss of blood. True or False - ANSWER FALSE 31) The development of ________ would be inhibited if the actions of granulocyte colony stimulating factor were blocked. A) thrombocytes B) neutrophils C) erythrocytes D) lymphocytes - ANSWER B 32) The process of blood cell formation is ________. A) leukocytosis B) polycythemia C) hematopoiesis D) hemogenesis - ANSWER C 33) What is the major hematopoietic organ in the fetus? A) Liver B) Spleen C) Red bone marrow D) Kidneys - ANSWER A 34) Which organ secretes erythropoietin? A) Kidneys B) Liver C) Bone marrow D) Lungs - ANSWER A 35) What is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin? A) Low RBC count B) Decreased blood oxygen levels C) Low amount of hemoglobin D) All of the choices are correct. - ANSWER D 36) What substances are needed to produce red blood cells? A) Vitamin B12 B) Prostacyclin C) von Willebrand factor D) CD39 - ANSWER C 47) Which of the following stimulates the formation of the platelet plug? A) von Willebrand's factor B) ADP C) Thromboxane A2 D) All of the choices are correct. - ANSWER D 48) The platelet release reaction is initiated by platelets binding to exposed collagen in a broken membrane. True or False - ANSWER TRUE 49) Damage to tissues stimulates the activation of the ________ pathway. A) complement B) hemophilic C) intrinsic D) extrinsic - ANSWER D 50) What ion is necessary for the clotting process? A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca2+ D) Mg2+ - ANSWER C 51) What is the role of serotonin in blood clotting? A) Causes platelets to become sticky B) Enhances the platelet release reaction C) Causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels to slow loss of blood D) Converts fibrinogen to fibrin - ANSWER C 52) Hemophilia is ________. A) an X-linked trait B) more prevalent in women C) results in excessive blood clots D) All of the choices are correct. - ANSWER A 53) Aspirin inhibits blood clotting by directly preventing ________. A) thrombin formation B) platelet plug formation C) fibrin formation D) clot retraction - ANSWER B 54) The final protein that forms a blood clot is ________. A) fibrin B) thrombin C) thromboplastin D) plasmin - ANSWER A 55) Both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways activate factors that ________. A) convert prothrombin to thrombin B) convert fibrinogen to fibrin C) convert plasminogen to plasmin D) None of the choices are correct. - ANSWER A 56) What is the enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin? A) Prothrombin B) Thrombin C) Thromboplastin D) Plasmin - ANSWER B 57) Kallikrein is responsible for ________. A) clot dissolution B) serum production C) platelet plug formation D) fibrin formation - ANSWER A 58) Vitamin K is needed for ________. A) proper clotting factor function B) directly activating fibrinogen C) directly stabilizing the fibrin polymer D) activating antithrombin III - ANSWER A 59) Which anticoagulant and its action is NOT correctly matched? A) Aspirin—inhibits prostaglandin production and platelet aggregation B) Heparin—inhibits action of thrombin C) Coumadin—inhibits tissue thromboplastin D) Citrate—combines with calcium to prevent its function with clotting factors - ANSWER C 60) The pulmonary veins return oxygen depleted blood to the right atrium. - ANSWER FALSE 61) The pathway of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is the ________ circulation. A) cardiac B) systemic C) pulmonary D) pleural - ANSWER C D) flappy - ANSWER C 74) Systole refers to the ________ of the ventricles, when pressure is ________. A) relaxation; lowest B) filling; highest C) contraction; highest D) blood flow; lowest - ANSWER C 75) Increasing the time that the heart spends in diastole has the potential to increase stroke volume. True or False - ANSWER TRUE 76) What causes the semilunar valves to close? A) Higher pressure in the ventricles than in the atria B) Higher pressure in the aorta and pulmonary trunk than in the ventricles C) Higher pressure in the atria than in the ventricles D) Higher pressure in the ventricles than aorta and pulmonary trunk - ANSWER B 77) What occurs when the pressure in the ventricles drops below the pressure