The Official Advanced Airborne School Jumpmaster Written Exam Study Guide QUESTIONS WITH C, Exams of Leadership and Team Management

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The Official Advanced Airborne

School Jumpmaster Written Exam

Study Guide QUESTIONS WITH

COMPLETE 100% VERIFIED

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(T/F) You must be SGT or above to perform duties as the Primary Jumpmaster, Assistant Jumpmaster, or Safety. True (T/F) A corporal in the Marine Corps is not authorized to perform Jumpmaster duties. False, E-4 and above in Marine Corps and Air Force may perform Jumpmaster duties Jumpmasters must perform the duties of the Safety _____ before performing the duties as the Assistant Jumpmaster. Twice Jumpmasters must perform the duties of the Safety ____ and Assistant Jumpmaster _____ before performing the duties as the Primary Jumpmaster. Twice, twice Jumpmasters must perform duties as the Safety twice and the Assistant Jumpmaster once within 180 days to establish _______. Baseline currency Novice rated Jumpmasters must perform the duties as a ______ or _________ on a high performance aircraft once every 180 days to remain current. Assistant Jumpmaster, Primary Jumpmaster (T/F) Advanced rated Jumpmasters may only perform the duties of the Primary Jumpmaster or Assistant Jumpmaster once every 180 days to remain current. False, they may also perform duties as a Safety Jumpmaster duties are performed in what three areas? Unit area, departure airfield, and in flight (T/F) Duties of the Jumpmaster Team begin at the operations briefing. False, duties begin upon notification (T/F)Manifests for the Jumpers are prepared around the time of Jumpmaster team rehearsals. True

(T/F) The Primary Jumpmaster will conduct a full rehearsal with the Jumpmaster team once all the Jumpers have arrived. False, rehearsals are completed prior to the arrival of Jumpers (T/F) The Primary Jumpmaster can delegate authority but not responsibility. True Sustained Airborne Training can be conducted in the ____ or at the ______. Unit area, departure airfield Sustained Airborne Training at a minimum must cover what topics? Pre-jump, parachute landing falls, and mock door training SERJT/E stands for: Static line control, Exiting procedures, Red light procedures, Jump refusals, Towed Jumper procedures, and Emergency procedures Jumpmasters load the Jumpers in _____ _____order and reinforce the airborne commander's tactical cross load. Reverse chalk A minimum of ____ mock door rehearsals must be conducted with last one being conducted as planned for the airborne operation. Two Upon arrival to departure airfield, the Primary Jumpmaster will report to the ______ for an update or any changes to the operation or timeline. Departure Airfield Control Officer (DACO) All members of the Jumpmaster team will report to the DACO and receive the ____ _____brief and sign the roster. Serious incident _______ is the time that is agreed upon between the Army and the Air Force for when all the Jumpers and equipment must be loaded and seated with seatbelts on inside the aircraft. Station time Safeties will draw one extra aviators kit bags for every ___ Jumpers. 15 Safeties will draw one extra universal parachutist recovery bag for every ___ Jumpers. 30 (T/F) At least 2 additional reserve parachutes must be drawn by the Jumpmaster team. True JMPI stands for: Jumpmaster Personnel Inspection The Primary Jumpmaster should oversee the Jumpmaster personnel inspection and only help with inspecting if required to meet ___ ___.

