Test Bank For Vander’s Human Physiology 14th Edition (complete) | A Descriptive Test Bank, Exams of Chemistry

Download Test Bank For Vander’s Human Physiology 14th Edition (complete) | A Descriptive Test Bank and more Exams Chemistry in PDF only on Docsity! MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS in CHEMISTRY 1. What are found in the nucleus of an atom? A. Eledctrions and Protons B. Protons and Neutrons C. Cations and Anions D. Electrons and Neutrons 2. What is the negatively charged particle of an atom? A. Electrons B. Protons C. Neutron D. Molecule 3. What is the positively charged particle of an atom? A. Electrons B. Protons C. Neutron D. Molecule 4. What is the particle of an atom that has no electrical charge? A. Electrons B. Protons C. Neutron D. Molecule 5. The word “atom” comes from Greek “Atomos” which means what? A. Extremely Small B. Invisible C. Indivisible D. Microscopic 6. Who was the first person to propose that atoms have weights? A. Ernest Rutherford B. Democritus C. John Dalton D. Joseph John Thomson 7. Who discovered the electron? A. Joseph John Thomson B. John Dalton C. Humphrey Davy D. Ernest Rutherford 8. Who discovered the proton? A. Eugene Goldstein B. Pierre Curie C. Ernest Rutherford D. Michael Faraday 9. Who discovered the neutron? A. James Chadwick B. Eugene Goldstein C. Niels Bohr D. Julius Lothar Meyer 10. What is anything that occupies space and has mass? A. Element B. Ion C. Matter D. Molecule 11. All forms of matter are composed of the same building blocks called . A. molecules B. atom C. elements D. ions 12. How are substances classified? A. Elements or Compounds B. Metals or Non-metals C. Acids or Bases D. Homogeneous or Heterogeneous 13. What is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances? A. Ion B. Atom C. Molecule D. Element 14. What is the result from the combination, in definite proportion of mass, of two or more elements? A. Mixture B. Compound C. Substance D. Chemical Reaction 15. How are mixtures classified? A. Elements or Compounds B. Metals, Nonmetals or Metalloids C. Homogeneous or Heterogeneous D. Suspension, Colloids or Solutions 16. The mixture of soil and water is an example of what classification of a mixture? A. Homogeneous B. Suspension C. Colloid D. Solution 17. A very fine particle of soil when mixed to water will form a cloudy mixture. How is this mixture classified? A. Colloid B. Suspension C. Solution D. Compound 18. The particles of sugar dispersed in water are so small that a clear homogeneous mixture. What is this homogeneous mixture called? A. Colloid B. Compound C. Suspension D. Solution 19. How are elements classified? A. Metals, Nonmetals or Metalloids B. Homogeneous or Heterogeneous C. Suspension, Colloid, Solution D. Quarks, Solids or Liquids 20. What are the three states of matter? A. Solid, Liquid and Gas B. Metals, Nonmetals and Metalloids C. Suspension, Colloid and Solution D. Quarks, Photons and Quasar 21. Compounds are mostly classified as: A. Homogeneous and Heterogeneous B. Acids and Bases C. Gases, Liquids and Solids D. Metals and Nonmetals 22. What is the property of metals that allow them to be rolled without breaking? A. Ductility B. Malleability C. Luster D. Elasticity 23. What is the property of metals that reflects the light that strikes their surfaces, making them appear shiny? A. Malleability B. Ductility C. Luster D. Plasticity 24. Which of the following is NOT a property of metals? A. Metals are neither malleable nor ductile. B. Metals have high thermal conductivity. C. Metals have high electrical conductivity. D. Metals have more luster. 25. What are elements that have properties intermediate between metals and nonmetals? A. Gases B. Solids C. Liquids D. Metalloids 26. Which of the following is NOT a property of acids? A. Taste sour B. Feel slippery on the skin C. Turn litmus paper to red D. Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas 27. Which of the following is NOT a property of bases? A. Feel slippery on the skin B. Turn litmus paper to blue C. Taste bitter D. Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas 28. An acid can react with base to produce a . A. hydrogen gas B. salt C. oxide D. hydroxide 29. Vinegar is a solution of water and what kind of acid? A. Phosphoric acid B. Sulfuric acid C. Nitric acid D. Acetic acid 30. What acid is added to carbonated drinks to produce a tart test? A. Citric acid B. Phosphoric acid C. Sulfuric acid D. Nitric acid 31. Table salt or sodium chloride may be formed by the reaction of: A. Hydrochloric acid and sodium bicarbonate B. Sodium and chlorine C. Hydrochloric acid and sodium carbonate D. Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide 32. What occurs when a substance is transformed into another substance with a totally different composition and properties? A. Physical change B. Chemical change C. Catalyst D. Chemical reaction 33. What occurs when a substance changes it appearance without changing its composition? A. Chemical reaction B. Chemical change C. Physical change D. Catalyst 34. What is another term for “chemical change”? A. Chemical reaction B. Phase change C. State change D. Composition change 35. A material is said to be if its composition and properties are uniform throughout. A. homogeneous B. heterogeneous C. pure substance D. pure compound 36. A material is said to be if its composition and properties are not uniform throughout. A. Un-pure B. homogeneous C. heterogeneous D. malicable 37. The properties of a material that changes when the amount of substance changes are called properties. A. intensive B. extensive C. physical D. chemical 38. The properties of a material that do not change when the amount of substance changes are called properties. A. intensive B. extensive C. chemical D. physical 39. Which of the following is NOT an intensive property of a material? A. Color B. Surface area C. Melting point D. Taste 40. Which of the following is NOT an extensive property of a material? A. Length B. Volume C. Density D. Weight 41. “When two or more elements form more than one compound, the ratio of the masses of one element that combine with a given mass of another element in the different compounds is the ratio of small whole numbers.” This statement is known as: A. Graham’ Law of diffusion B. The uncertainty principle C. Law of definite proportion D. Law of multiple proportion 42. “The masses of elements in a pure compound are always in the same proportion.” This statement is known as A. Law of multiple proportion B. Law of definite proportion C. The periodic law D. Dalton’s atomic theory 43. Who formulated the atomic theory? A. John Dalton B. Humphrey Davy C. Henri Becquerel D. Ernest Rutherford 44. Who revised the atomic theory by replacing the hard, indestructible spheres imagined by Dalton and proposed the “raisin bread model” of the atom? A. Pierre Curie B. Robert Andrews Millikan C. Joseph John Thomson D. Humphrey Davy 45. How does Joseph John Thomson call his model of the atom? A. Orbital model B. Planetary model C. Radioactive model D. Plum-pudding model 46. The discovery of radioactivity further confirms the existence of subatomic particles. Who discovered radioactivity? A. Henri Becquerel B. Marie Curie C. Pierre Curie D. Niels Bohr 47. What is the common unit used to indicate the mass of a particle? A. Atomic mass unit (amu) B. Charge unit C. Coulomb D. Gram 48. What is the unit for a charge of a particle? A. Coulomb B. Charge unit C. Atomic mass unit D. Lepton 49. What is the charge of an electron in coulomb? A. -1.70217733 x 10^-19 B. -1.60217733 x 10^-19 C. -1.50217733 x 10^-19 D. -1.40217733 x 10^-19 50. What is the charge of an electron in charge unit? A. 0 B. 1 + C. 1 – D. 0 – 51. What is the charge of a proton in coulombs? A. + 1.70217733 x 10^-19 B. + 1.60217733 x 10^-19 C. + 1.50217733 x 10^-19 D. + 1.40217733 x 10^-19 104. What element is used in advertising signs? A. Neon B. Helium C. Sodium D. Xenon 105. What principle states about the fundamental limitation that, for a particle as small as the electron, one cannot know exactly where it is and at the same time know its energy how it is moving? A. Autbau principle B. Uncertainty principle C. Pauli exclusion principle D. Kinetic molecular theory 106. Who discovered the uncertainty principle? A. Werner Karl Heisenberg principle? B. Louie de Broglie C. Albert Einstein D. John Newlands 107. What principle states that the electrons fill the orbitals, one at a time, starting with the lowest orbital then proceeding to the one with higher energy? A. Autbau principle B. Uncertainty principle C. Pauli exclusion principle D. Kinetic molecular theory 108. What principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers? A. Autbau principle B. Uncertainty principle C. Pauli exclusion principle D. Kinetic molecular theory 109. What describes how the electrons and distributed among the orbitals? A. Electronegativity of the element B. Electron configuration of an atom C. Energy state of the atom D. Pauli exclusion principle 110. The of the atom describes the atom as having a nucleus at the center around which electrons move? A. spin number B. quantum mechanical model C. quantum number D. azimuthal number 111. What are the main energy levels where the valence electrons belong called? A. Valence shells B. Azimuthal shells C. Spin shells D. Quantum shells 112. The elements of groups IA, IIA, IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA, VIIA and VIIIA are called main group elements or A. transition B. representatives C. inner transitions D. metals or nonmetals 113. For the representative elements, the number of valence electrons is the same as A. number of electrons B. number of neutrons C. the rightmost digit of the group number of the element D. number of electrons less the number of neutrons 114. For transition elements, the number of valence electron is the same as . A. the group number B. the rightmost digit of the group number of the element C. the number of electrons less the number of neutrons D. the number of electrons less the number of protons 115. The size of the atom is dependent on which of the following: A. the size of the nucleus B. the region of space occupied by its electrons C. the number of protons and neutrons D. all of the choices above 116. What happens to the atomic size of the elements in a group when you go from top to bottom of the group? A. It remains the same B. It increases C. It decreases D. It become zero 117. Who first predicted the Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC) in 1924? A. Albert Einstein B. Satyendra Nath Bose C. Carl Wieman D. Wollgang Ketterie 118. The ionization energy is to the atomic size of atom. A. directly proportional B. inversely proportional C. equal to D. not related 119. What refers to the measure of the atom’s tendency to attract an additional electron? A. Period number B. Electron affinity C. Ionization energy D. Electronegativity 120. The process of gaining or losing an electron results to the formation of a charged atom or molecule called . A. ion B. cation C. anion D. crystal 121. Aside from liquid, gas and solid, there are two other states of matter. A. Plasma and Quark B. Quartz and Plasma C. Quartz and Quasar D. Plasma and Bose-Einstein condensate 122. Who first identified plasma in 1879? A. William Crookes B. Irving Langmuir C. Albert Einstein D. Eric Cornell 123. Who coined the term “plasma” in 1928? A. William Crookes B. Irving Langmuir C. Albert Einstein D. Eric Cornell 124. What is made of gas atoms that have been cooled to near absolute zero at which temperature the atoms slow down, combine and forms a single entity known called a superatom? A. Ionized gas B. Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC) C. Plasma D. Quark 125. The fifth state of matter, the BEC (Bose-Einstein condensate) was first created in what year? A. 1992 B. 1993 C. 1994 D. 1995 126. What is a high-energy, electrically charged gas produced by heating the gas until the electrons in the outer orbitals of the atoms separate, leaving the atoms with a positive charge? A. Quartz B. Quark C. BEC D. Plasma 127. Water has bigger density when it is in what state? A. Liquid B. Gas C. Solid D. Vapor 128. What is the temperature of water in solid state at 1 atm? A. 40C B. 250C C. 00C D. 50C 129. The density of water is the largest at what temperature? A. 20C B. 10C C. 30C D. 40C 130. What element has a very high melting point and ideal for filaments of light bulbs? A. Barium B. Aluminum C. Tungsten D. Titanium 131. Metals can be drawn into wires. This illustrates what property of metals? A. Malleability B. Ductility C. Rigidity D. Plasticity 132. Steel is the widely used construction material because of its high tensile strength. It is a combination of what element? A. Iron and carbon B. Iron and aluminum C. Lead and carbon D. Lead and aluminum 133. What refers to the electrostatic attraction that holds together the oppositely charged ions, the cations and anions, in the solid compound? A. Electronic bond B. Metallic bond C. Covalent bond D. Ionic bond 134. What states that atoms tend to gain, lose or share electrons until they are surrounded by eight valence electrons? A. Figure of 8 rule B. Octet rule C. Ionic rule D. Lewis rule 135. What indicates the number of valence electrons to the atom represented by dots scattedred on four sides of the atomic symbol? A. Electron dot structure B. Lewis structure C. Crystalline structure D. Electron dot structure or Lewis structure 136. What is formed by sharing of electrons between atom? A. Covalent bond B. Ionic bond C. Metallic bond D. Electronic band 137. What is the distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms called? A. Bond length B. Molecular length C. Atomic distance D. Atomic radius 138. The overall shape of a molecule is described by which two properties? A. Bond distance and bond size B. Bond distance and bond angle C. Bond radius and bond angle D. Bond angle and bond size 139. What is an angle made by the lines joining the nuclei of the atoms in the molecule? A. Atomic angle B. Bond angle C. Molecular angle D. Ionic angle 140. “The best arrangement of a given number of shared and unshared electrons is the one that minimizes the repulsion among them”. This is known as . A. valence bond theory B. electron group theory C. molecular polarity theory D. valence-shell electron-pair repulsion theory 141. “A covalent bond is formed by the overlap of atomic orbitals.” This statement is the basic idea of which theory? A. Valence bond theory B. Energy group theory C. Molecular polarity theory D. Valence-shell electron-pair repulsion (VSPER) theory 142. What refers to the ability of an atom in a molecule to attract shared electrons? A. Electronegativity B. Electron affinity C. Ionization energy D. Periodic number 143. What type of bond occurs when the difference in electronegativity is greater than or equal to 2? A. Ionic B. Nonpolar covalent C. Polar covalent D. Either nonpolar covalent or polar covalent 144. Nonpolar covalent bond occurs if the difference in electronegativity ranges from: A. 0.00 to 0.40 B. 0.50 to 1.90 C. 1.90 to 2.00 D. 2.00 and up 145. When can we say that a molecule is polar? A. When the centers of positive and negative charge do not coincide B. When the centers of positive and negative charge coincide C. When there is no positive nor negative charge D. When there is only one charge, either negative or negative 146. What is the sum of the masses of the atoms in the molecule of the substance called? A. Atomic mass B. Molecular mass C. Formula mass D. Atomic weight 147. What refers to the number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12? A. Avogadro’s number B. Mole C. Molar mass D. amu 148. Which one is the Avogado’s number? A. 6.20 x 10^23 B. 6.62 x 10^23 C. 6.32 x 10^23 D. 6.22 x 10^23 149. What is defined as the amount of substance that contains 6.02 x 1023 particles of that substance? A. Mole B. Molar mass C. Atomic mass D. amu 150. What refers to the mass in grams of one mole of a substance? A. Molar mass B. Molecular mass C. Atomic mass D. Atomic weight 151. What is the unit of molar mass? A. amu B. mole C. grams D. grams per mole 152. “The total pressure of a mixture of gases equals the sum of the partial pressures of each of the gases in the mixture”. This statement is known as . A. Dalton’s law of partial pressure B. Gay-Lusaac law C. Boyle’s law D. Charle’s law 153. The dry air is composed of how many percent nitrogen? A. 73.1% B. 74.4% C. 76.1% D. 78.1% 154. The dry air is composed of how many percent oxygen? A. 20.9% B. 21.2% C. 22.1% D. 23.7% 155. How much carbon dioxide is present in dry air? A. 0.003% B. 0.03% C. 0.3% D. 3% 156. What is the mixing of gases due to molecular motion called? A. Diffusion B. Effusion C. Fission D. Fusion 157. What refers to the passage of molecules of a gas from one container to another through a tiny opening between the containers? A. Diffusion B. Effusion C. Fission D. Fusion 158. The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass. Who discovered this? A. Gilbert Lewis B. John Tyndall C. Robert Brown D. Thomas Graham 159. What law states that the rate of effusion of a gas, which is the amount of gas that through the hole in a given amount of time, is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass? A. Henry’s law B. Graham’s law of effusion C. Hund’s law D. Lewis theory 160. What is a poisonous gas generated mostly by motor vehicles? A. Carbon monoxide B. Carbon dioxide C. Hydroxide D. Nitric acid 161. What is considered as one of the pollutants responsible for among and acid rain? A. Sulfur dioxide B. Nitrogen dioxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Hydroxide 162. What refers to the forces of attraction that exist between molecules in a compound? A. Interaction forces B. Dispersion forces C. Intermolecular forces D. Induction forces 163. All are basic types of van der Waals forces except one. Which one? A. Dipole-dipole interaction B. London dispersion forces C. Heat bonding D. Hydrogen bonding 164. The three types of intermolecular forces exist in neutral molecules are collectively known as van der Waals forces. This is named after . A. Diderick van der Waals B. Derick van der Waals C. Doe van der Waals D. Eric van der Waals 165. A dipole has how many electrically charged pole(s)? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 166. Compounds containing hydrogen and other element are known as . A. Hydroxides B. Hydrides C. Hydros D. Hydrates 167. What is a special kind of dipole- dipole interaction formed when a hydrogen atom bonded to a highly electronegative atom is attracted to the lone pair of a nearby electronegativeatom? A. Hydride bond B. Hydro bond C. Hydrogen bond D. Hydrate bond 168. What is the process of changing from gas state to liquid state? A. Sublimation B. Condensation C. Deposition D. Vaporization 169. What is the process of changing from liquid state to solid state? A. Melting B. Freezing C. Sublimation D. Condensation 170. What is the process of changing fro, liquid state to gas state? A. Vaporization B. Sublimation C. Condensation D. Deposition 171. What is the process of changing from solid state to gas state? A. Vaporization B. Deposition C. Sublimation D. Condensation 172. What is the process of changing from gas state to solid state? A. Deposition B. Vaporization C. Condensation D. Sublimation 173. What is the process of changing from solid state to liquid state? A. Freezing B. Melting C. Condensation D. Vaporization 174. What refers to the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance to change from solid to liquid? A. Molar heat of vaporization B. Molar heat of solidification C. Molar heat of fission D. Molar heat of fusion 175. What refers to the amount of heat released by one mole of a substance when it change from liquid to solid? A. Molar heat of vaporization B. Molar heat of solidification C. Molar heat of fission D. Molar heat of fusion 224. Most cosmetics and ointments and creams used in medicines are . A. emulsions B. gels C. foams D. sols 225. The substance usually used in cleaning toilets bowls and tiles is muriatic acid. What is another term for this? A. Nitric acid B. Sulfuric acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Phosphoric acid 226. “Upon dissociation in water, acids yield hydrogen ions while gases yield hydroxide ions.” What is this statement commonly called? A. Arrhenius theory B. pH concept C. Bronstead-Lowry theory D. Le Chatelier’s principle 227. What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water causes an increase in the concentration of the solvent cation, H3O? A. Lewis acid B. Lewis base C. Arrhenius base D. Arrhenius acid 228. What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water causes an increase in the concentration of the solvent anion, OH? A. Lewis acid B. Lewis base C. Arrhenius base D. Arrhenius acid 229. What is the dissolution constant of water at 250C? A. 1.8 x 10-15 B. 1.8 x 10-16 C. 1.8 x 10-17 D. 1.8 x 10-18 230. What theory states that an acid in any substance that donates a proton to another substance, and a base is any substance that can accept a proton from any other substance? A. Arrhenius theory B. Bronsted-Lowry theory C. Lewis theory D. pH concept 231. What theory states that an acid is a substance that can accept a lone pair from another molecule, and a base is a substance that has a lone pair of electrons? A. Arrhenius theory B. Bronsted-Lowry theory C. Lewis theory D. pH concept 232. An acid described as an electron pair acceptor is the acid. A. Arrhenius B. Pure C. Lewis D. Bronsted-Lowry 233. The Bronsted-Lowry acid is: A. a proton donor B. a proton acceptor C. an electron pair acceptor D. an electron pair donor 234. The Bronsted-Lowry base is: A. a proton donor B. a proton acceptor C. an electron pair acceptor D. an electron pair donor 235. According to Gilbert Lewis an acid- base reaction as the sharing of an electron pair will form what type of bond? A. Coordinate ionic bond B. Coordinate covalent bond C. Coordinate metallic bond D. Coordinate bond 236. What is the type of covalent bond in which the shared electrons are donated by one, not both, of the atoms involved? A. Synchronous covalent bond B. Coordinated covalent bond C. Asynchronous covalent bond D. Translating covalent bond 237. What is the term used for the product of a Lewis acid-base reaction? A. Oxyacids B. Binary acids C. Acibas D. Adduct 238. Acids composed of only two elements; hydrogen and nonmetal are called . A. Binary acids B. Ternary acids C. Oxyacids D. Organic acids 239. What is added to hydrochloride to form hydrochloric acid? A. Oxygen B. Sulfur C. Water D. Carbon 240. Acids consist of three element; hydrogen and two nonmetals are called A. Triacids B. Ternary acids C. Oxyacids D. Organic acids 241. If one of the two nonmetals of a ternary acid is oxygen, the acid is called A. Oxide B. Oxyacid C. Oxide acid D. Acidic acid 242. Which of the following is the formula of sulfuric acid? A. H2SO4 B. H2SO3 C. HNO2 D. HNO3 243. Which of the following is the formula of nitric acid? A. HNO4 B. H2NO3 C. HNO2 D. HNO3 244. What acid is usually used in vinegars? A. Sulfuric acid B. Acetic acid C. Nitric acid D. Carbonic acid 245. What acid is used in glass itching? A. Acetylsalicylic acid B. Hydrofluoric acid C. Phosphoric acid D. Hydrochloric acid 246. What acid is usually present in some fruits? A. Citric acid B. Carbonic acid C. Organic acid D. Nitric acid 247. What acid is used in carbonated drinks? A. Carbonic acid B. Hydrofluoric acid C. Nitric acid D. Citric acid 248. What acid usually used to reduce pain and inflammation such as aspirin and other pain relievers? A. Carbonic acid B. Acetylsalicylic acid C. Sulfuric acid D. Phosphoric acid 249. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of fertilizers? A. Carbonic acid B. Acetylsalicylic acid C. Sulfuric acid D. Phosphoric acid 250. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of explosives? A. Carbonic acid B. Acetylsalicylic acid C. Nitric acid D. Phosphoric acid 251. What acid is used in the batteries of cars or automobiles? A. Carbonic acid B. Acetylsalicylic acid C. Sulfuric acid D. Phosphoric acid 252. Bases are compounds consisting of: A. metal and oxide ion B. nonmetal and oxide ion C. metal and hydroxide ion D. nonmetal and hydroxide ion 253. Which base is used to remove carbon dioxide from air? A. Lithium hydroxide B. Sodium hydroxide C. Aluminum hydroxide D. Magnesium hydroxide 254. What base is used as an antacid with no dosage restriction? A. Magnesium hydroxide B. Sodium hydroxide C. Aluminum hydroxide D. Lithium hydroxide 255. Magnesium hydroxide is a base used as antacid if consumed in small amounts and laxative if consumed in large dosage. What is common term for magnesium hydroxide? A. Skim if Magnesia B. Oil of Magnesia C. Cream of Magnesia D. Milk of Magnesia 256. What is the most convenient way of expressing hydronium ion concentration? A. Hydrometer reading B. pH scale C. Alkalinity D. Basicity 257. Who proposed the pH scale in 1909? A. Albert Einstein B. J. Williard Gibbs C. Henri Hess D. Soren Sorensen 258. What does the symbol pH stands for? A. The power of the hydroxide compound B. The power of the hydroxide ion C. The power of the hydrogen ion D. The power of hydrogen 259. What is the pH of pure water? A. 6.1 B. 6.5 C. 7 D. 7.4 260. Which two substances have the same pH, which is 6.5? A. Saliva and milk B. Orange juice and tomato juice C. Vinegar and calamansi juice D. Urine and apple juice 261. Which is most acidic? A. Vinegar B. Calamansi juice C. Carbonated drink D. Orange juice 262. Which is the best description of strong acids? A. They dissociate or ionize completely in water. B. They don’t dissociate or ionize completely in water. C. They are normally found in vinegars. D. They are the acids that do not contain hydrogen. 263. Which is the best description of weak acids? A. They dissociate or ionize completely in water. B. They don’t dissociate or ionize completely in water. C. They are normally found in hydrogen chloride form. D. They are the acids that not found in vinegars. 264. What is a measure of the H30+ concentration of a solution? A. pH B. pOH C. indicator D. OH- 265. What is a measure of the OH- concentration of a solution? A. pH B. pOH C. Indicator D. H30+ 266. What is the pH of a neutral solution? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 267. Which of the following pH is the most basic? A. pH 8 B. pH 9 C. pH 11 D. pH 13 268. What is the substance that changes color at a certain pH range? A. Litmus paper B. Indicator C. Balancer D. Lichen 269. What refers to the reaction between an acid and a base forming salt and water? A. Neutralization B. Titration C. Hydrolysis D. Buffer 270. What is the process of measuring the concentration of an acid or base in one solution by adding a base or acid solution of known concentration until the acid or base in the solution of unknown concentration is fully neutralized? A. Neutralization B. Titration C. Hydrolysis D. Buffer 271. What refers to the point at which the added base or acid solution in titration is enough to fully neutralize the acid or base? A. Neutral point B. Titrant point C. Central point D. Equivalence point 272. What refers to the reaction between the ions of a salt and the ions of water? A. Salt titration B. Salt buffering C. Salt neutralization D. Salt hydrolysis 273. What is a solution consisting of a weak acid and its conjugate base, or of a weak base and its conjugate aid? A. Seawater B. Salt C. Buffer D. Aqueous solution 274. What is the most common chemical reaction, which is the reaction of materials with oxygen accompanied by the giving off of energy in the form of heat? A. Combustion B. Exothermic reaction C. Endothermic reaction D. Kinetic reaction 275. What is the area of chemistry that concerns with the rate at which chemical reactions occur? A. Chemical collision theory B. Chemical dynamics C. Chemical kinematics D. Chemical kinetics 276. What is the minimum amount of energy need for a chemical reaction to occur called? A. Initial energy B. Activation energy C. Ignition energy D. Catalystic energy 277. If the energy is released as the reaction occurs, it is a reaction. A. instantaneous B. spontaneous C. exothermic D. endothermic 278. If the energy is absorbed during the reaction, it is a reaction. A. instantaneous B. spontaneous C. exothermic D. endothermic 279. What is a substance that, when added to a reaction mixture, increases the rate of the reaction but is itself unchanged after the reaction is done? A. Hydroxide ions B. Accelerations C. Catalyst D. Neutral substance 280. What is a substance that slows down a chemical reaction? A. Inhibitors B. Retardant C. Catalyst D. Decelerators 281. How are catalysts classified? A. Homogeneous and heterogeneous B. Slow and fast C. Pure and composite D. Acidic and basic 282. What type of catalyst exists in the same phase as the reactants in a reaction mixture? A. Homogeneous catalyst B. Heterogeneous catalyst C. Pure catalyst D. Composite catalyst 283. What type of catalyst exists in separate phase as the reactants in the reaction mixture? A. Homogeneous catalyst B. Heterogeneous catalyst C. Pure catalyst D. Composite catalyst 284. Most heterogeneous catalyst are A. liquids B. solids C. gases D. plasma 285. Which one is a factor that affects the rate of chemical reactions? A. Temperature B. Concentration and surface area of reactants C. Presence of a catalyst D. All of the above 286. What refers to the state at which the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal? A. Chemical equilibrium B. Reversible equilibrium C. Reaction equilibrium D. Haber equilibrium 287. What is the study of heat formed or required by the chemical reaction? A. Stoichemistry B. Thermochemistry C. Thermodynamics D. Enthalpy 288. What is the ratio of the equilibrium concentration of the products to the equilibrium concentration reactants with each species concentration raised to the corresponding stoichemistric coefficient found in the balanced reaction? A. Equilibrium constant B. Equilibrium concentration C. Chemical equilibrium D. Reaction quotient 289. What term is used as a qualitative description of the extent of a chemical reaction? A. Equilibrium position B. Chemical equilibrium C. Equilibrium D. Reaction equilibrium 290. What quantity is used to determine how far from equilibrium the chemical reaction is? A. Reaction index B. Chemical quotient C. Equilibrium quotient D. Reaction quotient 291. What states that if a change in conditions is imposed on a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium position will shift in the direction that tends to reduce the effects of that change? A. Hess’ principle B. Catalyst effect C. Haber process principle D. Le Chateller’s principle 292. What refers to the reaction of oxygen with an element or compound? A. Reduction B. Oxidation C. Oxygenation D. Oxygenization 293. The loss of electron by a substance is known as . A. oxidation B. covalent process C. reduction D. ionic process 294. The gain of electrons by a substance is known as . A. oxidation B. covalent process C. reduction D. ionic process 295. What represents the charge that the atom would have if the electrons in each bond belonged entirely to the more electronegative atom? A. Oxidation number B. Atomic number C. Atomic weight D. Electron affinity 296. A reduced substance is what type of agent? A. Oxidizing agent B. Redox agent C. Reducing agent D. Nonredox agent 297. The oxidized substance is what type agent? A. Oxidizing agent B. Redox agent C. Reducing agent D. Nonredox agent 298. What reaction does not involve any change in oxidation number? A. Redox reaction B. Nonredox reaction C. Reducing reaction D. Oxidizing reaction 299. What is an apparatus that uses a spontaneous redox reaction to generate electricity? A. Voltaic cell B. Fuel cell C. Lead cell D. Nickel cadmium cell 300. What is a branch of chemistry which is the study of carbon-containing molecules known as organic compounds? A. Organic chemistry B. Inorganic chemistry C. Stoichemistry D. Biochemistry 350. Which of the following statement is FALSE? A. In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and reform reactants B. At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero C. The different rate is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on volume D. The net rate at which a reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward rate minus the reverse rate 351. What is the opposite of alkali? A. Acid B. Fluid C. Carbon D. Oxide 352. The amount of electricity a battery can produce is controlled by the A. Thickness of the plate B. Plate surface area C. Strength of the acid D. Discharge load 353. What represents the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom? A. Molecular number B. Proton number C. Mass number D. Atomic number 354. The electrolyte is a solution of water and . A. Sulfuric acid B. Uric acid C. Nitric acid D. Formic acid 355. What is deuteron? A. A neutron plus two protons B. A nucleus containing a neutron and a proton C. An electron with a positive charge D. A helium molecules 356. Which of the following elements is NOT radioactive? A. Plutonium B. Californium C. Uranium D. Cobalt 357. The formula for Dinitrogen Pentoxide is: A. N2O5 B. NO3 C. NO D. N3O4 358. One of the following statements is wrong. Which one is it? A. Electron is an elementary quantity of negative electricity B. Proton is an elementary quantity of positive electricity C. An atom is composed of a central nucleus and orbital electrons D. The mass of an electron is heavier than that of a proton 359. What are compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural formula? A. Aldehydes B. Amines C. Isomers D. Esters 360. What is formed when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react, with water as a by-product? A. Amine B. Ester C. Polymer D. Teflon 361. What common carboxylic acid is found in yogurt? A. Lactic acid B. Citric acid C. Tartaric acid D. Lauric acid 362. What carboxylic acid is found in grapes? A. Lactic acid B. Citric acid C. Tartaric acid D. Lauric acid 363. What carboxylic acid is found in coconut oil? A. Lactic acid B. Citric acid C. Tartaric acid D. Lauric acid 364. What do you call the distance pattern in space which the atoms of metal arranged themselves when they combine to produce a substance of recognizable size? A. Space-lattice B. Crystal C. Grain D. Unit cell 365. When a solid has crystalline structure, the atoms arranged in repeating structures called . A. Lattice B. Unit cell C. Crystal D. Domain 366. What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of severe atomic misfit where atoms are not properly surrounded by neighbor atoms? A. Discrystallization B. Dislocation C. Slip step D. Dispersion 367. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a loss of . A. Ion B. Electron C. Proton D. Anode 368. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to a metal? A. Oxidation B. Corrosion C. Reduction D. Ionization 369. Oxidation in an electrochemical cell always takes place where? A. At the anode B. At the cathode C. At the electrode D. At both cathode and anode 370. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where? A. At the anode B. At the cathode C. At the electrode D. At both cathode and anode 371. What is equal to the fraction of the isotope in a naturally occurring sample of the element? A. The chemical atomic weight of the isotope B. The relative abundance of the isotope C. The electromagnetivity of the isotope D. The quantum number of the isotope 372. What refers to salts of weak bases dissolving in water to form acidic solution? A. Hydrolysis B. Neutralization C. Bufferization D. Titration 373. Which of the following elements has the highest atomic number? A. Titanium B. Plutonium C. Uranium D. Radium 374. All are properties of gaseous state except one. Which one? A. May be expanded or may be compressed B. Have low densities C. Indefinite shape D. Mixed uniformly when soluble in one another 375. All are properties of liquid state except one. Which one? A. Do not expand nor compress to any degree B. Usually flow readily C. Indefinite shape but fixed volume D. Do not mix by diffusion 376. What type of hydrocarbons that do not contain the benzene group or the benzene ring? A. Aromatic hydrocarbon B. Aliphatic hydrocarbon C. Simple hydrocarbon D. Carbon hydrocarbon 377. What is an organic compound that contains the hydroxyl group? A. Base B. Acid C. Alcohol D. Wine 378. What is a reaction in which one molecule adds to another? A. Partial reaction B. Monomolecular reaction C. Molecular reaction D. Additional reaction 379. What refers to the minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction? A. Atomic energy B. Activation energy C. Initial energy D. Reaction energy 380. Oxygen comprises what percent in mass in the earth’s crust? A. 50.0 B. 49.5 C. 48.5 D. 47.5 381. What percent of the human body is carbon? A. 22% B. 20% C. 18% D. 16% 382. What refers to how closely a measured value agrees with the correct value? A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Relative precision D. Relative accuracy 383. What refers to how closely individual measurements agree with each other? A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Relative precision D. Relative accuracy 384. What is the physical appearance of sodium? A. Silver metal B. Yellowish metal C. White crystal D. Reddish gas 385. What is the physical appearance of chlorine? A. Silver metal B. White crystal C. Yellowish gas D. White metal 386. What is the physical appearance of sodium chloride? A. Silver metal B. White crystal C. Yellowish gas D. White metal 387. Who proposed the quantum theory in 1900? A. J,J Thomson B. Neils Bohr C. Max Planck D. Ernest Rutherford 388. What is a general term that refers to an allowed energy state for an electron in the atom? A. Quantum orbital level B. Quantum energy level C. Orbital D. Quantum Theory 389. Who performed an experiment in 1887 that yielded the charge-to-mass ratio of the electrons? A. Niels Bohr B. Ernest Rutherford C. J.J Thompson D. Max Planck 390. What is an alloy of mercury with another metal or metals? A. Amalgram B. Amine C. Allotrope D. Alkynes 391. A compound that contains at least one animo group and at least one carboxyl group is called . A. Allotrope B. Animo acid C. Alkenes D. Alkynes 392. A molecular orbit that is of higher energy and lower stability than the atomic orbitals from which it was formed is called A. Main molecular orbital B. Partial molecular orbital C. Bonding molecular orbital D. Anti-bonding molecular orbital 393. A molecular orbit that is of lower energy and greater stability than the atomic orbitals from which it was formed is called A. Main molecular orbital B. Partial molecular orbital C. Bonding molecular orbital D. anti-bonding molecular orbital 394. An ion containing a central metal cation bonded to one or more molecules or ions called . A. Compound ion B. Complex ion C. Simplex ion D. Buffer ion 395. Compounds containing CN ion are called . A. Cyanides B. Cycloalkanes C. Carbides D. Carboxylic acids 396. A molecule that does not possess a dipole moment is called . A. Polar molecule B. Non- polar molecule C. Non-electrolytic molecule D. Electrolytic molecule 397. What refers to a substance that when dissolved in water, gives a solution that is not electrically conducting? A. Non-polar B. Electrolyte C. Non-electrolyte D. Polar 398. What refers to a chemical formula that shows how atoms are bonded to one another in a molecule? A. Molecular formula B. Structural formula C. Standard formula D. Bonding formula 399. What refers to ions that are not involved in the overall reaction? A. Guest ion B. Special ions C. Spectator ions D. Extra ions 400. A compound distinguished by a high molar mass, ranging into thousands and millions of grams, and made up of many repeating cells is called . A. Electrolyte B. Polymer C. Nucleotide D. Oxoacid 401. Determine the density of the space occupied by the electrons in the Na atom. The radius of the nucleus is given, and 3.04 fm. The radius of Na atom is 186 pm and atomic number is 11. A. 4.21 x 10^-4 g/cm3 B. 3.71 x 10^-4 g/cm3 C. 7.31 x 10^-4 g/cm3 D. 8.31 x 10^-4 g/cm3 402. Calculate the moles of Magnesium (Mg) present in 93.5 g of Mg? (Mg atomic mass = 24.31g) A. 3.85 moles B. 4.15 moles C. 5.38 moles D. 3.35 moles 403. How many number of atoms are there in 1.32 x 10^3 g of Lead (Pb)? Pb atomic mass is 207.7g. A. 3.84 x 10^23 atoms B. 4.38 x 10^23 atoms C. 3.84 x 10^24 atoms D. 4.38 x 10^24 atoms 404. How many grams are there in 4.57 x 10^21 amu? A. 6.95 x 10^-3 g B. 5.45 x 10^-3 g C. 5.96 x 10^-3 g D. 7.59 x 10^-3 g 405. Calculate the number of moles of cobalt (Co) atom in seven billion Co atoms? A. 1.16 x 10^-14 moles B. 1.61 x 10^-13 moles C. 1.16 x 10^-13 moles D. 1.43 x 10^-14 moles 406. Given 16.7 moles of gold (Au), how many grams of Au are there? Atomic mass of Au is 197.0g. A. 3.51 x 10^3 g B. 3.29 x 10^3 g C. 2.39 x 10^3 g D. 3.76 x 10^3 g 407. Determine the mass in grams of a single atom of Ge which has an atomic mass of 72.59. A. 2.21 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom B. 1.21 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom C. 1.12 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom D. 1.31 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom 408. Zinc (Zn) atom has atomic mass of 65.39. Calculate the number of atoms present in 4.22 g of zinc (Zn). A. 3.75 x 10^22 Zn atoms B. 3.93 x 10^22 Zn atoms C. 3.89 x 10^22 Zn atoms D. 4.04 x 10^22 Zn atoms 409. Calculate for the number of molecules of ethane (C2H6) present in 0.431 g of C2H6. (C atomic mass = 12.01g; H atomic mass = 1.008 g) A. 8.63 x 10^21 C2H6 molecules B. 8.75 x 10^21 C2H6 molecules C. 7.69 x 10^21 C2H6 molecules D. 9.13 x 10^21 C2H6 molecules 410. How many oxygen (O) atoms are there in 2.31 x 10^4 g of urea [(NH2)2CO]. Given molar mass of urea is 60.062g. A. 2.43 x 10^26 atoms B. 2.12 x 10^26 atoms C. 2.32 x 10^26 atoms D. 2.52 x 10^26 atoms 411. How many water molecules are present in 5.34 mL of water at a temperature of 4oC, which the density of water at this temperature is 1.00 g/mL? Atomic masses of H and O are 1.008 g and 16.00 g respectively. A. 1.84 x 10^23 molecules B. 1.78 x 10^23 molecules C. 1.74 x 10^23 molecules D. 1.87 x 10^23 molecules 412. Which of the following is the molecular formula of peroxyacylnitrate (PAN), one of the components of smog, and is a compound of C, H, N, O, with percent composition by mass: 19.8% C, 2.5% H, 11.6% N. Given that its molar mass is about 120 g. ( Atomic masses: C = 12.01g; H = 1.008g; N = 14.01g; O = 16.00g). A. C2H3NO2 B. C2H5NO3 C. C4H6N2O10 D. C2H3NO5 413. Calculate the molecular mass of methanol (CH4O), given the atomic masses of C = 12.01 g, H = 1.008 g and O = 16 g. A. 29.018 amu B. 34.241 amu C. 32.042 amu D. 30.026 amu 414. How many moles of chloroform (CHCl3) are there in 210.45 g of chloroform? C = 12.01 amu, H = 1.008 amu and Cl = 35.45 amu. A. 1.76 CHCl3 moles B. 2.12 CHCl3 moles C. 4.34 CHCl3 moles D. 2.51 CHCl3 moles 415. The atomic masses of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are 12.07g, 1.008g and 16.00g respectively. Calculate the number of C atoms present in 84.5 g of isopropanol (rubbing alcohol), C3H8O? A. 2.88 x 1024 C atoms B. 3.72 x 1024 C atoms C. 2.54 x 1024 C atoms D. 2.00 x 1024 C atoms 416. What is the percent composition by mass of oxygen (O) element in sulfuric acid (H2SO4)? H = 1.008 amu, S = 32.07 amu, S = 32.07 amu and O = 16.00 amu. A. 62.25 % B. 63.34 % C. 64.45 % D. 65.25 % 417. If atomic masses of Al and O are 26.98 amu and 16.00 amu, respectively, how many grams of Al are there in 431g of Al2O3? A. 228 g B. 215 g C. 237 g D. 114 g 418. Which is the molecular formula of a sample of a compound containing 6.444 g of boron (B) and 1.803 g of hydrogen (H)? The compound has a molar mass of about 30 g. Given boron (B) has 10.81 amu and hydrogen (H) has 1.008 amu. A. B2H3 B. BH C. B2H6 D. BH3 419. The atomic masses of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are 12.01g, 1.008g, and 16g respectively. Calculate the molarity of a 90-mL ethanol (C2H5OH) solution which contains 2.15 g of ethanol. A. 0.52 M B. 0.25 M C. 0.61 M D. 0.44 M 420. Determine the volume in mL of stock solution that must be diluted to produce 3.00 x 10^2 mL of 0.856 M NaOH solution, starting with a 5.27 M stock solution? A. 47.8 mL B. 48.7 mL C. 51.2 mL D. 48.1 mL distributed horizontally. If the allowed sag is 2 m, determine the tension of the cable at the post. A. 9047.28 kg B. 9404.95 kg C. 9545.88 kg D. 9245.37 kg 21. The distance between supports of a transmission cable is 20 m apart. The cable is loaded with a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m throughout its span. The maximum sag of the cable is 4 m. What is the maximum tension of the cable if one of the supports is 2 meters above the other? A. 415.53 N B. 413.43 N C. 427.33 N D. 414.13 N 22. A cable weighing 0.4 pound per foot and 800 feet long is to be suspended with sag of 80 feet. Determine the maximum tension of the cable. A. 403 kg B. 456 kg C. 416 kg D. 425 kg 23. A cable 200 m long weighs 50 N/m and is supported from two points at the same elevation. Determine the required sag if the maximum tension that the cable can carry shall not exceed 8000 N. A. 35.1 m B. 28.2 m C. 40.3 m D. 31.3 m 24. A transmission cable 300 m long, weighs 600 kg. The tensions at the ends of the cable are 400 kg and 450 kg. Find the distance of its lowest point to the ground. A. 145 m B. 148 m C. 150 m D. 153 m 25. A 250 kg block rests on a 30 degrees plane. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.20, determine the horizontal force P applied on the block to start the block moving up the plane. A. 59.30 kg B. 58.10 kg C. 219.71 kg D. 265.29 kg 26. Compute the number of turns of the rope to be wound around a pole in order to support a man weighing 600 N with an input force of 10 N. Note: coefficient of friction is 0.30. A. 2.172 B. 3.123 C. 1.234 D. 4.234 27. A block weighing 500 N is held by a rope that passes over a horizontal drum. The coefficient of friction between the rope and the drum is 0.15. If the angle of contact is 150 degrees, compute the force that will raise the object. A. 740.7 N B. 760.6 N C. 770.5 N D. 780.8 N 28. A cirlce has a diameter of 20 cm. Determine the moment of inertia of the circular area relative to the axis perpendicular to the area though the center of the circle in cm4. A. 14,280 B. 15,708 C. 17,279 D. 19,007 29. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of stationary rigid body? A. Statics B. Kinetics C. Kinematics D. Dynamics 30. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in motion under the action of forces? A. Statics B. Strenght of materials C. Kinematics D. Dynamics 31. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in motion without reference to the force that causes the motion? A. Statics B. Kinetics C. Kinematics D. Dynamics 32. What refers to the force that holds part of the rigid body together? A. Natural force B. External force C. Internal force D. Concentrated force 33. What refers to a pair of equal, opposite and parallel forces? A. Couple B. Moment C. Torque D. All of the above 34. What is a concurrent force system? A. All forces act at the same point. B. All forces have the same line of action. C. All forces are parallel with one another. D. All forces are in the same plane. 35. When will a three-force member be considered in equilibrium? A. When the sum of the two forces is equal to the third force. B. When they are concurrent or parallel. C. When they are coplanar. D. All of the above 36. A roller support has how many reactions? A. None B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 37. A link or cable support has how many reactions? A. None B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 38. A build-in, fixed support has how many reactions and moment? A. 1 reaction and 1 moment B. 2 reactions and 1 moment C. 1 reaction and 2 moments D. 2 reactions and no moment 39. Which support has one moment? A. Frictionless guide B. Pin connection C. Fixed support D. Roller 40. What is the science that describes and predicts the effect on bodies at rest or in motion by forces acting on it? A. Engineering Mechanics B. Theory of Structures C. Mechanics of Materials D. Strength of Materials 41. What refers to a negligible body when compared to the distances involved regarding its motion? A. Particle B. Atomic substance C. Element D. Quarks 42. The resulting force of a distributed load is always acting at: A. the center of the beam subjected to the distributed load B. the centroid of the area of the loading curve C. the 1/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve D. the 2/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve 43. The resultant force of a distributed load is always equal to: A. twice the area under the loading curve B. half the area under the loading curve C. the area under the loading curve D. one-fourth the area under the loading curve 44. When a body has more supports than are necessary to maintain equilibrium, the body is said to be . A. in static equilibrium B. in dynamic equilibrium C. statically determine D. statically indeterminate 45. When does an equation be considered “dimensionally homogeneous”? A. When it is unitless B. When the dimensions of the various terms on the left side of the equation is not the same as the dimensions of the various terms on the right side. C. When the degree of the left side of the equation is the same as the right side. D. When the dimensions of various terms on the left side of the equation is the same as the dimensions of the various terms on the right side. 46. What refers to the branch of mathematics which deals with the dimensions of quantities? A. Unit analysis B. Dimensional analysis C. System analysis D. Homogeneity analysis 47. What is a “simple beam”? A. A beam supported only at its ends. B. A beam supported with a fixed support at one end and non on the other end. C. A beam with more than two supports. D. A beam with only one support at the midspan. 