of the atria? A) AV valves open B) AV valves close C) SL valves open D) SL valves close - ANSWER A 78) The ventricles completely empty when they contract in systole. True or False - ANSWER FALSE 79) A medication that blocks the calcium channels in the heart muscle would cause a decrease in heart rate. True or False - ANSWER TRUE 80) Cardiac ________ channels are called hyperpolarization cyclic nucleotide (HCN) channels because they open in response to hyperpolarization. A) atrial B) Purkinje C) pacemaker D) ventricular - ANSWER C 81) The myocardium acts as a single unit called a(n) ________. A) multi-unit muscle B) pacemaker C) isoelectric unit D) functional syncytium - ANSWER D 82) What part of the heart's conduction system acts as the primary pacemaker? A) SA node B) AV node C) Bundle of His D) Purkinje fibers - ANSWER A 83) The action potential of cardiac pacemaker cells is caused by ________. A) inward diffusion of Na+ B) inward diffusion of Ca2+ C) inward diffusion of K+ D) outward diffusion of K+ - ANSWER B 84) The action potential of non-pacemaker cells is due to the ________. A) inward diffusion of Na+ B) inward diffusion of Ca2+ C) inward diffusion of K+ D) outward diffusion of K+ - ANSWER A 85) The ________ conducts impulses from the AV node to the bundle branches, which lead to the Purkinje fibers. A) AV valve B) ventricular septum C) AV bundle D) SA node - ANSWER C 86) Digitalis leads to increased intracellular calcium concentrations. This will create ________ myocardial contractions. A) slower B) stronger C) weaker D) None of the choices are correct. - ANSWER B 87) The ________ are the last part of the electrical conducting system of the heart. A) SA node B) AV bundle C) Bundle of His D) Purkinje fibers - ANSWER D 88) Ca2+ release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the heart are opened by an increase in Ca2+ in the cytoplasm. This is referred to as ________. A) calcium-induced fibrillation B) calcium-stimulated depolarization C) calcium-stimulated calcium release D) calcium-induced repolarization - ANSWER C 89) Myocardial cells exhibit a plateau phase instead of quickly repolarizing. This is due to ________. A) inward diffusion of calcium through slow Ca2+ channels B) inward diffusion of sodium through fast Na+ channels D) Tunica interna - ANSWER A 101) Which vessels are most important for controlling resistance to blood flow? A) Elastic arteries B) Venules C) Capillaries D) Arterioles - ANSWER D 102) All blood vessels are lined with ________. A) the tunica externa B) smooth muscle C) endothelial cells D) elastin - ANSWER C 103) Which capillaries have wide intercellular pores that serve as a basement membrane over the capillary endothelium for increased filtration? A) True B) Continuous C) Fenestrated D) Discontinuous - ANSWER C 104) Within the blood vessels, valves are found in the ________. A) arteries B) capillaries C) arterioles D) veins - ANSWER D 105) Choose the incorrect statement regarding blood vessels. A) Arteries contain more muscle than veins. B) Smooth muscle surrounds capillaries. C) Valves are found in veins but not arteries. D) Discontinuous capillaries create sinusoids. - ANSWER B 106) Varicose veins can be caused by ________. A) compression of abdominal aorta by a fetus during pregnancy B) stiffened venous valves C) excessive venous congestion D) All of the choices are correct. - ANSWER C 107) Hypoxia may stimulate new blood vessel growth. True or False - ANSWER TRUE 108) Most of the circulating blood can be found in ________. A) veins B) capillaries C) arterioles D) arteries - ANSWER A 109) The first anatomical change associated with atherosclerosis is the appearance of ________. A) monocytes B) blood clots C) fatty streaks D) fibroblasts - ANSWER C 110) Ischemic heart disease causes ________ on the ECG. A) no P wave B) no QRS complex C) S-T depression D) inverted P waves - ANSWER C 111) The structure of a ________ includes a core of nonpolar triglycerides and cholesterol esters coated by proteins, phospholipids, and some free cholesterol. A) lipoprotein B) glycoprotein C) nucleic acid D) prostaglandin - ANSWER A 112) Choose the correct statement regarding