Station time (T/F) A Jumpmaster that is not current may perform the duties of the corrections station. True (T/F) The adjustable leg strap is routed prior to JMPI. False, adjustable leg straps are routed after JMPI (T/F) When exiting the left paratroop door, the right adjustable leg strap must be utilized. True (T/F) When exiting the right paratroop door, the right adjustable leg strap must be utilized. False, right paratroop door requires the left adjustable leg strap (T/F) The Primary Jumpmaster should stay in constant communication with the pilots through the load master. True The ____ will ensure that they are monitoring the medical state of the Jumpers and distributing air sickness bags as required. Safeties (T/F) The loadmaster will take control of all jump refusals. False, the Safeties will take control of jump refusals (T/F) Safeties begin inspecting universal static lines modified after the jump command "Check Static Lines." True During paratroop door checks, the Safety will be positioned ________. At the trail edge of the paratroop door (T/F) Once "Go," has been given, the Safety will control universal static lines modified as Jumpers exit. True (T/F) Once the Jumpers have exited, the Safety will retrieve deployment bags and then check for towed Jumpers. False, the Safety checks for towed Jumpers prior to issuing a thumbs-up and then retrieving deployment bags _____ will be placed inside the extra aviator's kit bags or universal parachutist recovery bags once retrieved. Deployment bags (T/F) All personnel and equipment left over from an airborne operation will be turned over to the DACO upon completion. True (T/F) The T-11 main parachute is a maneuverable canopy. False, it is a non-maneuverable canopy

The approximate rate of descent of a T-11 main parachute 18.5 feet per second The maximum suspended weight of the T-11 main parachute 400 pounds T-11 main parachute average deployment time Approximately 6.5 seconds Minimum safe drop speed of T-11 main parachute 50 knots Maximum safe drop speed of T-11 main parachute 150 knots Weight of T-11 main parachute Approximately 38 pounds Rate of descent of T-11 reserve parachute 26 feet per second Maximum suspended weight of T-11 reserve parachute 400 pounds Average deployment time of T-11 reserve parachute 0.9 seconds 10 major components of the T-11 main parachute universal static line modified deployment bag drogue parachute deployment sleeve bridle assembly canopy assembly slider riser assembly harness assembly pack tray Weight of T-11 reserve parachute 14.8 pounds 8 major components of T-11 reserve parachute protection cap ejector spring assembly reserve closing loop reserve extractor reserve canopy assembly

reserve riser assembly reserve pack tray ripcord assembly (T/F) The folds must face skyward on a properly worn universal parachutist recovery bag. True The modular airborne weapons case is available in ____ sizes. Two The two mandatory safety features on a modular airborne weapons case. Nose cone securing straps tightened, tabbed thong secured (T/F) The modular airborne weapons case is not authorized to be jumped as a single item of equipment. False, it may be jumped as a single item of equipment but must have a serviceable lower tie down strap The base of the adjustable nose cone must be no less than ____ inches off of the ground. 6 The top of the modular airborne weapons case must be between the top of the ____ and the bottom of the _________. D-ring, canopy release assembly ALICE pack stands for: All-purpose Lightweight Individual Carrying Equipment (T/F) When rigging a MOLLE with a harness, single point release, an outer accessory pouch or e- tool carrier is required. True (T/F) If using an entrenching tool carrier for the MOLLE, the entrenching tool must be tied off to the MOLLE with 1/4 inch cotton webbing. False, it must be tied off with type II or type III nylon cord gutted A(n) _______ second count will be utilized for a T-11 main parachute when exiting from rotary wing aircraft. 8 (T/F) Jumpmaster duties on UH-60 Blackhawk do not count for Jumpmaster currency. True (T/F) Duties on CH-47 Chinook may count for Jumpmaster currency for a 180-day period. True, but the following duty must be performed from a fixed wing high performance aircraft (T/F) The Jumpmaster must be in constant communication with the pilot on a UH-60 Blackhawk. True (T/F) UH-60 Blackhawks are to be approached from the rear or port side. False, UH-60 Blackhawks must be approached from the sides (T/F) Jumpers must approach a CH-47 Chinook from the rear.