48. What assumption is used in the analysis of uniform flexible cable? A. Cable is flexible. B. Cable is inextensible. C. The weight of the cable is very small when compared to the loads supported by the cable. D. All of the above 49. “The sum of individual moments about a point caused by multiple concurrent forces is equal to the moment of the resultant force about the same point”. This statement is known as . A. Pappus proposition B. D’ Alembert’s principle C. Varignon’s theorem D. Newton’s method 50. “Two forces acting on a particle may be replaced by a single force called resultant which can be obtained by drawing diagonal of parallelogram, which has the sides equal to the given forces”. This statement is known as A. Pappus Propositions B. Principle of Transmissibility C. Parallelogram Law D. Varignon’s Theorem 51. “The condition of equilibrium or motion of a rigid body remains unchanged if a force acting at a given point of the rigid body is replaced by a force of same magnitude and direction, but acting at a different point provided that the two forces have the same line of action”. This statement is known as . A. Pappus Propositions B. Principle of Transmissibility C. Parallelogram Law D. Varignon’s Theorem 52. “If two forces acting simultaneously on a particle can be represented by the two sides of a triangle taken in order that the third side represents the resultant in the opposite order”. This statement is known as . A. Principle of Transmissibility B. Parallelogram Law C. Varignon’s Theorem D. Triangle Law of Forces 53. “If a number of concurrent forces acting simultaneously on a particle, are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of polygon taken in order, then the resultant of this system of forces is represented by the closing side of the polygon in the opposite in the opposite order”. This statement is known as . A. Principle of Transmissibility B. Parallelogram Law C. Polygon Law D. Triangle Law of Forces 54. A beam with more than one supports is called . A. cantilever beam B. simple beam C. complex beam D. continuous beam 55. A truss consisting of coplanar members is called . A. plane truss B. space truss C. ideal truss D. rigid truss 56. A truss consisting of non-coplanar members is called . A. plane truss B. space truss C. ideal truss D. rigid truss 57. What method of determining the bar force of a truss if only few members are required? A. Methods of joints B. Method of section C. Maxwell’s diagram D. Method of superposition 58. Which of the following statements about friction is FALSE? A. The direction of frictional force on a surface is such as to oppose the tendency of one surface to slide relative to the other. B. The total frictional force is surfaces. C. The magnitude of the frictional force is equal to the force which tends to move the body till the limiting value is reached. D. Friction force is always less than the force required to prevent motion. 59. In the analysis of friction, the angle between the normal force and the resultant force the angle of friction. A. may be greater than or less than B. is greater than C. is less than D. is equal to 60. When a block is place on an inclined plane, its steepest inclination to which the block will be in equilibrium is called . A. angle of friction B. angle of reaction C. angle of normal D. angle of repose 61. What is usually used to move heavy loads by applying a force which is usually smaller that the weight of the load? A. Axle dependent on the area of contact between the two B. Incline plane C. Wedge D. Belt 62. The angle of inclined plane of a jack screw is also known as . A. angle of thread B. angle of lead C. angle of friction D. angle of pitch 63. Center of gravity for a two dimensional body is the point at which the entire acts regardless of the orientation of the body. A. mass B. weight C. mass or weight D. volume 64. Second moment of area is the product of: A. area and square of the distance from the reference axis B. area and distance from the reference axis C. square of the area and distance from the reference axis D. square of the area and square of the distance from the reference axis 65. Moment of inertia of an area about an axis is equal to the sum of moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centroid parallel to the given axis and . A. area and square of the distance between two parallel axes B. area and distance between two parallel axes C. square of the area and distance between two parallel axes D. square of the area and square of the distance between two parallel axes 66. What is the unit of mass moment of inertia? A. kg-m4 B. kg-m3 C. kg-m D. kg-m2 67. The number of independent degrees of freedom is: A. Square root of the square of the difference of total degrees of freedom – number of constrain equations B. Square root of the total degrees of freedom – number of constrain equations C. Total degrees of freedom – number of constrain equations D. Total degrees of freedom – half the number of constrain equations 68. What velocity is normally referred to as the derivative of position vector with respect to time? A. Decreasing velocity B. Average velocity C. Instantaneous velocity D. Increasing velocity 69. What refers to a force by which work done on a particle as it moves around any closed path is zero? A. Natural force B. Virtual force C. Conservative force D. Non-conservative force 70. When a force causes a change in mechanical energy when it moves around a closed path, it is said to be force. A. natural B. virtual C. conservative D. non-conservative 71. The following are quantities that describe motion and uses Newton’s law of motion and d’Alembert’s principle except one. Which one? A. Time B. Mass C. Acceleration D. Force 72. Which of the following set of quantities that describe motion and uses the principle of work and energy? A. Force, mass, velocity, time B. Force, mass, acceleration C. Force, mass, distance, velocity D. Force, weight, distance, time 73. Which of the following set of quantities that describe motion and uses the principle of impulse and momentum? A. Force, mass, velocity, time B. Force, mass, distance, velocity C. Force, mass, distance, velocity D. Force, weight, distance, time 74. The principles of kinetics of particles are derived from which law? A. Newton’s first law B. Newton’s second law C. Newton’s third law D. d’Alembert’s principle 75. What type of impact is when the motion of one or both of the colliding bodies is not directed along the line impact? A. Central impact B. Eccentric impact C. Direct impact D. Oblique impact 76. What type of impact is when the centers of mass of colliding bodies are not located on the line of impact? A. Central impact B. Eccentric impact C. Direct impact D. Oblique impact 77. If the coefficient of restitution is zero, the impact is . A. partially plastic B. perfectly inelastic C. perfectly elastic D. partially elastic 78. A uniform circular motion can be considered as a combination of A. linear velocity and impulse B. simple harmonic motion and momentum C. two simple harmonic motions D. rectilinear translation and curvilinear translation 79. The motion of a particle is defined by the relation x = (1/3)t3 – 3t2 + 8t + 2 where x is the distance in meters and is the time in seconds. What is the time when the velocity is zero? A. 2 seconds B. 3 seconds C. 5 seconds D. 7 seconds 80. A particle moves along a straight line with the equation x = 16t + 4t2 – 3t3 where x is the distance in ft and t is the time in second. Compute the acceleration of the particle after 2 seconds. A. – 28 ft/s2 B. – 30 ft/s2 C. – 17 ft/s2 D. – 24 ft/s2 81. Two cars A and B traveling in the same direction and stopped at a highway traffic sign. As the signal turns green car A accelerates at constant rate of 1 m/s2. Two seconds later the second car B accelerates at constant rate of 1.3 m/s2. When will the second car B overtakes the first car A? A. 16.27 s B. 30.45 s C. 20.32 s D. 10.45 s 82. Two buses start at the same time towards each other from terminals A and B, 8 km apart. The time needed for the first bus to travel from A to B is 8 minutes, and of the second bus from B to A is 10 minutes. How much is the time needed by each bus to meet each if they traveled at their respective uniform speeds? 2. What are the four basic forms of deformation of solid bodies? A. Tension, compression, bending and twisting B. Tension, compression, elongation and bending C. Tension, compression, plastic and elastic D. Tension, compression, elongation and torsion 3. What is a structural member supported horizontally and carries transverse loading? A. Beam B. Column C. Arch D. Shaft 4. What refers to a slender member which prevents parts of a structure moving towards each other under compressive force? A. Tie B. Column C. Panel D. Strut 5. What refers to a slender member which prevents parts of a structure moving towards each other under compressive force? A. Tie B. Column C. Strut D. Arch 6. What refers to the point in which the bending moment changes sign through a zero value? A. Critical point B. Point of inflection C. Point of contraflexure D. Point of zero stress 7. What is the unit of strain? A. Pascal B. Unitless C. N-m D. N-m/s 9. What refers to the stress in the material at the elastic limit? A. Working stress B. Yield stress C. Ultimate stress D. Maximum stress 10. Which of the following materials has the least modulus of elasticity? A. Steel B. Glass C. Copper D. Aluminum 11. Within elastic limit, the shear stress is proportional to shear strain. What is the constant of propotionality of this statement called? A. Modulus of rigidity B. Modulus of elasticity C. Young’s modulus D. Bulk modulus 12. What is the unit of the modulus of elasticity? A. N-m B. Unitless C. Pa D. N-m/s 13. Within elastic limit, the volumetric strain is proportional to the hydrostatic stress. What is the constant that relates these two quantities called? A. Modulus of rigidity B. Modulus of elasticity C. Young’s modulus D. Bulk modulus 14. What is another term for modulus of rigidity? A. Shear modulus B. Young’s modulus C. Bulk modulus D. Modulus of elasticity 15. How many times greater is the plastic range of strain as compared to the elastic range of strain? A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. The material is in the plastic range only 17. What refers to the parallel axis theorem for second moment of area? A. Mohr’s theorem B. Steiner’s theorem C. Maxwell’s theorem D. Young’s theorem 18. The elastic deformation of a material is: A. directly proportional to cross- sectional area of the material B. inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity of material C. inversely proportional to the force acting on the material D. inversely proportional to the initial length of the material 19. The strain energy of a member is: A. inversely proportional to the square of the force acting on the member B. directly proportional to the modulus of elasticity C. inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the member D. inversely proportional to the initial length of the member 20. Stiffness is: A. ratio of force to deformation B. ratio of force to modulus of elasticity C. ratio of product of cross- sectional area and initial length to deformation D. ratio of initial length to cross- sectional area 21. Which of the following substances has the least average coefficient of linear thermal expansion? A. Copper B. Concrete C. Steel D. Tin 22. Steel has a modulus of elasticity of D. 400 MPa. A. 200 B. 2,000 C. 20,000 D. 200,000 8. Volumetric stain is the: A. change in volume per unit time B. square root of difference of original volume and change in volume C. original volume minus change in volume D. ratio of change in volume to original volume 16. What does it means when the material is said to be “yielding”? A. The material has pass through plastic range and enter the elastic range B. The material has pass through elastic range and enter the plastic range C. The material is in the elastic range only 23. What is the maximum moment of a beam supported at both ends and carries a uniform load of w throughout its entire length? A. wL / 2 B. wL / 8 C. wL2 / 8 D. wL2 / 4 24. is the stress beyond which the material will not return to its original shape when unloaded but will retain a permanent deformation. A. Elastic limit B. Proportional limit C. Yield limit D. Yield strength 25. All are methods of determining the bar force of a truss member except one. Which one? A. Method of joints B. Method of section C. Method of virtual work D. Maxwell diagram 26. Determine the force required to punch a ½ inch hole on a 3/8 thick plate if the ultimate shearing strength of the plate is 50,000 psi. A. 23,562 lbs B. 19,450 lbs C. 20,550 lbs D. 15,422 lbs 27. A simply supported beam, 10 m long carries a uniform distributed load of 20 kN/m. What is the value of the maximum moment of the beam due to the load? A. 10,000 kN-m B. 5,000 kN-m C. 2,000 kN-m D. 250 kN-m 28. A cylindrical water tank is 8 m in diameter and 12 m high. If the tank is to be completely filled, determine the minimum thickness of the tank plating if the stress is limited to 40 MPa. A. 11.77 mm B. 13.18 mm C. 10.25 mm D. 12.60 mm 29. The stress in a 90-cm diameter pipe having a wall thickness of 9.5 cm and under a static head of 70 m of water is A. 325 kPa B. 32.5 kPa C. 32.5 MPa D. 3.25 MPa 30. A 30-m long aluminum bar is subjected to a tensile stress of 175 MPa. Determine the elongation if E = 69116 MPa. A. 78 mm B. 76 mm C. 74 mm D. 72 mm 31. Determine the load capacity in kN on a 25 mm diameter x 1200 mm long steel shaft if its maximum elongation shall not exceed 1 mm. Assume E = 200,000 MPa. A. 88.2 kN B. 78.3 kN C. 83.2 kN D. 81.8 kN 32. An iron steam pipe is 200 ft long at 0oC. What will be its increase in length when heated to 100oC? Coefficient of linear expansion is 30 x 10^-6 per oC. A. 0.18 ft B. 0.12 ft C. 0.20 ft D. 0.28 ft 33. A steel railroad rails 10 m long are laid with clearance of 3 mm at a temperature of 15oC. At what temperature will the rails just touch? If there were no initial clearance Assume: alpha = 11.7 micro m/m deg.C and E = 200 GPa. A. 46.90 deg B. 56.06 deg C. 50.36 deg D. 40.64 deg 34. A cylinder of diameter 1.0 cm at 30oC is to be slide into a hole on a steel plate. The hole has a diameter of 0.99970 cm at 30oC. To what temperature the plate must be heated? Coefficient of linear expansion for steel is 1.2 x 10^-5 per oC. A. 62oC B. 55oC C. 48oC D. 65oC 35. A certain steel tape is known to be 100,000 ft long at a temperature of 70oF. When the tape is at a temperature of 10oF, what tape reading corresponds to a distance of 90,000 ft? Assume a coefficient of thermal expansion equal 65 x 10^-7 per oF. A. 90,035 ft B. 89,965 ft C. 90,225 ft D. 89,775 ft 36. A solid shaft 2.0 m long is transmitting 27 kN-m torque. If the shear modulus of the shaft material is 85 GPa and the allowable shearing stress is 70 MPa, determine the angle of twist between the two ends of the shaft. A. 1.52o B. 1.02o C. 1.44o D. 1.32o 37. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm diameter wire on mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 20 kN? A. d529 Gpa B. 370 Pa C. 25 kPa D. 121 MPa 38. A 14-ft simple beam uniformly loaded with 200 pounds per foot over its entire length. If the beam is 3.625 in wide and 7.625 in deep, what is the maximum bending stress/ A. 7974 lbf/in2 B. 8205 lbf/in2 C. 6332 lbf/in2 D. 1674 lbf/in2 39. A 19-foot beam 10 inches wide and 20 inches high supports 1500 lb/ft on two supports 14 feet apart. The right end of the beam extends 2 feet past the support. What is the shearing stress midway between supports? A. 1.0 psi B. 10 psi C. 67 psi D. 2.0 psi 40. A long beam of length L has a formula which is 48Ely = w (2x^4 – 5Lx^3 + 3(L^2 )(x^2)); where does the maximum deflection occur? A. 0.675L B. 0.578L C. 0.987L D. 0.876L 41. A steel support must connect to 30,000 pound tensile loads separated by 200 inches. The maximum allowable stress is 10,000 psi and the maximum elongation is 0.020 inch. What is the required area? E(steel) = 3 x 10^7 psi A. 30.5 mm2 B. 47.1 in2 C. 55 mm2 D. 10 in2 42. High strength steel band saw, 20 mm wide and 0.8 mm thick runs over the pulley 600 mm in diameter of pulleys can be used without exceeding the flexural stress of 400 MPa? Note: E = 200 GPa. A. 250 cm B. 325 mm C. 400 mm D. 150 in. 43. What weight in pounds can be lifted by a screw that has an efficiency of 80% if it is operated by a 50 lb force at the end of a 30 inched lever and the pitch of the screw is ½ inch? A. 15,080 B. 15,500 C. 10,000 D. 12,000 44. What is the stress in an 8-inch round x 16-inch high concrete cylinder (E = 2.5 x 10^6 psi) when the unit deformation is 0.0012 inch/inch? A. 500 psi B. 8100 psi C. 210 psi D. 3000 psi 45. What uniform load will cause simple beam which is 10 ft long to deflect 0.3 in. ft it supported (in addition to the supports) by a spring at the beam mid-point. The spring constant of 30,000 lbf/in. Assume the beam is steel, 10 in. deep, rectangular, and with a centroidal moment of inertia of 100 in4 . A. 3550 lbf/ft B. 6445 lbf/ft C. 2250 lbf/ft D. 5440 lbf/ft 46. During the stress strain test, the unit deformation at a stress of 35 MN/m2 it was 667 x 10^-6 mm. If the proportional limit was MN/m2, what is the modulus of elasticity? A. 10 x 10^8 N/cm2 B. 5.8 x 10^6 N/in2 C. 2.1 x 10^5 N/mm2 D. 35 x 10^6 N/mm2 47. A 2.5 in. diameter shaft is 2 ft. long. Its maximum shear stress is 10,000 psi. What is the angular deflection in degrees? A. 0.96o B. 0.45o C. 0.78o D. 0.56o 48. An elevator weighs 1000 pounds and is supported by a 5/16 inch diameter cable, 1500 feet long. When the elevator carries a 1500 lb, the cable elongates 6 inches more. What is the modulus of elasticity of the cable? A. 4.35 x 10^7 psi B. 5.87 x 10^7 psi C. 3.42 x 10^7 psi D. 2.34 x 10^7 psi 49. A hallow shaft has an inner diameter of 0.035 m and an outer diameter of 0.06 m. Compute the torque if the shear stress is not exceed 120 MPa. A. 4,500 N-m B. 4,300 N-m C. 5,500 N-m D. 3,450 N-m 50. A spherical tank with 10 inches inside diameter contains oxygen gas at 2,500 psi. Calculate the required wall thickness in (mm) under stress of 28,000 psi. A. 6.12 mm B. 5.66 mm C. 4.88 mm D. 7.21 mm 51. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm diameter wire on mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2 kN? A. 121 MPa B. 130 MPa C. 150 MPa D. 120 MPa 52. A single bolt is used to lap joint two steel bars together. Tensile force on the bar is 20,000 N. Determine the diameter of the bolt required if the allowable shearing stress on it is 70 MPa. A. 25 mm B. 19 mm C. 15 mm D. 12 mm 55. The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission to a CATV operator shall have a maximum term of how many years? A. 5 years B. 10 years C. 15 years D. 20 years relevant market is known in CATV system as . A. Off-network B. Cablecasting C. First-Run series D. First-Run No-series programs 76. The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly supervised by a registered 82. An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network operator, authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines and to engage in the business of inter-exchange national long distance services is known as 56. High speed networks are ICT ECE. The statement above is: . networks that have a capacity of at least Mbps. A. 2.048 B. 32 C. 64 D. 256 57. The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in the UHF band is MHz A. 1.725 to 1.79 B. 1.275 to 1.975 C. 1.925 to 1.975 D. 1.575 to 1.975 58. In CATV system, video signal to noise ratio of modulator must be better than dB. A. 30 B. 34 C. 36 D. 38 59. In a CATV system, head end processor as RF input/output terminal match should a minimum loss of dB. A. 16 B. 18 C. 20 D. 22 73. What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting carriers for accessing the facilities of such carrier which is needed by the interconnecting carriers for the origination and/or termination of all types of traffic derived from the interconnector? A. Interconnection charge B. Approach charge C. Access charge D. Network charge 74. What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to engage to the acquisition, servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters and/or transceivers, parts and accessories thereof? A. Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit B. Radio Communication Equipment Manufacture Permit C. Service Center Operation Permit D. Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Point 75. A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in the Philippines and no regional network exhibition in the A. True B. False C. It depends upon the area of coverage D. It depends upon the number of households using the CATV system 77. Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the global maritime distress and safety system implemented last 1999? A. A facsimile B. A radio personnel C. A Morse code D. A radio-telegraph operator 78. Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange line for every urban local exchange lines. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 79. Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of switch termination. A. 100 local exchange lines per international B. 200 local exchange lines per international C. 300 local exchange lines per international D. 500 local exchange lines per international 80. What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a Certificate of Public Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued? A. Franchise B. B SEC document C. Business Permit D. Radio station license 81. When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under Department Order No. 88? A. FM broadcast station with a carrier power of 1000 watts B. TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watts C. TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2kW D. Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5kW A. Local exchange carrier B. International carrier C. Inter-exchange carrier D. National carrier 83. An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local exchange and inter- exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers is known as A. International carrier B. Value-added service provider C. Inter-exchange carrier D. Local exchange carrier 84. What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress, authorizing an entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service? A. Authority to Operate B. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity C. Franchise D. Provisional Authority 85. NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable television system within the same franchise area covered by any provisional Authority or Certificate of Authority previously granted by the Commission. A. Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition of the authorization. B. New entrant has more financial support C. Current service is grossly inadequate D. Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition 86. Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing telecommunication law, should an international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to provide local exchange service in un-served and under-served areas within three years from grant of authority? A. Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule B. Cancellation of its authority C. Given one year to comply D. Given two years to comply 87. When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its area? A. When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and must be within the franchise area. B. When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required capitalization and upon approval of NTC. C. Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical capability. D. Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not discriminated in rate and access, and has separated books of account. 73. What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means? A. Telecommunications B. Broadcasting C. Mass media D. Multi media 88. What refers to a non-exclusive facility which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other messages? A Telephone-telegraph calling center B Telecommunications calling station C Public toll calling station D Call center 89. The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide the local exchange service in unserved or underserved areas within years from the grant of the authority as required by existing regulation. A. 3 years B. 4 years C. 2 years D. 5 years 90. International switch termination refers to a port in the switching international gateway system equivalent to kbps (digital) where international circuit terminates. A. 56.6 B. 64 C. 128 D. 256 91. Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and calling frequency for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 MHz and 174 MHz? A. 165.8 MHz B. 156.8 MHz C. 158.6 MHz D. 168.5 MHz 92. Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications Development Bureau report A. RRB B. WTDC C. WRC D. WTSC 93. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources? A. Depending on geographical boundary of a nation B. Efficient use and equitable access C. Depending on national sovereignty D. Equal distribution 94. Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT? A. ITU-R B. ITU-D C. ITU-T D. RAG 95. Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU report? A. WTSC B. TDAB C. WRC D. Council 96. The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international radio communications as . A. IRCC B. ITU C. IRR D. CCIR 97. What agency of the United Nations formulates standards and recommended practices for all civil aviation? A. ICAO B. CAA C. IATA D. ATO 98. What is the executive branch of government –in-charge of policy making in the telecommunication? A. National Telecommunications Commission B. Telecommunications Control Bureau C. Department of Transportation and Communications D. Bureau of Telecommunications 99. What refers to the listing of the date and time events, programs, equipment, test, malfunctions and corrections in communication system? A. File B. Documentation C. Reporting D. Log 101. Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to the reserve transmitter and receiver? A. AA B. Direction finder C. Main transmitter D. Emergency transmitter 102. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and safety system is the: A. provision of Morse code. B. provision of radiotelegraph operator. C. provision of facsimile. D. provision of radio personnel. 103. One of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship under the global maritime distress and safety system. Which one? A. On board radio facilities B. Radio operator telegraphy onboard C. Shore base facilities D. Radio personnel onboard 104. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open circuited and that any auxiliary antenna is/are connected to the main receiver? A. AA B. Emergency transmitter C. Direction finder D. Ground 105. What position of maritime ship main antenna, when the radio watch is secured or when the ship is in electrical storm? A. AA B. Main transmitter C. Grounded D. HF 106. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications Union in its international conference issues on orbital resources? A. Assign frequencies and organized conferences. B. Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources. C. Determine principles of a spectrum distribution and assignment of frequencies. D. Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots. 107. A person or entity intending to register as VolP service provider is required to post a performance bond of . A. P 1 million B. P 3 million C. P 5 million D. P 10 million 108. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscribers of the other carrier or operator? A. Interconnection B. Toll patching C. Gateway D. Outside plant sharing 109. Which law refers to the “Electronic Commerce Act of 2000”? A. R. A. 8927 B. R. A. 9287 C. R. A. 8792 D. R. A. 8729 110. What is otherwise known as “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”? A. P. D. 223 B. R. A. 5734 C. R. A. 9292 D. R. A. 7925 111. What is otherwise known as “PRC modernization law”? A. R. A. 8891 B. R. A. 8981 C. R. A. 8918 D. R. A. 8198 112. Professional Regulations Commission was created under . A. P. D. 323 B. P. D. 223 C. P. D. 232 D. P. D. 223 113. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223? A. June 21, 1973 B. June 22, 1973 C. June 23, 1973 D. June 24, 1974 114. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved? A. June 21, 2000 B. October 10, 2000 C. April 22, 2000 D. June 14, 2000 115. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo? A. April 12, 2004 B. April 17, 2004 C. April 19, 2004 D. April 27, 2004 116. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A. 9292 approved? A. August 27, 2007 B. August 28, 2007 C. August 29, 2007 D. August 31, 2007 117. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering consultation services? A. Registered Electronic Technicians B. Registered Electronic Engineers C. Professional Electronic Engineers D. Choices B and C above 118. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render design services? A. Yes B. No C. Yes if he has more than 5 years experience D. Yes if he has more than 10 years experience 119. Under R. A. 9292, the ProfessionalElectronic Engineer shall the electronics plan designed by a Registered Electronic Engineer? A. review B. sign C. seal D. all of the choices 120. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics construction and installation? A. Professional Electronic Engineers B. Registered Electronic Engineers C. Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers D. Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice experience 121. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based on A. current practice B. current costumer price index C. minimum basic daily wage D. all of the above 122. Under R. A. 9292, the rate of retainers’ fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer for routine or ordinary consultation will not be less than per month. A. P 1,500 B. P 2,000 C. P 2,500 D. P3,000 123. The powers and functions of the Board is provided in of the R. A. No. 9292. A. Section 5 B. Section 6 C. Section 7 D. Section 8 124. R. A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination shall be released within days after the examination. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 160. What unit is used to measure the accumulative effects of radiation that can cause genetic and somatic effects? A. roentgens B. rems C. rbes D. rebs 161. When is coordination with the telephone company needed when as underground service entrance will be used as the most feasible and economical way? A. Expense of telephone company B. Expense of subscriber C. Length of a bale to be used by subscriber D. Decision of depth of conduit at interconnection point 162. The potential difference between any exposed structure to ground in any electrical installation should not exceed volts RMS. A. 10 B. 45 C. 0 D. 30 163. Which of the following is the lowest resistance grounding on earth? A. Sand B. Clay C. Surface loam soil D. Limestone 164. Which part of housing of a building cable system has the same function as the slot but circular in shape? A. Fitting B. Sleeve C. Insert D. Header 165. What refers to a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a portion or an entire floor of a building? A. Floor terminal distribution area B. Raceway terminal C. Floor distribution terminal D. Riser terminal 166. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the floor structure to allow the passage of a cable and wire? A. Insert B. Sleeve C. Raceway D. Slot 167. In cable facilities for a building communications service, is referred to as a physical cable within a building or series of buildings which may include both main cable pairs and house cable pairs but not wiring cable. A. entrance cable B. floor distribution cable C. house cable D. building cable 168. A telephone company’s cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to the main cross- connecting a point within the building is called . A. Telephone cable B. Entrance cable C. Connecting cable D. Building cable 169. It is a non-combustible tubing which encases the riser cable between enclosed type metallic terminal cabinets or boxes. A. Raceway B. Riser shaft C. Riser conduit D. Entrance cable 170. A series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft of the building is called . A. Service fitting B. Raceway C. Riser conduit D. Riser shaft 171. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two story residential building to be required a service entrance facility under ECE building code? A. Two lines B. Five lines C. Three lines D. Not required 172. What is the device that diverts high transient voltage to the ground and away from the equipment thus protected? A. Alpeth B. Anchor C. Alarm D. Arrester 173. What is one possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in one self-excited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant oscillation? A. Poor soldered connections. B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator. C. DC and RF ac heating of the resistors which cause change in values. D. Aging which cause change condition in parts characteristics. 174. Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics? A. Honesty B. Justice C. Integrity D. Courtesy 175. What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange goods or services? A. Consideration B. Partnership C. Contract D. Obligation 176. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that are morally desirable in engineering practice and research? A. Engineering ethics B. Engineering management C. Engineering system D. Engineering integrity 177. What consists of the responsibilities and rights that ought to be endorsed by those engaged in engineering, and also of desirable ideals and personal commitments in engineering? A. Ethics B. Code of ethics D. Engineering standards 178. What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which the application of moral values is problematic? C. Engineering ethics A. Silo mentality B. Preventive ethics C. Ethical issues D. Moral dilemmas 179. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession, and as represented by a professional society? A. Preventive ethics B. Work ethics C. Code of ethics D. Professional code 180. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational orientation, concerning the value of work? A. Preventive ethics B. Work ethics C. Code of ethics D. Professional code 181. Ethics is synonymous ts . A. morality B. money C. standards D. conduct 182. A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons? A. Death of a party to the contract B. Failure of consideration C. Mutual agreement of the parties to the contract D. All of the above 183. Some contracts may be dissolved by which valid reason? A. Court order B. Passage of new laws C. Declaration of war D. All of the above 184. What is the major advantage of a standard contract? A. The meanings of the clauses were established. B. The clauses of this contract are to be litigated. C. The clauses of this contract are rarely ambiguous. D. All of the above 185. The general contractor who hires different subcontractors is known as contractor. A. real B. original C. prime D. legitimate 186. What is the basic requirement in order for a contract to be binding? A. There must be a clear, specific and definite offer. B. There must be some form of conditional future consideration. C. There must be an acceptance of the offer. D. All of the above 187. What contract document is part of the constructive contracts? A. Agreement form B. General condition C. Drawings and specifications D. All of the above 188. What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the contract is made? A. A representation B. An offer C. A proposal D. A consideration 189. What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root of the contract? A. Warranty B. Condition C. Injuction D. Innominate terms 190. What type of damages is awarded, usually for fraud cases, to punish and make an example of the defendant to deter other from doing the same thing? A. Punitive damages B. Nominal damages C. Liquidated damages D. Consequential damages 191. What is another term for “punitive damages”? A. Liquidated damages B. Exemplary damages C. Compensatory damages D. Nominal damages 192. What is defined as a non-performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially less than or different from what the contract is intended? A. Willful breach B. Material breach C. Unintentional breach D. Intentional breach 193. What refers to the condition that in a contract between two parties, only the parties to a contract may sue under it and that any third party names in that contract or who benefit from that contract cannot sue or be sued under that contract? A. Doctrine of contract B. Party policy of contract C. Equity of contract D. Privity of contract 194. What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his property, emotional well-being, or reputation? A. Consequential damage B. Fraud C. Punitive damage D. Tort 195. The tort law is concerned with . A. imprisonment B. fine C. compensation for the injury D. punishment 196. What refers to a statement or oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an individual in ceremonies? A. Canon B. Code C. Creed D. Rule 197. A canon is defined as: A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules. B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct. C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony. D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation. 198. A rule is defined as: A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules. B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct. C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony. D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation. 199. A code is defined as: A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules. B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct. C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony. D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation. 200. What refers to the rendition of service by a dully licensed professional by virtue of his technical education, training, experience and competence? A. Professional practice B. Professional service C. Legal practice and service D. Professional consultation MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS in THERMODYNAMICS 1. term “thermodynamics” comes from Greek words “therme” and “dynamis” which means . A. Heat power B. Heat transfer C. Heat energy D. Heat motion 2. The term “thermodynamics” was first used in 1849 in the publication of a A. Rudolph Clausius B. William Rankine C. Lord Kelvin D. Thomas Savery 3. What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic property? A. First law of Thermodynamics B. Second law of Thermodynamics C. Third law of Thermodynamics D. Zeroth law of Thermodynamics 4. What law asserts that energy has quality as well as quantity? A. First law of Thermodynamics Thermodynamics C. Third law of Thermodynamics D. Zeroth law of Thermodynamics 5. The macroscopic approach to the study of thermodynamics does not require a knowledge of the behavior of individual particles is called . A. Dynamic thermodynamics B. Static thermodynamics C. Statistical thermodynamics D. Classical thermodynamics 6. What is the more elaborate approach to the study of thermodynamics and based on the average behavior of large groups of individual particles? A. Dynamic thermodynamics B. Static thermodynamics C. Statistical thermodynamics D. Classical thermodynamics 7. What is defined a region in space chosen for study? A. Surroundings B. System C. Boundary D. Volume 8. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles? A. Conservation of mass B. Conservation of energy C. Action and reaction D. The entropy-temperature relationship 9. What is the mass or region outside the system called? A. Surroundings B. Boundary C. Volume D. Environment 10. What is the real or imaginary surface that separates the system from its surroundings? A. Division B. Wall C. Boundary D. Interface 11. A system which consists of fixed amount of mass and no mass can cross its boundary called . A. Equilibrium system B. Thermal equilibrium system C. Open system D. Closed system 12. A system in which even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary is called . A. Closed system B. Exclusive system C. Isolated system D. Special system 13. A system in which there is a flow of mass is known as . A. Equilibrium system B. Isolated system C. Open system D. Closed system 14. Open system usually encloses which of the following devices? A. Compressor B. Turbine C. Nozzle D. All of the above 15. The boundaries of a control volume, which may either real or imaginary is called . A. Control boundary B. Control system C. Interface D. Control surfac 16. Any characteristic of a thermodynamics system is called a A. Property B. Process C. Phase D. Cycle 17. How are thermodynamic properties classified? A. Physical and chemical B. Intensive and extensive C. Real and imaginary D. Homogeneous and heterogeneous B. Second law of 58. Who formulated the zeroth law of thermodynamics in 1931? A. A. Celsuis B. A. Einstein C. R.H. Fowler D. G. Fahrenheit 59. What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system? A. Kelvin scale B. Celsius scale C. Fahrenheit scale D. Rankine scale 60. What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the English system? A. Kelvin scale B. Celsius scale C. Fahrenheit scale D. Rankine scale 61. What temperature scale is identical to the Kelvin scale? A. Ideal gas temperature scale B. Ideal temperature scale C. Absolute gas temperature scale D. Triple point temperature scale 62. The temperatures of the ideal gas temperature scale are measured by using a . A. Constant-volume gas thermometer B. Constant-mass gas thermometer C. Constant-temperature gas thermometer D. Constant-pressure gas thermometer 63. What refers to the strong repulsion between the positively charged nuclei which makes fusion reaction difficult to attain? A. Atomic repulsion B. Nuclear repulsion C. Coulomb repulsion D. Charge repulsion 64. What gas thermometer is based on the principle that at low pressure, the temperature of a gas is proportional to its pressure at constant volume? A. Constant-pressure gas thermometer B. Isobaric gas thermometer C. Isometric gas thermometer D. Constant-volume gas thermometer 65. What is the state at which all three phases of water coexist in equilibrium? A. Tripoint of water B. Triple point of water C. Triple phase point of water D. Phase point of water 66. What is defined as the force per unit area? A. Pressure B. Energy C. Work D. Power 67. The unit “pascal” is equivalent to . A. N/m^2 B. N/m C. N-m D. N-m^2 68. Which of the following is NOT a value of the standard atmospheric pressure? A. 1 bar B. 1 atm C. 1 kgf/cm^2 D. 14.223 psi 69. What is the SI unit of pressure? A. Atm B. Bar C. Pa D. Psi 70. 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals? A. 10^3 B. 10^4 C. 10^5 D. 10^6 71. 1 atm is equivalent to how many pascals? A. 101,325 B. 101,689 C. 101,102 D. 101,812 72. What is considered as the actual pressure at a given position and is measured relative to absolute vacuum? A. Gage pressure B. Absolute pressure C. Atmospheric pressure D. Vacuum pressure 73. What is the pressure below atmospheric pressure called? A. Gage pressure B. Absolute pressure C. Atmospheric pressure D. Vacuum pressure 74. The difference between the absolute pressure and the atmospheric pressure is called the pressure. A. Gage B. Normal C. Standard D. Vacuum 75. Which of the following is NOT an instrument used to measure pressure? A. Bourdon tube B. Pitot tube C. Aneroid D. Manometer 76. What instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure? A. Pitot tube B. Wind vane C. Barometer D. Manometer 77. Another unit used to measure atmospheric pressure is the “torr”. This is named after the Italian physicist, Evangelista Torrecelli. An average atmospheric pressure is how many torr? A. 740 B. 750 C. 760 D. 770 78. What states that for a confined fluid, the pressure at a point has the same magnitude in all directions? A. Avogadro’s Law B. Amagat Law C. Pascal’s Law D. Bernoulli’s Theorem 79. What pressure measuring device consists of a coiled hollow tube that tends to straighten out when the tube is subjected to an internal pressure? A. Aneroid B. Manometer C. Bourdon pressure gage D. Barometer 80. What is an energy that can be transferred from one object to another causing a change in temperature of each object? A. Power B. Heat transfer C. Heat D. Work 81. What is the SI unit of energy? A. Newton B. Btu C. Calorie D. Joule 82. One joule is equivalent to one . A. Kg ∙ m/ s^2 B. Kg ∙ m^2/s^2 C. Kg ∙ m^2/s D. Kg ∙ m/s 83. One calorie is equivalent to how many joules? A. 4.448 B. 4.184 C. 4.418 D. 4.814 84. One erg is equivalent to how many joules? A. 10^-8 B. 10^-7 C. 10^-6 D. 10^-5 85. The first law of thermodynamics is the: A. Law of conservation of momentum B. Law of conservation of mass C. Law of conservation of power D. Law of conservation of energy 86. What is the study of energy and its transformations? A. Thermostatics B. Thermophysics C. Thermochemistry D. Thermodynamics 87. What is considered as the heat content of a system? A. Enthalpy B. Entropy C. Internal heat D. Molar heat 88. What refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of an object by one degree Celsius or 1K? A. Heat capacity B. Specific heat C. Latent heat D. Molar heat 89. What is the heat capacity of one mole of substance? A. Molecular heat B. Specific heat C. Latent heat D. Molar heat 90. What is the heat capacity of one gram of a substance? A. Molecular heat B. Specific heat C. Latent heat D. Molar heat 91. “The enthalpy change for any chemical reaction is independent of the intermediate stages, provided the initial and final conditions are the same for each route.” This statement is known as: A. Dulong’s Law B. Dalton’s Law C. Hess’s Law D. Petit Law 92. What refers to the measure of the disorder present in a given substance or system? A. Enthalpy B. Entropy C. Heat capacity D. Molar heat 93. Entropy is measured in . A. Joule/Kelvin B. Joule-Meter/Kelvin C. Meter/Kelvin D. Newton/Kelvin 94. What is the energy absorbed during chemical reaction under constant volume conditions? A. Entropy B. Ion exchange C. Enthalpy D. Enthalpy of reaction 95. When water exists in the liquid phase and is not about to vaporize, it is considered as liquid. A. Saturated B. Compressed o subcooled C. Superheated D. Unsaturated 96. A liquid that is about to vaporize is called liquid. A. Saturated B. Compressed or subcooled C. Superheated D. Unsaturated 97. A vapor that is about to condense is called vapor. A. Saturated B. Compressed or subcooled C. Superheated D. Unsaturated 98. A vapor that is not about to condense is called vapor. A. Saturated B. Compressed or subcooled C. Superheated D. Unsaturated 99. A substance that has a fixed chemical composition is known as substance. A. Monoatomic B. Heterogeneous C. Homogeneous D. Pure 100. What refers to the temperature at which a pure substance changes phase at a given pressure? A. Equilibrium temperature B. Saturation temperature C. Superheated temperature D. Subcooled temperature 101. What refers to the pressure at which a pure substance changes phase at a given temperature? A. Equilibrium pressure B. Saturation pressure C. Superheated pressure D. Subcooled pressure 102. What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1 kg of the substance at its melting point from the solid to liquid state? A. Heat of fusion B. Heat of vaporation C. Heat of condensation D. Heat of fission 103. What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1kg of the substance at its boiling point from the liquid to the gaseous state? A. Heat of fusion B. Heat of vaporation C. Heat of condensation D. Heat of fission 104. What refers to the amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase- change process? A. Molar heat B. Latent heat C. Vaporization heat D. Condensation heat 105. What is the latent heat of fusion of water at 1 atm? A. 331.1 kJ/kg B. 332.6 kJ/kg C. 333.7 kJ/kg D. 330.7 kJ/kg 106. What is the latent heat of vaporization of water at 1 atm? A. 2314.8 kJ/kg B. 2257.1 kJ/kg C. 2511.7 kJ/kg D. 2429.8 kJ/kg 107. What refers to the point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are the same or identical? A. Triple point B. Inflection point C. Maximum point D. Critical point 108. What is defined as the direct conversion of a substance from the solid to the vapor state or vice versa without passing the liquid state? A. Condensation B. Vaporization C. Sublimation D. Cryogenation 109. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water through 1 °C is called . A. Calorie B. Joule C. BTU D. Kilocalorie 110. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1°F is called . A. Calorie B. Joule C. BTU D. Kilocalorie 111. 1 British thermal unit (BTU) is equivalent to how many joules? A. 1016 B. 1043 C. 1023 D. 1054 112. The term “enthalpy” comes from Greek “enthalpen” which means . A. Warm B. Hot C. Heat D. Cold 113. The ratio of the mass of vapor to the total mass of the mixture is called . A. Vapor ratio B. Vapor content C. Vapor index D. Quality 114. The “equation of state” refers to any equation that relates the of the substance. A. Pressure and temperature B. Pressure, temperature and specific weight C. Temperature and specific weight D. Pressure, temperature and specific volume 115. In the equation Pv = RT, the constant of proportionality R is known as . A. Universal gas constant B. Gas constant C. Ideal gas factor D. Gas index 116. The gas constant of a certain gas is the ratio of: A. Universal gas constant to molar mass B. Universal gas constant to atomic weight C. Universal gas constant to atomic number D. Universal gas constant to number of moles 117. What is the value of the universal gas constant in kJ/kmol ∙ K? A. 10.73 B. 1.986 C. 8.314 D. 1545 A. Combustion efficiency B. Thermal efficiency C. Overall efficiency D. Furnace efficiency 155. What refers to the amount of heat removed from the cooled space in BTS’s for 1 watt-hour of electricity consumed? A. Cost efficiency rating B. Energy efficiency rating C. Coefficient of performance D. Cost of performance 156. What law states that it is impossible to build a device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a lower- temperature body to a higher- temperature body? A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics B. First law of thermodynamics C. Second law of thermodynamics D. Third law of thermodynamics 157. What statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that it is impossible to build a device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a higher-temperature body? A. Kelvin-Planck statement B. Clausius statement C. Kelvin statement 160. A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a . A. Perpetual motion machine of the second kind B. Universal machine of the second kind C. Ambiguous machine of the second kind D. Unique machine of the second kind 161. Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was first proposed in what year? A. 1842 B. 1824 C. 1832 D. 1834 162. Who proposed the Carnot cycle? A. Sammy Carnot B. Sonny Carnot C. Sadi Carnot D. Suri Carnot 163. The Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 164. The Carnot cycle is composed of A. Carnot heat engine B. Ideal heat engine C. Most efficient heat engine D. Best heat engine 167. What states that thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two reservoirs are the same and that no heat engine is more efficient than a reversible one operating between the same two reservoirs? A. Ericson principle B. Carnot principle C. Otto principle D. Stirling principle 168. Who discovered the thermodynamic property “Entropy” in 1865? A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics B. First law of thermodynamics C. Second law of thermodynamics D. Third law of thermodynamics 169. A process during which entropy remains constant is called process A. Isometric B. Isochoric C. Isobaric D. Isentropic 170. “A reversible adiabatic process is necessarily isentropic but an D. Rankine statement processes. A. One isothermal and one isentropic process is not necessarily reversible adiabatic process.” This 158. A device that violates either the first law of thermodynamics or the second law of thermodynamics is known as . A. Ambiguous machine B. Universal machine C. Perpetual-motion machine D. Unique machine 159. A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a . A. Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind B. Universal machine of the first kind C. Ambiguous machine of the first kind D. Unique machine of the first kind adiabatic B. One isothermal and two adiabatic C. Two isothermal and one adiabatic D. Two isothermal and two adiabatic 165. What is the highest efficiency of heat engine operating between the two thermal energy reservoirs at temperature limits? A. Ericson efficiency B. Otto efficiency C. Carnot efficiency D. Stirling efficiency 166. What is a heat engine that operates on the reversible Carnot cycle called? statement is: A. True B. False C. May be true and may be false D. Absurd 171. The term “isentropic process” used in thermodynamics implies what? A. Reversible adiabatic process B. Externally reversible, adiabatic process C. Internally reversible, adiabatic process D. Irreversible adiabatic process 172. What states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute zero temperature is zero? A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics B. First law of thermodynamics C. Second law of thermodynamics D. Third law of thermodynamics 173. What law provides an absolute reference point for the determination of entropy? A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics B. First law of thermodynamics C. Second law of thermodynamics D. Third law of thermodynamics 174. “The entropy change of a system during a process is equal to the net entropy transfer through the system boundary and the entropy generated within the system”. This statement is known as: A. Entropy generation B. Entropy change of a system C. Entropy balance relation D. Third law of thermodynamics 175. What law states that entropy can be created but it cannot be destroyed? A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics B. First law of thermodynamics C. Second law of thermodynamics D. Third law of thermodynamics 176. Entropy is transferred by . A. Work B. Heat C. Energy D. Work and heat 177. During adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy? A. It is temperature-dependent B. It is always greater than zero C. It is always zero D. It is always less than zero 178. Water boils when: A. Its saturated vapor pressure equals to the atmospheric pressure B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury C. Its temperature reaches 212 degree Celsius D. Its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm 179. Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)? A. 0 degree Celsius and one atmosphere B. 32 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure C. 0 degree Kelvin and one atmosphere D. 0 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure 180. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric system? A. Zero B. Positive C. Negative D. Positive or negative 181. “At constant pressure, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure”. This is known as . A. Boyle’s Law B. Charles’s Law C. Gay-Lussac Law D. Ideal gas law 182. Which of the following is the mathematical representation of the Charles’s law? A. V1/V2= P2/P1 B. V1/T1=V2/T2 C. V1/T2=V2/T1 D. V1/V2=√P2/√P1 183. Which of the following is the formula for thermal resistance? A. Thickness of material/ thermal conductivity of material B. 2(thickness of material)/thermal conductivity of material C. Thickness of material/ 2(thermal conductivity of material) D. Thickness of material x thermal conductivity of material 184. In the process of radiation, energy is carried by electromagnetic waves. What is the speed of electromagnetic waves? A. 182,000 miles/second B. 184,000 miles/second C. 186,000 miles/second D. 188,000 miles/second 185. For heat engine operating between two temperatures (T1>T2), what is the maximum efficiency attainable? A. Eff = 1 –(T2/T1) B. Eff = 1 -(T1/T2) C. Eff = T1-T2 D. Eff = 1- (T2/T1)^2 186. Which one is the correct relation between energy efficiency ratio (EER) and coefficient of performance (COP)? A. EER = 2.34COP B. EER = 3.24COP C. EER = 3.42COP D. EER = 4.23COP 187. The coefficient of performance (COP) is the ratio between the: A. Power consumption in watts and heat absorbed per hour B. Heat absorbed per hour and the power consumption in watts C. Work required and the absorbed heat D. Absorbed heat and work required 188. What predicts the approximate molar specific heat at high temperatures from the atomic weight? A. Third law of thermodynamics B. Law of Dulong and Petit C. Mollier diagram D. Pressure-enthalpy diagram 189. Considering one mole of any gas, the equation of state of ideal gases is simply the law. A. Gay-Lussac law B. Dulong and Petit C. Avogadro’s D. Henry’s 190. An ideal gas whose specific heats are constant is called . A. Perfect gas B. Natural gas C. Artificial gas D. Refined gas 191. What are the assumptions of the kinetic gas theory? A. Gas molecules do not attract each other B. The volume of the gas molecules is negligible compared to the volume of the gas C. The molecules behave like hard spheres D. All of the above 192. “The total volume of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial volumes.” This statement is known as . A. Law of Dulong and Petit B. Maxwell-Boltzmann law C. Amagat’s law D. Avogadro’s law 193. An adiabatic process in which there is no change in system enthalpy but for which there is a significant decrease in pressure is called . A. Isochoric process B. Isobaric process C. Throttling process D. Quasistatic process 194. What is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure when a real gas is throttled? A. Rankine coefficient B. Kelvin coefficient C. Maxwell-Boltzmann coefficient D. Joule-Thomson coefficient 195. The low temperature reservoir of the heat reservoirs is known as . A. Source reservoir B. Heel reservoir C. Toe reservoir D. Sink reservoir 196. A is a flow in which the gas flow is adiabatic and frictionless and entropy change is zero. A. Isentropic flow B. Isobaric flow C. Steady flow D. Uniform flow 197. What refers to the minimum temperature at which combustion can be sustained? A. Burn temperature B. Kindle temperature C. Spark temperature D. Ignition temperature 198. What law predicts the dew point of moisture in the fuel gas? A. Dalton’s law B. Law of Dulong and Petit C. Ringelman law D. Amagat’s law 199. What law states that one energy from can be converted without loss into another form? A. Amagat’s law B. Joule’s law C. Lussac’s law D. Henry’s law 200. Which is NOT a correct statement? A. A superheated vapor will not condense when small amount of heat re removed B. An ideal gas is a gas that is not a superheated vapor C. A saturated liquid can absorb as much heat as it can without vaporizing D. Water at 1 atm and room temperature is subcooled MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS in PHYSICS 1. What is the standard unit of mass? A. Kilogram B. Pound C. Gram D. Newton 2. What is defined as the distance the light travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 second? A. Yard B. Feet C. Meter D. Inch 3. What is the SI unit of work? A. Newton B. Watt C. Newton-Second D. Joule 4. What is the SI unit of power? A. Newton B. Watt C. Newton-Second D. Joule 5. What is the SI unit of temperature? A. Fahrenheit B. Kelvin C. Celsius D. Rankine 6. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity? A. Candela B. Lumens C. Lux D. Candlepower 7. What is the unit of relative intensity? A. Pa B. N-m C. C.N-m/s D. Unitless 8. What is the SI unit of pressure? A. Pa B. N-m C. N/m D. N-m/s 9. Which one is equivalent of the unit “Pascal’? A. N/nm2 B. N/m2 C. N/m D. D.N/nm 59. Work is defined as the product of: A. Force and displacement B. Force and time C. Displacement and time D. Power and time 60. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done? A. impulse B. Momentum C. Power D. Energy 61. What is defined as any influence that can change the velocity of an object? A. Impulse B. Force C. Energy D. Work 62. What is a measure of the inertia of an object? A. Density B. Weight C. Mass D. Force 63. What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to change its state of rest or of uniform motion? A. Impulse B. Momentum C. Inertia D. Equilibrium 64. “If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will remain in motion at constant velocity”. This statement is the . A. first law of motion B. second law of motion C. third law of motion D. d’Alembert’s principle 65. “The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and the acceleration of the object. The direction of the force is the same as that of the acceleration”. This statement is the . A. first law of motion B. second law of motion C. third law of motion D. d’ Alembert’s principle 66. “When an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts on the first a force of the same magnitude but in the opposite direction”. This statement is the . A. first law of motion B. second law of motion C. third law of motion D. d’Alembert’s principle 67. What refers to the force with which the earth attracts an object? A. Gravitational pull B. Mass C. Weight D. All of the above 68. How many kilograms are there in 1 slug? A. 11.9 B. 12.5 C. 13.2 D. D.14.6 69. What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose relative motion between contracting surfaces? A. Action force B. Reaction force C. Friction D. Drag 70. What refers to the force between two stationary surfaces in contact that prevents motion between them? A. kinetic friction B. sliding friction C. starting friction D. static friction 71. What is the maximum value of the static friction? A. Starting friction B. Sliding friction C. Kinetic friction D. Dynamic friction 72. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction? A. Kinetic friction is always to static friction B. Kinetic friction is always less than static friction C. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction D. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction 73. What is another term for kinetic friction? A. Dynamic friction B. Starting friction C. Sliding friction D. All of the above 74. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of static friction and coefficient of kinetic friction? A. Coefficient of static friction is always less than the coefficient of kinetic friction B. B. Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction C. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction. D. Coefficient of static friction may be greater than or less than the coefficient of kinetic friction. 75. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of: A. power output to power input B. power input to power output C. total work done to total energy D. total energy to total power 76. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its motion? A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Rest energy D. Mechanical energy 77. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its mass? A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Rest energy D. Mechanical energy 78. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its position? A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Rest energy D. Mechanical energy 79. When the vector sum of the external forces acting on the system of particles equals zero, the total linear momentum of the system . A. becomes zero B. maximizes C. changes abruptly D. remains constant 80. What is conserved in an elastic collision? A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Rest energy D. Mechanical energy 81. In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This statement is: A. true B. false C. is either true or false, depending upon the colliding bodies D. is either true or false, depending on the impact of two colliding bodies 82. When can we say that a collision is a completely inelastic collision? A. When the kinetic energy lost is minimum. B. When the kinetic energy is conserved. C. When the two colliding objects stick together after impact. D. When the two colliding objects will separate after impact. 83. What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a completely inelastic collision? A. It is conserved. B. It is lost to maximum value. C. It is gained from the loss of potential energy. D. It is lost to minimum value. 84. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of: A. relative speed after collision to relative speed before collision B. relative speed before collision to relative speed after collision C. relative speed to absolute speed D. absolute speed to relative speed 85. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision? A. 0 B. 1 C. Less than 1 D. Greater than 1 86. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision? A. 0 B. 1 C. Less than 1 D. Greater than 1 87. The coefficient of restitution always applies . A. to only one of the colliding objects B. to neither of the colliding objects C. jointly to the colliding objects D. to the bigger colliding object 88. “When the vector sum of the external forces acting on a system of particles equals zero, the total linear momentum of the system remaining constant.” This statement is known as: A. Law of universal gravitation B. Law of conservation of impulse C. Law of conservation of momentum D. Law of conservation of energy 89. What refers to the product of the force and the time during which a force acts? A. Impulse B. Momentum C. Power D. Energy 90. Momentum is the product of: A. mass and time B. velocity and mass C. force and time D. force and mass 91. The coefficient of restitution always applies . A. to only one of the colliding objects B. to neither of the colliding C. jointly to the colliding objects D. to the bigger colliding object 92. What refers to the force perpendicular to the velocity of an object moving along a curve path? A. Centrifugal force B. Centripetal force C. Reverse-effective force D. Gravitational force 93. The centripetal force is: A. directed away from the center of the curvature of the path B. directed toward the center of curvature of the path C. tangent to the curvature of the path D. either directed away or toward the center of curvature of the path 94. What refers to the time needed by an object in uniform circular motion to complete an orbit? A. path time B. orbit time C. revolution D. period 95. The centripetal acceleration of a particle in uniform motion is to the radius of its path. A. directly proportional B. inversely proportional C. equal D. not related in any way 96. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the universe by virtue of their . A. mass B. density C. weight D. volume 97. “Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance separating them”. This statement is known as: A. Law of conservation of energy B. Law of universal gravitation C. Law of conservation of momentum D. Law of conservation of impulse 98. The gravitational force of the earth on an object varies of the the distance of the object from the center of the earth. A. inversely as B. inversely as the square of C. directly as D. directly as the square of 99. A rotating body has kinetic energy. This statement is . A. sometimes true B. sometimes false C. always true D. always false 100. What type of energy is usually transmitted by rotary motion? A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Mechanical energy D. Rest energy 101. Angular momentum is the product of . A. moment of inertia and linear speed B. moment of area and angular speed C. moment of inertia and angular speed D. moment of area and angular speed 102. “When the sum of the external torques acting on a system of particles is zero, the total angular momentum of the system remains constant “. This statement is known as: A. Conservation of energy B. Conservation of impulse C. Conservation of linear momentum D. Conservation of angular momentum 103. What particles will experience tangential acceleration? A. Those particles whose angular speed changes B. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant C. All particles D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero. 104. The of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of mass of the body is distributed about the axis. A. moment of mass B. moment of area C. moment of inertia D. torque 105. The of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude of the force and the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis. A. inertia B. mass moment C. torque D. moment 106. When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in . A. unstable equilibrium B. stable equilibrium C. rotational equilibrium D. translational equilibrium 107. Which of the following is an example of a neutral equilibrium? A. A cone balanced on its apex. B. A cone balanced on its base. C. A cone on its side. D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base. 108. Which of the following is an example of a stable equilibrium? A. A cone balanced on its apex. B. A cone balanced on its base. C. A cone on its side. D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base. 109. A device that transmits force or torque is called . A. mechanical tool B. machine C. axle D. wedge 110. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium? A. stable equilibrium B. neutral equilibrium C. unstable equilibrium D. translational equilibrium 111. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in . A. unstable equilibrium B. stable equilibrium C. rotational equilibrium D. translational equilibrium 112. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine? A. lever B. incline plane C. hydraulic press D. wedge 113. Where is the center of gravity of an object located? A. It is always inside the object. B. It is always outside the object. C. It is always at its geometric center. D. It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object. 114. What is defined as the mass per unit volume? A. Density B. Weight density C. Relative density D. Specific density 115. What is defined as the weight per unit volume? A. Density B. Weight density C. Relative density D. Specific density 116. All are values of the density of water except one. Which one? A. 1000 kg/m3 B. 62.4 lb/ft3 C. 10 g/cm3 D. 9.81 kN/m3 117. The of a substance is its density relative to that of water? A. density B. weight density C. viscosity D. specific gravity 118. What is another term for specific gravity? A. Density B. Weight density C. Relative density D. Viscosity 119. What is the average pressure of the earth’s atmosphere at sea level? A. 1.042 bar B. 1.021 bar C. 1.013 bar D. 1.037 bar 120. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the volume of the fluid”. This statement is known as . A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem B. Pascal’s principle C. Archimedes principle D. Torricelli’s theorem 121. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one? A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem B. Pascal’s principle C. Archimedes principle D. Reynold’s principle 122. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one? A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem B. Pascal’s principle C. Archimedes principle D. Reynold’s principle between the two media. What is this phenomenon called? A. Dispersion B. Reflection C. Refraction D. Incidence 165. “Every point on the wavefront can be considered as a source of secondary wavelets that spread out in all directions with the wave speed of the medium. The wavefront at any time is the envelope of these wavelets”. This statement is known as . A. Huygen’s principle B. Snell’s law C. Maxwell’s hypothesis D. Doppler’s effect 166. What is an imaginary surface the joins points where all the waves from a source are in the same phase of oscillation? A. Gamma ray B. Wavefront C. Electromagnetic wave D. Microwave 167. What refers to the effect when a beam containing more than one frequency is split into a corresponding number of different beams when it is refracted? A. Flux B. Refraction C. Reflection D. Dispersion 168. What refers to the band of colors that emerges from the prism? A. Spectrum B. Luminance C. Facet D. Reflection 169. What is the index of refraction of air? A. 1.3 B. 1.03 C. 1.003 D. 1.0003 170. What is the index of refraction of water? A. 1.33 B. 1.63 C. 1.43 D. 1.53 171. What type of lens deviates parallel light outward as though it originated at a single virtual focal point? A. Magnifying lens B. Convergent lens C. Divergent lens D. Microscopic lens 172. What type of lens bring parallel light to a single real focal point? A. Magnifying lens B. Convergent lens C. Divergent lens D. Microscopic lens 173. Which one best describes the meniscus lens? A. It has only concave surfaces. B. It has only convex surfaces. C. it has no concave surface and no convex surface. D. It has one concave surface and one convex surface 174. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called? A. Focal index B. Focal factor C. Focal length D. All of the above 175. In optical system, what refers to the ratio of the image height to the object height? A. Linear magnification B. Object magnification C. Image magnification D. Height magnification 176. If the linear magnification of an optical system is less than one, it means that: A. the image and the object are of the same size B. the image is larger than the object C. the image is smaller than the object D. the image may be larger or smaller than the object 177. A camera usually uses what type of lens to form an image on a light-sensitive photographic film? A. Magnifying lens B. Convergent lens C. Divergent lens D. Microscopic lens 178. One of the common defects of vision is commonly known as nearsightedness. A. hyporopia B. hyperopia C. myopia D. minorpia 179. One of the common defects of vision is commonly known as farsightedness. A. hyporopia B. hyperopia C. myopia D. minorpia 180. What lens is commonly used to correct nearsightedness? A. Magnifying lens B. Convergent lens C. Divergent lens D. Microscopic lens 181. What lens is commonly used to correct farsightedness? A. Magnifying lens B. Convergent lens C. Divergent lens D. Microscopic lens 182. What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea having different curvatures in different planes? A. Astigmatism B. Myopia C. Hyperopia D. Presbyopia 183. In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between the angles subtended at the eye by the image and the angle subtended at the eye by the object seen directly? A. Magnifying power B. Linear magnification C. Angular magnification D. Object magnification 184. What type of mirror that curves inward its center and converges parallel light to a single real focal point? A. Convex mirror B. Concave mirror C. Spherical mirror D. Chromatic mirror 185. What type of mirror that curves outward toward its center and diverges parallel light as though the reflected light came from a single virtual focal point behind the mirror? A. Convex mirror B. Concave mirror C. Spherical mirror D. Chromatic mirror 186. What refers to an artificially made polarizing material that transmits light with only a single plane of polarization? A. Quartz B. Fiber optic C. Polaroid D. Tounnaline 187. In optical system, what refers to its ability to produce separate images of nearby objects? A. Coherent power B. Brewster’s power C. Polarization power D. Resolving power 188. The resolving power of an equal system is the objective lens of the optical system? A. directly proportional B. inversely proportional C. equal D. not related to 189. What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the edges of obstacles in their paths? A. Coherence B. Reflection C. Refraction D. Diffraction 190. What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a spectrum through the interference of light that is diffracted? A. Diffraction grating B. Polarization C. Coherent waves D. Reflection 191. The emission of electrons from a metal surface when light shines on it is called . A. Absorption effect B. Spectrum emission C. Quantum effect D. Photoelectric effect 192. What are high-frequency electromagnetic waves emitted when fast electrons impinge on matter? A. Beta rays B. Alpha rays C. X-rays D. De Broglie waves 193. What refers to the increase in the measured mass of an object when it is moving relative to an observer? A. Exclusion principle B. Quantum theory of mass C. State of mass D. Relativity of mass 194. What device is used for producing a narrow, monochromatic, coherent beam of light? A. Spectral device B. Prism C. Fiber optic D. Laser 195. What consists of various wavelengths of light emitted by an excited substance? A. Excited spectrum B. Light spectrum C. Absorption spectrum D. Emission spectrum 196. What consists of various wavelengths of light absorbed by a substance when white light is passed through it? A. Excited spectrum B. Light spectrum C. Absorption spectrum D. Emission spectrum 197. Every electron has a certain amount of angular momentum called its . A. spin B. shell C. state D. quantum number 198. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called? A. Focal index B. Focal factor C. Focal length D. All of the above 199. What does LASER stands for? A. Light amplification by spectral emission of radiation B. Light amplification by state emission of radiation C. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation D. Light amplification by saturated emission of radiation 200. A free falling object is acted upon by which of the following? A. Weight of the body B. Air resistance and gravitational pull C. Gravitational pull D. Air resistance 201. If the forces acting on a falling body balance one another, the body continues to fall at a constant velocity. What is thus constant velocity called? A. Instantaneous velocity B. Free-falling body C. Gravitational velocity D. Terminal velocity 202. The first law of motion is also known as . A. Law of acceleration B. Law of inertia C. Law of interaction D. Law of momentum 203. The second law of motion is also known as . A. Law of acceleration B. Law of inertia C. Law of interaction D. Law of momentum 204. The third law of motion is also known as . A. Law of acceleration B. Law of inertia C. Law of interaction D. Law of momentum 205. Air exerts force that is opposite to the car’s motion. What is this force called? A. Reverse effective force B. Terminal force C. Drag force D. Aerodynamic force 206. What instrument is used to measure blood pressure of human beings? A. Stropomanometer B. Pumpmanometer C. Electromanometer D. Sphygmomanometer 207. What do light, radiowaves, microwaves and X-rays have in common? A. These waves were predicted by only one person, James Maxwell. B. These do not need a medium to travel in. C. These waves are all mechanical waves. D. These waves are all serendipitous discoveries. 208. Who predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves in 1865? A. Roentgen B. Maxwell C. Tesla D. Doppler 209. What is the velocity of light in meters per second? A. 3 x 10^6 B. 3 x 10^9 C. 3 x 10^7 D. 3 x 10^8 210. What is the sound level of the threshold of pain? A. 100 dB B. 110 dB C. 120 dB D. 130 dB 211. What is the intensity in W/m2 of the threshold of pain? A. 1 B. 10 C. 0.1 D. 0.01 212. What is the intensity of the threshold of hearing in W/m2? A. 10^-12 B. 10^-10 C. 10^-8 D. 10^-6 213. What refers to a measure of the energy of sound? A. Intensity B. Loudness C. Pitch D. Sone 214. What refers to the sensation in the ear which depends on the energy in the sound wave? A. Pitch B. Intensity C. Loudness D. Timbre 215. How can loudness of sound be increased? A. By increasing the energy of sound B. By preventing sound waves to spread in different directions. C. By collecting and focusing sound waves at the receiving end. D. All of the choices. 216. Which of the following is dependent upon the frequency of sound vibrations? A. Timbre B. Loudness C. Intensity D. Pitch 217. The “Doppler effect” is named after which scientist? A. Christopher Jacques Doppler B. Christian Jacques Doppler C. Christopher Jason Doppler D. Christian Johann Doppler 218. When a person tells you that the pitch of your voice is high, he is referring to . A. the intensity of your voice B. the number of sound waves you are sending out per second C. the loudness of your voice D. the equality of your voice 219. At what intensity level will a noise be considered pollutant in the environment? A. Above 50 dB B. Above 100 dB C. Above 120 dB D. Above 150 dB 220. The velocity of sound in air increases by how many m/s for every 1ºC increase in temperature? A. 0.2 B. 0.4 C. 0.6 D. 0.8 221. Why is sound wave travel faster in water than in air? A. Because water has greater density than air. B. Because water has greater bulk modulus than air. C. Because water has more in terms of number of molecules than air. D. Because water has more in volume than air. 222. What will happen to the wavelength if the velocity and frequency of a wave are both reduced to one-half? A. It will double. B. It will reduce in half. C. It will quadruple. D. It will remain the same. 223. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. A high-frequency sound has high pitch. B. A high-frequency sound has low pitch. C. A high-frequency sound has low energy. D. A high-frequency sound has low pitch and low energy. 224. What part of the human ear where sound energy is converted into electrical energy? A. Ear drum B. Cochlea C. Tympanum D. Ear canal 225. In which medium do sound waves travel the faster? A. Liquids B. Solids C. Gases D. Vacuum 226. Who provide evidence that light and electromagnetic waves have the same nature and that they travel at the same speed and exhibit the same properties such as refraction, reflection and interference? A. Townes B. Maxwell C. Hertz D. Huygens 227. Which of the following has the smallest wavelength band? A. Blue B. Indigo C. Green D. Yellow 228. What color has the longest wavelength? D. effective aperture to magnifying power of the lens 285. What refers to the length of time during which half of a given number of radioactive nuclei will disintegrate? A. active life B. half cycle C. half life D. half period 286. What refers to the lowest pitch produced by a musical tone source? A. Treble B. Bass C. Octave D. Fundamental 287. What is an electromagnetic radiation of very short wavelength emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive atom? A. Beta ray B. Alpha ray C. Gamma ray D. X-ray 288. What is an instrumental used to detect and measure radioactivity? A.Edison counter B. Radioactive counter C. Fraunhofer counter D.Geiger effect 289. What refers to the fundamentals and the tones whose frequencies are whole number multiples of the fundamentals? A. Harmony B. Beats C. Treble and bass D. Harmonics 290. A spectrum consisting of monochromatic slit images having wavelengths characteristic of the atoms parent is called . A. line spectrum B. continuous spectrum C. slit spectrum D. image spectrum 291. What is an instrument used to determine the mass of atomic particles? A. Mass indicator B. Mass spectrograph C. Mass counter D. Mass technograph 292. What is a nucleon? A. A proton in the nucleus of an atom. B. An electron in the nucleus of an atom. C. A neutron in the nucleus of an atom. D. A proton or a neutron of an atom. 293. What is a glass bottle used to determine the specific gravity of liquids? A. Beaker B. Flask C. Pyonometer D. Graduated cylinder 294. What is an instrument used to determine the angle of rotation of the plane of polarized light? A. Polariscope B. Polarimeter C. Polargraph D. Polagraph 295. What refers to the property of sound waves which depends on the number of harmonics present and on their prominence? A. Pitch B. Quality C. Harmonic D. Fundamental 296. What refers to the failure of one set of color receptors in the eye to be stimulated? A. Retinal failure B. Retinal fatigue C. Pupil imperfection D. Astigmatism 297. The theory that the retina of the eye is provided with three sets of receptors, each of which is sensitive to one of the three primary colors is known as . A. True color vision theory B. Young – Helmholtz color vision theory C. Primary vision theory D. Young – Huygen primary vision theory 298. What is a probable explanation for observe phenomena which is supported by abundant data? A. Theory B. Hypothesis C. Axiom D. Conclusion 299. A tempered scale is a musical scale with equal frequency ratio intervals between the successive notes of an octave. A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 1 300. What is unifying theory applicable to the divergent phenomena of light which assumes that the transfer of energy between light and matter occurs only in discrete quantities proportional to the frequency of the energy transferred? A. Quantum theory B. Radioactive theory C. Nuclear energy D. Quark energy 301. The wavelength of a source wave in a certain material as measured is 18 cm. The frequency of the wave is 1900 Hz. Compute the speed of sound wave? A. 342 m/s B. 400 m/s C. 542 m/s D. 300 m/s 302. A horizontal cord 5 m long has a mass of 2.5 grams. What must be the tension in the cord if the wavelength of a 120 Hz wave on it is to be 50 cm? A. 1.50 N B. 1.80 N C. 2.50 N D. 4.30 N 303. A 3-m string is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator at its end. Determine the speed of transverse waves on the string if it resonates four segments? A. 340 m/s B. 360 m/s C. 430 m/s D. 420 m/ 304. A guitar string 30 cm long resonates in its fundamental to a frequency of 250 Hz. What is the tension in the string if 80 cm of the string “weighs” 0.80 grams? A. 20 N B. 30 N C. 10 N D. 40 N 305. A piano string with a length of 1.17 m and a mass of 21.0 g in under tension of 6.4 x 103 N, what is the fundamental frequency? A. 225 Hz B. 187 Hz C. 255 Hz D. 290 Hz 306. A rope 4 ft long weighs 0.7 lb. A blow on the rope produces a transverse wave. Determine the velocity of the wave considering that the tension is 40 lb. A. 75.8 ft/s B. 95.7 ft/s C. 78.5 ft/s D. 85.8 ft/s 307. What is the relative intensity level of sound in decibels it its intensity is 3 x 10^-7 W/cm^2? A. 94.8 B. 78.7 C. 80.5 D. 75.4 308. A wave has pressure amplitude of 5 dynes/cm^2 and a velocity of 35.7 m/s, what is the absolute intensity considering that 0.001293gm/cm? A. 1.27 x 10^-8 W/cm^2 B. 1.47 x 10^-8 W/cm^2 C. 3.27 x 10^-8 W/cm^2 D. 2.71 x 10^-8 W/cm^2 309. A train blowing its whistle at 750 Hz approaches a station at the rate of 35mph. What frequency is heard by a man standing at the station considering the velocity of sound in air 1100 ft/s? A. 739.7 Hz B. 857.4 Hz C. 716.4 Hz D. 786.7 Hz 310. Two cars A and B are traveling toward each other at speeds of 45km/hr and 70 km/hr respectively. If A blowing its horn, what is the relative pitch heard by a passenger in B, considering that the velocity of sound is 344 m/s A. 1.043 B. 1.021 C. 1.096 D. 1.078 311. An explosion occurs at a distance of 5 km from the observer. How long after the explosion does a person hear if the temperature is 18°C? Note: the speed of sound at STP (standard temperature and pressure) is 332 m/s and changes by 0.6 m/s for every 1 °C change in temperature. A. 14.58 s B. 12.45 s C. 11.87 s D. 17.54 s 312. What is the speed of sound in neon gas at temperature of 25°C considering that the molecular mass if this gas is 20.18 kg/mol? Neon is monoatomic. Use k = 1.67 A. 543.7 m/s B. 478.6 m/s C. 321.7 m/s D. 447.5 m/s 313. What is the wavelength of yellow light whose frequency is 5 x 10^14 Hz? A. 800 mm B. 200 mm C. 600 mm D. 700 mm 314. What is the angle of refraction of light as a beam of parallel light enters a block of ice at angle of incidence of 30°? The index of refraction of ice is 1.31 and that of air is 1.0. A. 45° B. 30° C. 22° D. 26° 315. A light ray is incident at an angle of 45° on one side of a glass plate of index of refraction 1.6. Find the angle at which the ray emerges from the other side of the plate. A. 26° B. 20° C. 22° D. 28° 316. It was found out that the speed of light in water is 75% of its speed in vacuum. What is the index of refraction of water? A. 1.46 B. 1.33 C. 1.26 D. 1.67 317. A glass plate is 0.6 cm thick and has a refractive index of 1.55. Compute how long will it take for a pulse of light to pass through the plate? A. 4.41 x 10^-12 s B. 3.11 x 10^-11 s C. 1.34 x 10^-12 s D. 2.34 x 10^-11 s 318. A light passes from glass to water. If the index of refraction for glass is 1.54 and for water is 1.33, compute the critical angle for this light to pass the glass. A. 59.7° B. 45.8° C. 67.4° D. 50.9° 319. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 1000 lumens and distributed uniformly over 25% of a sphere. What is the luminous intensity at 2.5- meter distance? A. 413 cd B. 243 cd C. 134 cd D. 318 cd 320. A light bulb emits a total luminous flux of 1700 lumens, distributed uniformly over a hemisphere. What is the illuminance at a distance of 2 meters? A. 67.65 lm/m^2 B. 35.70 lm/m^2 C. 59.87 lm/m^2 D. 23.56 lm/m^2 321. A light bulb is used to light a bunker 10 ft below. A chair sits on the floor of the bunker 3 feet from a spot directly below the bulb. What is the illumination on the floor around the chair if the luminous intensity is 150 candles? A. 2.38 footcandles B. 2.43 footcandles C. 3.87 footcandles D. 1.38 footcandles 322. A light ray passing through air and strikes a glass surface at an angle of 55° from the normal surface. What is the angle between the reflected light and the surface? A. 55° B. 25° C. 35° D. 45° 323. A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed 37 cm in front of a screen. At what distance that the object be placed so that its image appears on the screen? A. 43.5 cm B. 35.7 cm C. 27.6 cm D. 50.7 cm 324. In what positions will a converging lens of focal length 10 cm from an image of luminous object on a screen located 50 cm from the object? A. 11.52 cm and 38.48 cm from the object B. 10 cm and 40 cm from the object C. 13.82 cm and 36.18 cm from the object D. 12.56 cm and 37.44 cm from the object 325. A lens has a convex surface of radius 17 cm and a concave surface of radius 38 cm and is made of glass of refractive index 1.55. Calculate the focal length of the lens and classify the type of lens whether diverging or converging? A. 55.93 cm converging lens B. 57.45 cm diverging lens C. 55.93 cm diverging lens D. 57.45 cm converging lens 326. A double convex lens has faces of radii 16 and 18 cm. When an object is 20 cm from the lens, a real image is formed 30 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens? A. 11 cm B. 10 cm C. 12 cm D. 14 cm 327. A double convex lens has faces of radii 22 and 24 cm. When an object is 30 cm from the lens, a real image is formed 45 cm from the lens. Compute the refractive index of the lens material A. 1.64 B. 1.32 C. 1.21 D. 1.76 328. A 50 watt incandescent lamp has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 66.5 candelas. Compute the total luminous flux radiated by the lamp? A. 842 lm B. 457 lm C. 786 lm D. 987 lm 329. A 250 W light source has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 87.5 candelas. Compute the luminous intensity of the lamp? A. 4.7 lm/s B. 4.4 lm/s C. 2.0 lm/s D. 1.7 lm/s 330. Compute the illumination on a surface 5 ft distance from a 100-cd source if the surface makes an angle of 18° with the rays? A. 1.67 lm/ft^2 B. 1.50 lm/ft^2 C. 1.24 lm/ft^2 D. 2.13 lm/ft^2 331. Estimate the distance for which a 30- cd lamp provide the same illumination as a standard lamp of 80- cd placed 17 ft from the screen? A. 9.76 ft B. 8.5 ft C. 12.7 ft D. 10.41 ft 332. A Plano-convex lens has a focal length of 35 cm and an index of refraction 1.53. Find the radius of the convex surface. A. 18.55 cm B. 15.78 cm C. 20.78 cm D. 17.55 cm 333. If a beam of polarized light has one- twelfth of its initial intensity after passing through an analyzer, what is the angle between the axis of the analyzer and the initial amplitude of the beam? A. 65.73° B. 76.27° C. 73.22° D. 67.54° 334. An observer sees a spaceship, measured 100 m long when at rest. He passed by in uniform motion with the speed of 0.5 c. While the observer is watching the spaceship, a time of 2 s elapses on a clock on board the ship, what is the length of the moving spaceship? A. 82 m B. 85 m C. 83 m D. 87 m 335. The captain of a spacecraft send a pulse of light towards earth and then exactly 1 min. later (as measured by the clock on the spacecraft), sends a second pulse. An observer on earth sees the second pulse arrive 4 minutes after the first. What is the velocity of the spacecraft relative to the earth? A. 0.987c B. 0.968c C. 0.954c D. 0.953c 336. What is the rest energy of electron equivalent to its rest mass? 1Mev = 1.60 x 10^-13 J and mass of electron is 9.11 x 10^-31 kg. A. 0.512 MeV B. 0.987 MeV C. 0.345 MeV D. 0.675 MeV 337. What is the frequency of photon having energy of 2 eV? A. 560 THz B. 300 THz C. 250 THz D. 480 THz 338. A red light passes an empty space. What is the momentum of a single photon of red light whose frequency is 400 x 10^12 HZ? A. 8.8 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s B. 7.6 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s C. 5.4 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s D. 6.5 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s 339. The eye can detect as little as 1 x 10^- 18 J of electromagnetic energy. How many photons of orange light whose wavelength is 600 nm present in the energy? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 1 340. What is the speed of sound through compressed water (100 kPa) if its volume decreased by 0.005% of its original volume? A. 1414 m/s B. 1250 m/s C. 1130 m/s D. 1200 m/s 341. What is the bulk modulus of steel if the sound waves traveled at approximately 5900 m/s? Note: the density of steel is 7900 kg/m^3 A. 2.75 x 10^11 Pa B. 1.25 x 10^11 Pa C. 1.15 x 10^11 Pa D. 2.45 x 10^11 Pa 342. A certain loud speaker has a circular opening with a diameter of 15 cm. Assume that the sound it emits is 32. By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes ? A. Authority B. Responsibility C. Accountability D. All of the above 33. What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose only? A. Interim committee B. Temporary committee C. Standing committee D. Ad hoc committee 34. What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished? A. Efficiency B. Effectiveness C. Ability to manage D. Decision- making ability 35. An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be if he finished the job within the required period of 20 days A. Efficient B. Effective C. Reliable D. Qualified 36. If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come out with the same output, he is said to be more . A. Managerial skill B. Economical C. Effective D. Efficient 37. To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that is used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a subject? A. Interest test B. Aptitude test C. Performance test D. Personality test 38. What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom instruction in particular subject? A. On-the-job training B. Vestibule school C. Apprenticeship program D. In-basket 39. What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in the project regardless of the personnel’s assignment in the organization? A. Top authority B. Line authority C. Staff authority D. Functional authority 40. When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of authority? A. Top authority B. Line authority C. Staff authority D. Functional authority 41. When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the determining the scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This refers to . A. Division of labor B. Delegation of authority C. Departmentation D. Span of control 42. When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of related jobs, activities, or processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to: A. Division of labor B. Delegation of authority C. Departmentation D. Span of control 43. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative evaluation? A. Comparison technique B. Intuition and subjective judgment C. Rational technique D. Analytical technique 44. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative evaluation? A. Rational and analytical techniques B. Intuition and subjective judgment C. Comparison in number technique D. Cost analysis 45. What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in terms of products, services and markets? A. Corporate mission B. Corporate vision C. Corporate character D. Corporate identity 46. What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically toward achieving objectives? A. Power B. Leadership C. Teamwork D. Charisma 47. What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both customer’s waiting time and cost of service? A. Queuing theory B. Network model C. Sampling theory D. Simulation 48. What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations involving limited or partial information about the decision environment? A. Sampling theory B. Linear programming C. Decision theory D. Simulation 49. What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to be used for a number of processes, such as quality control and marketing research? A. Sampling theory B. Linear programming C. Statistical decision theory D. Simulation 50. The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers to the need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest? A. Physiological need B. Security need C. Esteem need D. Self- actualization need 51. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job? A. Training B. Development C. Vestibule D. Specialized courses 52. What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard activities? A. Benchmark job technique B. Parametric technique C. Modular technique D. Non- modular technique 53. What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise? A. Functional organization B. Territorial organization C. Process organization D. Product organization 54. What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit? A. Functional organization B. Territorial organization C. Process organization D. Product organization 55. What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills? A. Functional organization B. Matrix organization C. Process organization D. Product organization 56. In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon? A. Functional organization B. Matrix organization C. Process organization D. Product organization 57. Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization? A. Rapid reaction organization B. Adaptation to changing environment C. State-of-the-art technology D. Better utilization of resources 58. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization? A. Dual accountability of personnel B. Conflicts between project and functional managers C. Profit-and-loss accountability difficult D. Inefficient use of specialist 59. Which one is an advantage projectized organization? A. Efficient use of technical personnel B. Good project schedule and cost control C. Single point for customer contact D. Rapid reaction time possible 60. Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization? A. Uncertain technical direction B. Inefficient use of specialist C. Insecurity regarding future job assignments D. Slower work flow 61. Which one is an advantage of a functional organization? A. Efficient use of technical personnel B. Rapid reaction time possible C. Career continuity and growth of technical personnel D. Good technology transfer between projects 62. Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization? A. Weak customer interface B. Weak project authority C. Inefficient use of specialist D. Slower work flow 63. In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of the project and is often assigned a budget? A. Functional organization B. Matrix organization C. Projectized organization D. Project coordinated organization 64. In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion? A. Finance and accounting B. Customer relation C. Location D. Technology 65. What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects? A. Overhead cost B. Type of technology used C. Location of the project D. Level of uncertainty in projects 66. If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his to reach a compromise solution. A. Leadership B. Tradeoff analysis skill C. Authority D. Decision-making skill 67. Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction? A. Functional manager B. Project manager C. Chief engineer D. Department supervisor 68. Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently and effectively? A. Area manager B. Sales manager C. Functional manager D. Project manager 69. What is the major activity of the project support office? A. Administrative support for projects B. Support for tools and techniques C. Overall project management support D. Project management via the internet 70. What is the major activity of the project office? A. Administrative support for projects B. Support for tools and techniques C. Overall project management support D. Project management via internet 71. What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project’s work content? A. Linear responsibility chart B. Gantt chart C. Life cycle model D. Project design chart 72. What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each project element? A. Linear responsibility chart B. Matrix responsibility chart C. Responsibility interface matrix D. All of the above 73. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only one time factor per activity? A. Forecasting B. Critical path method C. Program evaluation review technique D. Simulation 74. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity? A. Forecasting B. Critical path method C. Program evaluation review technique D. Simulation 75. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for? A. Critical plan method B. Critical path method C. Critical project method D. Coordinated plan method 76. For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands for? A. Project evaluation review technique B. Program evaluation review technique C. Path evaluation review technique D. Program execution review technique 77. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project management? A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project. B. They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks C. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the probability that the project will be completed by a specific date D. All of the above 78. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year? A. 1957 B. 1958 C. 1959 D. 1960 79. In what year was PERT developed? A. 1957 B. 1958 C. 1959 D. 1960 80. In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in sequence? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 81. What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model? A. Planning and design B. Feasibility C. Production D. Turnover and startup 82. Risk management is: A. Risk avoidance B. Controlling risk C. To gain opportunities D. All of the above 83. What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project? A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule B. Use a different technology C. Use a different supplier D. Buying insurance 84. Buying insurance is a form of: A. Risk elimination B. Risk reduction C. Risk sharing D. Risk absorption 85. What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate its consequences? A. Reliability management B. Risk management C. Quality assurance management D. Project assurance management 86. What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies? A. Risk management B. Risk-benefit analysis C. Benefit management D. Uncertainty analysis 87. What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need to get an approval from his or her manager? A. Responsibility B. Leadership C. Authority D. Tradeoff skill 88. What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its objectives? A. Goal B. Strategy C. Program D. Plan 89. When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer manager in-charge: A. Lacks leadership skill B. Has inadequate control C. Has poor organization D. Has no proper planning 90. What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available information to the problem at hand? A. Statistical confidence B. Tolerance C. Incompleteness of the data D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem 91. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stands for? A. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination B. Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication D. Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication 92. In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which 17. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal to 360 days. A. 19.61% B. 19.44% C. 19.31% D. 19.72% 18. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8% compounded quarterly? A. 8.07% B. 8.12% C. 8.16% D. 8.24% 19. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest? A. 12.35% compounded annually B. 11.90% compounded annually C. 12.20% compounded annually D. 11.60% compounded annually 20. An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find the nominal interest. A. 11.89% B. 12.00% C. 12.08% D. 12.32% 21. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually? A. 13.7 years B. 14.7 years C. 14.2 years D. 15.3 years 22. By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if fund invested at 8% compounded quarterly? A. 11.23 years B. 11.46 years C. 11.57 years D. 11.87 years 23. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th year? A. P693.12 B. P700.12 C. P702.15 D. P705.42 24. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the interest is compounded. A. Monthly B. Bimonthly C. Quarterly D. Annually 25. A student plans to deposit P1,500 in the bank now and another P3,000 for the next 2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000 three years from after his last deposit for the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%. A. P1,549.64 B. P1,459.64 C. P1,345.98 D. P1,945.64 26. You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you will pay by borrowing the money from the bank? A. P 62.44 B. P44.55 C. P54.66 D. P37.56 27. What is the present worth of two P 100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth year? The annual interest rate is 8%. A. P 150.56 B. P 152.88 C. P 153.89 D. P 151.09 28. A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due? A. P 3,260.34 B. P 3,280.34 C. P 3,270.34 D. P 3,250.34 29. In year zero, you invest P 10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the average annual inflation is 6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos will be in the account at maturity? A. P 15,030.03 B. P 20,113.57 C. P 18,289.05 D. P 16,8 E. 92.34 30. The institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines (IECEP) is planning to put up its own building. Two proposals being considered are: A. The construction of the building now to cost P 400,000 B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5 years, an extension to be added to cost P 200,000. By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and depreciation to be neglected? A. P 19,122.15 B. P 19,423.69 C. P 19,518.03 D. P 19,624.49 31. What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10 %? A. P 727.17 B. P 717.17 C. P 714.71 D. P 731.17 32. What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P 20,000? Assume i= 6% annually. A. P 1,290.34 B. P 1,185.54 C. P 1,107.34 D. P 1,205.74 33. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P 10,000.00 and agreed to pay the dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual payment? A. P 2,500.57 B. P 2,544.45 C. P 2,540.56 D. P 2,504.57 34. What is the present worth of a year annuity paying P 3,000.00 at the end of each year, with interest at 8% compounded annually? A. P 7,654.04 B. P 7,731.29 C. P 7,420.89 D. P 7,590.12 35. A man loans P 187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments. A. P 43,600.10 B. P 43,489.47 C. P 43,263.91 D. P 43,763.20 36. A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual payments of P 8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi- annually? A. P 142,999.08 B. P 143,104.89 C. P 142,189.67 D. P 143,999.08 37. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum for the last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan? A. P 6,999.39 B. P 6,292.93 C. P 6,222.39 D. P 6,922.93 38. Miss Calledo deposited P 1,000, P 1,500 and P 2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year and 4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much is in the account at the end of the 4th year? A. P 4,880.00 B. P 4,820.00 C. P 4,860.00 D. P 4,840.00 39. A P 1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of this investment? A. 3.0% B. 3.4% C. 3.7% D. 4.0% 40. A P 1, 000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June 21, 204. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond. A. P 1,122.70 B. P 1,144.81 C. P 1,133.78 D. P 1,155.06 41. A VOM has a selling price of P 400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of 10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years? A. P 222.67 B. P 212.90 C. P 236.20 D. P 231.56 42. A machine costs of P 8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P 500. What is its book value after 8 years using straight line method? A. P 2,000.00 B. P 2,100.00 C. P 2,200.00 D. P 2,300.00 43. ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method. A. 7 eyars B. 8 years C. 9 years D. 10 years 44. An asset is purchased for P 9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it will be sold for P 1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-years digit method A. P 3,279.27 B. P 3,927.27 C. P 3,729.27 D. P 3,792.72 45. Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular year of P 50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for depletion is P 18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%. A. P 9,358.41 B. P 9,228.45 C. P 9,250.00 D. P 9,308.45 46. The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain 5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $ 50,000,000. What is the depletion charge during the year where it produces half million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method in computing depletion. B. $ 5,010,000.00 C. $ 5,025,000.00 D. $ 5,050,000.00 47. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P 115 each, material cost of P 76 each and variable cost of P 2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P 600, how many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P428,000 A. 1,033 B. 1,037 C. 1,043 D. 1,053 48. A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the demand? A. 1.0 hour per unit B. 1.2 hours per unit C. 1.4 hours per unit D. 1.6 hours per unit 49. A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enameled wire or tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enameled wire will be P 1.65 on the tinned wire, it will be P 1.15. A 100- pair cable made up with enameled wire cost P 0.55 per linear foot and those made up of tinned wire cost P 0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that the cost of each installation would be the same. A. 1,000 feet B. 1,040 feet C. 1,100 feet D. 1,120 feet 50. A leading shoe manufacturer produces a pair of Lebron James signature shoes at a labor cost of P 900.00 a pair and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are P 5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P 400.00 a pair. Royalty to Lebron James is P 1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P 5,000 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to break-even? A. 2.590 B. 2,632 C. 2,712 D. 2,890 A. $ 5,000,000.00 51. What is defines as the analysis and evaluation of the monetary consequences by using the theories and principles of economics to engineering applications, designs and projects? A. Economic Analysis B. Engineering cost analysis C. Engineering economy D. Design cost analysis 52. What is considered as the standard unit which forms the basis of a country’s domestic money supply? A. Monetary unit B. Currency C. Foreign exchange D. Cash or check 53. What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or indirectly to the satisfaction of human want? A. Services B. Goods C. Commodities D. Goods or commodities 54. What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or indirectly to the satisfaction of human want? A. Services B. Goods C. Commodities D. Goods or commodities 55. What are the two classifications of goods and services? A. Local and imported B. Raw and finished C. Consumer and producer D. Ready-made and made-to-order 56. What refers to the goods and services that are required to support human life, needs and activities? A. Producer products B. Consumer products C. Luxury D. Necessity 57. What refers to the goods and services that are desired by human and will be acquired only after all the needs have been satisfied? A. Producer products B. Consumer products C. Luxury D. Necessity 58. What refers to the exchange mechanism that brings together the sellers and the buyers of a product, factor of production or financial security? A. Mall B. Market C. Store D. Office 59. What is considered as the basic consuming or demanding unit of a commodity? A. Seller B. Manufacturer C. Producer D. Buyer or consumer 60. What is defined as an entity which makes product, good or services available to buyer or consumer in exchange of monetary consideration? A. Seller B. Manufacturer C. Producer D. Buyer or consumer 61. What is a market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there is no goods substitute? A. Monopsony B. Monopoly C. Oligopoly D. Oligopsony 62. What market situation exists where there are few sellers and few buyers? A. Oligopoly B. Oligopsony C. Bilateral oligopoly D. Bilateral Oligopsony 63. What market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller? A. Monopsony B. Monopoly C. Bilateral monopsony D. Bilateral monopoly 64. What is the market situation exist when there are many buyers and many sellers? A. Perfect compettion B. Oligopoly C. Oligopsony D. Monopoly 65. If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market situation is A. Duopsony B. Oligopoly C. Oligopsony D. Monopoly 66. If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market situation is A. Duopsony B. Oligopoly C. Oligopsony D. Monopoly 67. Oligopoly exists when there is/are: A. Few sellers and few buyers B. Few sellers and many buyers C. Many sellers and few buyers D. One seller and few buyers 68. Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are: A. Few sellers and few buyers B. Few sellers and many buyers C. Many sellers and few buyers D. One seller and few buyers 69. Duopoly is a market situation where there is/are: A. Few sellers and few buyers B. Few sellers and many buyers C. Many sellers and few buyers D. One seller and few buyers 70. What is another term for “perfect competition”? A. Atomistic competition B. No-limit competition C. Free-for-all competition D. Heterogeneous market 71. What refers to the market situation in which any given product is supplied by a very large number of vendors and there is no restriction against additional vendors from entering the market? A. Perfect competition B. Oligopoly C. Oligopsony D. Monopoly 72. Aside from many sellers and many buyers, which one is a characteristic of perfect competition? A. Homogeneous product B. Free market entry and exit C. Perfect information and absence of all economic friction D. All of the above 73. What is the opposite of perfect competition? A. Monopsony B. Oligopoly C. Oligopsony D. Monopoly 117. In SYD method of computing depreciation, which of the following is the formula in finding the sum of years’ digits? A. n( n−1) B. [n (n+2)]/ 2 C. [n (n−1 )]/2 D. [n (n+1)]/ 2 118. The declining balance method is also known as . A. Double percentage method B. Constant percentage method C. Modified sinking fund method D. Modified SYD method 119. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction in the demand for the function that the equipment or asset was designed to render? A. Functional depreciation B. Design depreciation C. Physical depreciation D. Demand depreciation 120. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction of the physical ability of an equipment or asset to produce results? A. Functional depreciation B. Design depreciation C. Physical depreciation D. Demand depreciation 121. The functional depreciation is sometimes called . A. Demand depreciation B. Adolescence C. Life depreciation D. Failure depreciation 122. What is defined as the reduction of the value of certain natural resources such as mines, oil, timber, quarries, etc. due to the gradual extraction of its contents? A. Depletion B. Inflation C. Depreciation D. Deflation 123. What are the common methods of computing depletion charge? A. Rational method and irrational method B. Conservative method and conventional method C. Unit method and percentage method D. Discrete method and depletion allowance method 124. Under the depletion allowance method in computing depreciation, the depletion charge is equal to either whichever is smaller. A. Fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income B. Fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income C. 50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income D. 50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income 125. The depletion allowance method of computing depletion is commonly known as . A. Unit method B. Percentage method C. Factor method D. Sinking fund method 126. What is another term for “unit method” for computing depletion? A. Initial cost method B. Percentage method C. Factor method D. Sinking fund method 127. Using factor method, the depletion at any given year is equal to: A. Initial cost of property times number of unit sold during the year divided by the total units in property B. Initial cost of property divided by the number of units sold during the year C. Initial cost of property times number of units sold during the year D. Initial cost of property divided by the total units in property 128. What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects over the depreciation period of the asset? A. Asset recovery B. Depreciation recovery C. Period recovery D. After-tax recovery 129. A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is called . A. Load factor B. Demand factor C. Sinking fund factor D. Present worth factor 130. The amount of property in which a willing buyer to a willing seller for the property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy nor to sell is called . A. Fair value B. Market value C. Good will value D. Book value 131. Salvage value is sometimes known as . A. Scrap value B. Going value C. Junk value D. Second-hand value 132. What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties? A. Book value B. Market value C. Fair value D. Franchise value 133. What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive right of a company to provide a specified product and service in a certain region of the country? A. Company value B. Going value C. Goodwill value D. Franchise value 134. The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been bought for a second hand dealer or some other business is called A. Material cost B. Fixed cost C. First cost D. In-place value 135. In computing depreciation of an equipment, which of the following represents the first cost? A. The original purchase price and freight charges B. Installation expenses C. Initial taxes and permit fees D. All of the above 136. The process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific reason is called . A. Investment B. Valuation C. Economy D. Depletion 137. The unrecovered depreciation which results due to poor estimates as to the life of the equipment is called . A. Sunk cost B. Economic life C. In-place value D. Annuity 138. What refers to the present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time? A. Annual cost B. Increment cost C. Capitalized cost D. Operating cost 139. Capitalized cost of a project is also known as . A. Infinite cost B. Life cycle cost C. Life cost D. Project cost 140. What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplish the same purpose but have unequal lives? A. Capitalized cost method B. Present worth method C. Annual cost method D. MARR 141. What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and costs accrue to different segments of the community? A. Annual cost method B. Benefit-cost ratio C. Rate of return method D. EUAC 142. What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a particular strategy is rejected? A. Opportunity cost B. Ghost cost C. Horizon cost D. Null cost 143. What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation is seldom used in the industry? A. Unstable economy B. Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined C. The initial deprecation is high D. The initial depreciation is low 144. What is the factor name of the formula (1+i)^-n? A. Uniform gradient future worth B. Capital recovery C. Single payment present worth D. Single payment compound amount 145. What is the factor name of the formula [i(1+i)^n]/[((1+i)^n)-1]? A. Uniform series sinking fund B. Capital recovery C. Single payment present worth D. Uniform gradient future worth 146. A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone and entirely for his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities. A. Sole proprietorship B. Entrepreneurship C. Partnership D. Corporation 147. Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the process, attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence. A. Corporation B. Property C. Partnership D. Organization 148. What is the simplest form of business organization? A. Sole proprietorship B. Partnership C. Enterprise D. Corporation 149. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization? A. Sole proprietorship B. Partnership C. Corporation D. Enterprise 150. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership, A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership B. The partnership assets used to pay the liabilities C. The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership D. The partners nay sell stock to generate additional capital 151. Which is true about partnership? A. It has a perpetual life. B. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership. C. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another. D. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner. 152. Which is true about corporation? A. It is worse type of business organization. B. The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three. C. Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators. D. The stock holders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments. 153. Aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by law as a fictitious person is called . A. Partnership B. Investors C. Corporation D. Stockholders 154. An association of two or more persons for the purpose of engaging into a business for profit is called . A. Entrepreneurship B. Partnership C. Proprietorship D. Corporation 155. What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the corporation after all other claims have been settled? A. Authorized capital stock B. Preferred stock C. Incorporator stock D. Common stock 156. What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock? A. Authorized stock B. Preferred stock C. Incorporator’s stock D. Presidential stock 157. The amount of company’s profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders is called A. Dividend B. Return C. Share of stock (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be D. Equity 158. What refers to the residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders excluded) have been allowed for? A. Dividend B. Equity C. Return D. Par value 159. What refers to the claim of anyone to ownership? A. Proprietorship B. Assets C. Equity D. Liability 160. Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise are generally called . A. Capital B. Funds C. Assets D. Liabilities 161. What represents the share of participation in business organizations? A. Franchise B. Partnership C. Stock D. Corporation 162. The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as A. Yield B. Economic return C. Earning value D. Gain 163. is the element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration and patronage of its costumers arising from its well known and well conducted policies and operations. A. Status company B. Big income C. Known owners D. Goodwill 164. Which of the following is an example of intangible asset? A. Cash B. Investment in subsidiary companies C. Furnitures D. Patents 165. Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are example of what type of asset? A. Current asset B. Trade investment asset C. Fixed asset D. Intangible asset 166. What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the interest earned by an investment? A. Economic return B. Yield C. Rate of return D. Return of investment 167. What is another term for “current assets”? A. Fixed assets B. Non-liquid assets C. Liquid assets D. Ccash 168. What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment? A. Cost of goods sold B. Cost accounting C. Standard cost D. Overhead cost 169. What is the change in cost per unit variable change called? A. Variable cost B. Incremental cost C. Fixed cost D. Supplemental cost 170. What is used to record historical financial transactions? A. Bookkeeping system B. Ledger system C. Balance check D. General journal syste 171. What is a secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from the journal is called? A. Balanced sheet B. Ledger C. Worksheet D. Trial balance 172. The original record of a business transaction is recorded in this book. A. Work book B. Journal C. Ledger D. Account book 173. All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of goods is called . A. Net income B. Gross income C. Net revenue D. Total sales 174. All are classified under direct labor expenses EXCEPT one. Which one? A. Inspection cost B. Testing cost C. Assembly cost D. Supervision cost 175. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected? A. Current ratio B. Quick ratio C. Acid test ratio D. Receivable turnover 176. The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called . A. Current ratio B. Inventory turnover C. Profit margin ratio D. Price-earnings ratio 177. What do you call a one-time credit against taxes? A. Due credit B. Tax credit C. Credible credit D. Revenue credit 178. What is used when a quick estimate of the doubling time for the invested money is needed? A. Rule of 48 B. Rule of 36 C. Rule of 24 D. Rule of 72 179. What is the increase in the money value of a capital asset is called? A. Profit B. Capital gain C. Capital expenditure D. Capital stock 180. What is the reduction in the money value of capital asset is called? A. Capital expenditure B. Capital loss C. Loss D. Deficit 181. What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lien of a term deposit? A. Time deposit B. Bond C. Capital gain certificate D. Certificate of deposit 182. What denotes in the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the others? This term is usually applies to the floating exchange rate. A. Currency appreciation B. Currency depreciation C. Currency devaluation D. Currency float MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS in ENGINEERING MATERIALS 1. What are considered as the “building blocks” for engineering materials? A. Atoms B. Elements C. Matters D. Compounds 2. What are the major classes of engineering materials? A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors B. Polymers, metals and composites C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites 3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field? A. Crystals B. Amorphous materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Metalloids 4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form? A. Metalloids B. Matrix alloys C. Metal lattices D. Metal Matrix composites 5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element? A. Metalloids B. Matrix Composite C. Inert D. Ceramic 6. Polymer comes from Greek words “poly” which means “many” and “meros” which means . A. metal B. material C. part D. plastic 7. The engineering materials known as “plastics” are more correctly called . A. Polyvinyl chloride B. Polymers C. Polyethylene D. Mers 8. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components materials do not have by themselves? A. Compound B. Composite C. Mixture D. Matrix 9. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials? A. Periodic Table B. Truth Table C. Building blocks of Materials D. Structure of Materials 10. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on heating or solidifies on cooling? A. Melting point B. Curie point C. Refractive index D. Specific heat 11. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces? A. Melting point B. Thermal conductivity C. Thermal expansion D. Curie point 12. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled environment? A. Dielectric strength B. Electric resistivity C. Water absorption D. Thermal conductivity 13. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a homogenous material under steady-state conditions per unit are, per unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to area? A. Thermal expansion B. Thermal conductivity C. Heat distortion temperature D. Water absorption 14. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of electrical breakdown through its bulk? A. Thermal expansion B. Conductivity C. Dielectric strength D. Electrical resistivity 15. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass of water to 1 degree. A. Specific heat B. Latent heat C. Heat of fusion D. Heat of fission 16. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a specified load shows a specified amount of deflection? A. Curie temperature B. Specific heat C. Heat distortion temperature D. Thermal conductivity 17. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension test at constant load and constant temperature? A. Creep strength B. Stress rapture strength C. Compressive yield strength D. Hardness 18. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation? A. Rigidity B. Plasticity C. Ductility D. Hardness 19. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops below some predetermined value, usually 15ft-lb? A. Nil ductility temperature B. Curie temperature C. Thermal conductivity D. Heat distortion temperature 20. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails? A. Elastic limit B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material C. Creep D. All of the choices 21. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness? A. Lay B. Out of flat C. Camber D. Waviness 22. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface, generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness? A. Lay B. Waviness C. surface finish D. Out of flat 23. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural polymer called . A. plastic B. lignin C. mer D. additive 24. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two different monuments? A. Copolymerization B. Blending C. Alloying D. Cross-linking 25. What is the generic name of class of polymer which is commercially known as “nylon”? A. Polyacetals B. Polyamide C. Cellulose D. Polyester 26. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least elongation in tensile test and is capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed. A. 100% B. 150% C. 200% D. 250% 27. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes in which the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold? A. Calendaring B. Blow molding C. Thermoformig D. Solid phase forming 28. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal die? A. Calendaring B. Thermoforming C. Lithugraphy D. Extrusion 29. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment? A. Stereo specificity B. Corrosion resistance C. Conductivity D. Electrical resistance 30. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to from with an ordered, spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules? A. Stereo specificity B. Conductivity C. Retentivity D. Spatial configuration 31. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material? A. Impact strength B. Endurance limit C. Creep strength D. Stress rupture strength 32. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under stress? A. Elongation B. Elasticity C. Creep D. Rupture 33. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from proportionality of stress and strain? A. Tensile strength B. shear strength C. Yield strength D. Flexural strength 34. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from acceptable of stress to strain is called . A. Elongation B. proportional limit C. yield point D. elastic limit 35. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite number of stress cycles? A. Endurance state B. Endurance test C. Endurance limit D. endurance strength 36. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron? A. Conductor B. Semiconductor C. Magnet D. Semimetal 37. Which of the following is a natural magnet? A. Steel B. Magnesia C. Lodestone D. Soft iron 38. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation? A. Hardness B. Stiffness C. Creepage D. Rigidity 39. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 40. What materials has permiabilities slightly greater than of free space? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 41. Which of the materials have very high permiabilities? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 42. What is the defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and some stage in its manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow? A. Metal B. Metalloid C. Plastic D. Ceramic 43. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds called . A. Metallic bond B. Van der Waals bond C. Cross linking D. Covalent bond 44. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer? A. Homo polymer B. Ethenic polymer C. Polyethylene D. Copolymer 45. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as . A. monomer B. elastomer C. mers D. copolymer or interpolymer 46. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties? A. Vulcanizer B. Elasticmer C. Polychloroprene D. Elastomer 47. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within certain concentration limits? A. Steel B. Wrought Iron C. Cast Iron D. Tendons 48. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting of steel from the BOF or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots? A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR) B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM) C. Electron beam refining D. Electroslag refining 49. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute) into an ingot mold? A. Electroslag refining B. Vacuum are remelting C. Vacuum induction melting D. Electron beam refining 50. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent? A. Alloy steel B. Stainless steel C. Galvanized steel D. Carbon steel 51. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite? A. Austenite B. Eutectoid C. Hyper-eutectoid D. Stainless steel 52. What group of steel are water- hardened tool steels? A. Group S B. Group W C. Group O D. Group T 53. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels? A. Group A B. Group D C. Group M D. Group H 54. Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high and strength are known as? A. Medium-carbon steel B. Low-carbon steel C. Very high-carbon D. High-carbon steel 55. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with . A. Carbon B. Sulfur C. Zinc D. Nickel 93. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross- sectional area of the test bar? A. Tensile strength B. Yield strength C. Shear strength D. Flexural Strength 94. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic ranger? A. Poisson’s ratio B. Refractive index C. Modulus of elasticity D. Percent elongation 95. What is a measure of rigidity? A. Stiffness B. Hardness C. Strength D. Modulus of elasticity 96. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures, within the gage length is called A. percent elongation B. creep C. elasticity D. elongation 97. What impurity in steel can cause “red shortness”, which means the steel becomes unworkable at high temperature? A. Sulfur B. Silicon C. Manganese D. Phosphorus 98. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface? A. Cyaniding B. Nitriding C. Flame hardening D. Induction hardening 99. What is the common reinforcement for polymer composites? A. Boron B. Ceramic C. Graphite D. Glass fiber 100. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity? A. Electrolyte B. Water C. Solution D. Acid 101. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities? A. Cracking B. Pitting C. Cavitation D. Erosion 102. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses? A. Dezincification B. Graphitization C. Stabilization D. Dealloying 103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion? A. Expoliation B. Corrosion fatigue C. Scaping D. Fretting 104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines? A. Stray current corrosion B. Microbiological corrosion C. Filiform corrosion D. Fretting corrosion 105. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude (20 to 100 µm) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment? A. Stray current corrosion B. Microbiological corrosion C. Filiform corrosion D. Fretting corrosion 106. Indicate the false statement about corrosion. A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not good conduction of electricity. B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode. C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protect on many metals. D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature. 107. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than percent. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1 108. Indicate false statement about stainless steel? A. The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels. B. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat. C. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity. D. Stainless steels have alloy steels. 109. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels? A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper 110. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as time that of carbon steel. A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 15 111. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold? A. Casting B. Molding C. Forming D. All of the choices tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and 112. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting? A. Water-cooled metal cavities B. machined metal holding blocks C. Ejection mechanism D. Metal mold (matching halves) 113. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal graphite? A. Ductile iron B. Wrought iron C. Gray iron D. White iron 114. What is a process for making glass- reinforced shapes that can be generate by polling resin-impregnated glass stands through a die? A. Continuous pultrusion B. Bulk molding C. Vacuum bag forming D. Resin transfer moulding 115. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products of alcohols and acids? A. Alkaline B. Alkydes C. Alcocids D. Aldehyde 116. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy? A. 13XX B. 23XX C. 25XX D. 31XX 117. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel? A. 13XX B. 31XX C. 23XX D. 12XX 118. What does AISI stands for? A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries B. American Institute of Steel Industries C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries D. American Iron and Steel Institute 119. What does SAE stands for? A. Society of Automotive Engineers B. Society of American Engineers C. Society of Architects and Engineers D. Society of Alloy Engineers 120. What does ASTM stands for? A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials B. American Society for Testing and Materials C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials 121. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel? A. 12% to 18% B. 10% to 12% C. 16% to 20% D. 20% to 24% 122. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range? A. 600oC to 1100oC B. 1000oC to 1500oC C. 1100oC to 2000oC D. 200oC to 800oC 123. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steel except: A. Molybdenum B. Tungsten C. Cobalt D. Chromium 124. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum? A. 0.10 B. 0.20 C. 0.30 D. 0.40 125. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium? A. 0.15 to 0.30 B. 0.05 to 0.15 C. 0.30 to 0.45 D. 0.45 to 0.60 126. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese? A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 11 to 14 D. 14 to 18 127. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to , that is, the hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold worked. A. cold harden B. stress harden C. cool-temperature D. strain harden 128. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium? A. 4 to 8 B. 9 to 10 C. 11 to 17 D. 17 to 21 129. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it will become hard? A. Caburizing B. Casehardening C. Annealing D. Surfacehardening 130. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section? A. Malleability B. Hardenability C. Spheroidability D. Rigidity 131. What is the equilibirium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite? A. 1000o F B. 1333o F C. 1666o F D. 1222o F 132. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above A. 770o C B. 550o C C. 660o C D. 440o C 133. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of the curve? A. Pearlite B. Bainite C. Austenite D. Martensite 134. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature to 1670o F? A. Beta iron B. Gamma iron C. Delta iron D. Alpha iron 135. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000o F for up to 100 hours in an ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling? A. Nitriding B. Flame hardening C. Precipitaion hardening D. Carburizing 136. What is the chief ore of tin? A. Cassiterite B. Bauxite C. Ilmanite D. Galena 137. What is the chief ore of zinc? A. Cassiterite B. Bauxite C. Sphalerite D. Ilmanite 138. What is the chief ore of titanium? A. Sphalerite B. Ilmanite C. Bauxite D. Cassiterite 139. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived? A. Bauxite B. Rutile C. Galera D. Sphalerite 140. The term “brass” is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of: A. copper and zinc B. aluminum and iron C. copper and aluminum D. zinc and nickel 141. The term “bronze” is used to designate any alloy containing: A. copper and zinc B. copper and aluminum C. copper and nickel D. copper and tin 142. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What does the first digit indicates? A. The purity of aluminum B. The identity of the alloy C. The alloy group D. The strength of the alloy 143. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents? A. The purity of aluminum B. The identity of the alloy C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits D. The alloy group 144. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number indicates what condition of the alloy? A. As fabricated B. Strain hardened C. Annealed D. Artificially aged 145. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except: A. Zinc alloys B. Magnesium alloys C. Manganese alloys D. Aluminum alloys 146. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50? A. 25000 lbf/in2 B. 35000 lbf/in2 C. 50000 lbf/in2 D. 100000 lbf/in2 147. What is the carbon content of wrought iron? A. less than 0.1 percent B. exactly 0.1 percent C. more than 0.1 percent D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent 148. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel? A. 10% B. 14% C. 18% D. 22% 149. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called . A. yellow brass B. red brass C. Muntz metal D. white brass 150. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc? A. 20% B. 15% C. 20% D. 25% 151. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc? A. 20% B. 50% C. 30% D. 40% 152. Indicate the false statement. A. Aluminum bronzes contain no tin. B. Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners. C. Bronze is a copper-tin alloy. D. Tin is relatively soluble in copper. 153. What is the most abundant metal in nature? A. Aluminum B. Steel C. Iron D. Copper 154. Indicate the false statement about aluminum. A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel. B. It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel. C. It has high strength-to-weight ratio. D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity. 155. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?