atherosclerosis. A) It is most likely an inflammatory disease. B) Blood C-reactive protein levels are better predictors than LDL cholesterol levels. C) Antioxidants may be used to prevent or treat it. D) All of the choices are correct. - ANSWER D 113) Oxidation of low-density lipoproteins causes ________. A) fatty streak appearance B) increased hepatic uptake of fats C) monocyte conversion D) increased LDL receptor synthesis - ANSWER C 114) The possibility of an individual developing ischemic heart disease is ________. A) decreased by increasing exercise B) unaffected by smoking cessation C) decreased by diets containing 50% fat D) increased by diets low in saturated fat - ANSWER A 115) In order to be effective against high cholesterol, statins must ________. A) inhibit HMG-coenzyme A reductase B) stimulate proconvertin D) subclavian duct - ANSWER C 126) The lymphatic system can help cancer cells ________ since cancer cells may enter, circulate, and later exit porous lymphatic capillaries. A) mutate B) revert to normal cells C) metastasize D) die off - ANSWER C 127) Functions of the lymphatic system include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) transport of interstitial fluid B) transport of absorbed fat C) providing immunological defense D) transport of absorbed peptides - ANSWER D 128) Which of the following is a difference between veins and lymphatic vessels? A) Three layers of cells B) Valves C) Lymph nodes D) Peristaltic waves of contraction - ANSWER C 129) Lymphatic vessels form a complete, closed circuit around the body. True or False - ANSWER FALSE 130) Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic organ? A) Tonsils B) Lymph nodes C) Thymus D) Spleen - ANSWER B 131) An elite marathon runner would likely benefit from increased oxygen carrying capacity in the blood from the use of ________, which would serve to ________. A) hepcidin; increase leukopoiesis B) erythropoietin; increase red blood cell formation C) granulocyte colony-stimulating factor; erythrocyte production D) thrombopoietin; increase megakaryocyte production - ANSWER B 132) Which of the following could explain a gradual decrease in erythropoietin (EPO) levels? A) An inactive person beginning an exercise program B) A patient with acute kidney disease C) An endurance athlete traveling from sea level to the mountains for a month of training D) A patient in recovery from surgery with substantial blood loss - ANSWER B 133) A patient demonstrates symptoms of consistent fatigue and lethargy with low blood pressure and elevated heart rate. Which of the following represents a correctly matched disease and cause that might be responsible for his condition? A) Thrombocytosis; low dietary intakes of iron B) Pernicious anemia; damage to the lining of the stomach C) Leukocytosis; acute bacterial infection D) Polycythemia; damage to bone marrow - ANSWER B 134) The presence of both type-B antibodies and type-B antigens are to agglutination as ________ is to ________. A) hemostasis; clotting B) vascular damage; hemostasis C) fibrin; fibrinogen D) coagulation; hemophilia - ANSWER B 135) What does it mean to be a universal recipient? A person with the blood type known as the universal recipient ________. A) has type-O blood, which contains A and B antibodies B) lacks the ability to produce antibodies for any donor blood type C) has type-AB blood, which contains A and B agglutinins D) expresses O agglutinogens along with A and B antibodies - ANSWER B 136) In comparing the pulmonary and systemic circulations, the pulmonary circuit ________. A) sends blood to the lungs, is involved with oxygenating blood, and involves the generation of much larger pressures B) sends blood to the lungs, is involved with oxygenating blood, and involves much lower overall resistance to flow C) sends blood throughout the body, is involved with decreasing blood carbon dioxide levels, and involves much lower overall resistance to flow D) sends blood throughout the body, is involved with deoxygenating blood, and involves the generation of smaller pressures - ANSWER B 137) The pulmonary semilunar valve is to the right ventricle as the ________ is to the ________. A) mitral valve; pulmonary vein B) tricuspid valve; right atrium C) aortic valve; aorta D) right atrioventricular valve; left ventricle - ANSWER B 138) The ________ of the heart are involved with ________. A) atria; ejecting blood from the heart B) lower chambers; moving blood into major arteries C) upper chambers; receiving deoxygenated blood D) left side; circulating blood high in carbon dioxide and low in oxygen - ANSWER B 139) Following musculoskeletal surgery on the lower extremity, oftentimes a return to ambulation (walking) is prescribed as soon as possible to reduce edema. Why? A) Promotes the inflammatory response and thus speeds healing Recent discovery of taste receptors - ANSWER Illustrates that new discoveries about anatomy and physiology are still being made. Organelles characteristics - ANSWER They carry out specific activities and are found in many types of cells. Increasing levels of complexity - ANSWER Illustrated by the sequence: Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems. Basic unit of structure and function in organisms - ANSWER The cell. Formation of tissues - ANSWER Specialized cell types organized to provide a specific function form tissues. Example of simple squamous epithelium - ANSWER An example of the tissue organizational level. Assimilation - ANSWER The changing of absorbed substances into different chemical forms. Responsiveness - ANSWER The ability of an organism to sense and react to changes in its body. Excretion - ANSWER The process defined as the removal of wastes. Homeostasis - ANSWER The maintenance of stable internal conditions. Positive feedback mechanism - ANSWER An example is shivering when body temperature falls below normal. Negative feedback mechanism - ANSWER Typically required to maintain a stable internal environment. Platelets - ANSWER Blood components that attach to broken blood vessel walls to form plugs. Nitrogen - ANSWER A chemical element (N) essential for life found in proteins and nucleic acids. Wastes - ANSWER Substances eliminated from the body that are not useful for metabolic processes. Carbondioxide - ANSWER A colorless, odorless gas produced by burning carbon and organic compounds. Negative feedback mechanisms - ANSWER Processes that act to reverse the direction of a change in a physiological system. Abdominopelvic cavity - ANSWER The space in the body containing the abdominal and pelvic organs. Pneumothorax - ANSWER A condition where air fills the space between the lung and chest wall, causing lung collapse. Digestive system - ANSWER The organ system responsible for breaking down and absorbing nutrients from food. Thoracic cavity - ANSWER The space in the body containing the heart and lungs. Female reproductive system - ANSWER The system responsible for producing eggs and supporting fetal development in females. Blood cells - ANSWER Cells produced in the organs of the hematopoietic system, such as the bone marrow. endocrine - ANSWER Relating to glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. skeletal - ANSWER Relating to the framework of bones that supports the body. respiratory - ANSWER Relating to the system responsible for breathing and gas exchange. muscular - ANSWER Relating to the system of muscles in the body. parietal layer of a serous membrane - ANSWER Covers cavities. visceral layer of a serous membrane - ANSWER Lines organs. cell death first occur - ANSWER During fetal development. causes wrinkling and sagging of the skin - ANSWER Loss of subcutaneous fat, elastin, and collagen. characteristic that many centenarians share - ANSWER They have long-lived relatives. type of section used to visualize lungs and urinary bladder - ANSWER Transverse. upper midportion of the abdomen - ANSWER Epigastric region. anatomical term indicating a structure close to the surface - ANSWER Superficial. structures visualized using ultrasonography - ANSWER Soft internal structures, such as fetuses. Magnetic resonance imaging uses - ANSWER Radio waves. origin(s) of many terms in anatomy and physiology - ANSWER Greek and Latin. level of organization skin belongs to - ANSWER Organ level. most abundant chemical in the body - ANSWER Water.