True UH-60 Blackhawks can deliver ____ combat equipped Jumpers, however, if the internal fuel tanks are present, it can deliver _____ combat equipped Jumpers. 8, 6 (T/F) On a UH-60 Blackhawk, the Jumpmaster may exit or be static. False On a UH-60 Blackhawk, Jumpers 1-4 will sit on the _______ side when jumping eight. Starboard On a UH-60 Blackhawk, Jumpers 5-8 will sit on the _______ side when jumping eight. Port Maximum drop speed of a UH-60 Blackhawk 75 knots Minimum drop speed of a UH-60 Blackhawk 65 knots Optimal speed of a UH-60 Blackhawk 70 knots Minimum drop altitude of a UH-60 Blackhawk. 1,500 feet above ground level Point of attachment for universal static lines modified in a UH-60 Blackhawk Modified anchor line system (T/F) Modified anchor line system has a maximum of 6 D-rings False Modified anchor line system has a maximum of 8 D-rings After JMPI, the Jumpmaster will route the excess of the universal static line modified from ______ to _____ through the static line slack retainer band for the UH- 6 0 Blackhawk. Bottom, top The Jumpmaster will hook up each Jumper's universal static line snap hook to the _____ of the modified anchor line system with the spring opening gate facing towards the ____ ______ for the UH-60 Blackhawk. D-ring, pilot compartment For a UH-60 Blackhawk, two time warnings are given in conjunction with the jump commands: ______ and _________. 4 minutes, 30 seconds Jump commands given on a UH-60 Blackhawk "Get ready," "check static lines," "check equipment," "sound off for equipment check,"

"sit in the door," "standby," "go." For the UH-60 Blackhawk, the command of "Get ready" is given approximately _______ from time on target. 4 minutes (T/F) For the UH-60 Blackhawk, on the command of "Check static lines" the Jumpmaster will inspect each Jumper's universal static line modified in chalk order. True (T/F) For the UH-60 Blackhawk, the command of "Sit in the door" is given approximately 2 minutes from time on target. False, it is given 30 seconds from time on target For the UH- 60 Blackhawk, the command of _______ is given approximately 8 to 10 seconds from TOT. Standby For the UH-60 Blackhawk, on the command of "Go," Jumpers will exit with a _____ interval between each Jumper. 1 second (T/F) For the UH-60 Blackhawk, jumpers will approach in chalk order. False, Jumpers approach in reverse chalk order The CH-47 Chinook can exit ____ combat equipped Jumpers. 28 For the CH-47 Chinook, odd numbered personnel will sit on the ______ side. Starboard For the CH-47 Chinook, even number personnel will sit on the _____ side. Port Maximum drop speed of a CH-47 Chinook 110 knots Minimum drop speed of a CH-47 Chinook 80 knots Planning drop speed of a CH-47 Chinook 90 knots Minimum drop altitude of a CH-47 Chinook traveling less than 90 knots 1,500 feet above ground level Minimum drop altitude of a CH-47 Chinook traveling at 90 knots or greater 1,250 feet above ground level

For the CH-47 Chinook , two time warnings are given in conjunction with the jump commands: ______ and _______. 6 minutes, 1 minute What is the minimum height allowed for parachute landing fall platforms? 24 inches Jump commands for a CH-47 Chinook "get ready," "port side personnel stand up," "starboard side personnel stand up," "hook up," "check static lines," "check equipment," "sound off for equipment check," "standby," "go" For the CH-47 Chinook, the command of "get ready" is given approximately ______ from time on target. 6 minutes For the CH-47 Chinook, on the command of "Hook up," Jumpers hook up to the anchor line cable with the spring opening gates facing towards the _______ side of the aircraft. Starboard For the CH-47 Chinook, the command of "Stand by" is given _________ from time on target. 8 to 10 seconds For the CH-47 Chinook, jumpers will secure the universal static line modified utilizing a ______ bight. Reverse For the CH-47 Chinook, prior to exiting, the ramp must be lowered to _____ below horizontal. 3 degrees For the CH-47 Chinook, jumpers will exit by walking from the starboard side of the ramp to the port side at a _____ degree angle before squaring off. 45 For the CH-47 Chinook, the static Jumpmaster will allow ____ jumper(s) on the ramp at a time, exiting the Jumpers with a ___ second interval. 1, 1 For A-Series containers, a _______ must be attached if hazardous materials are present. shipper's declaration for dangerous goods (SDDG)

(T/F) For A-Series containers, the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods will be attached to the personnel load manifest. True Maximum weight for A-series containers, excluding the cargo parachute. 500 pounds Maximum dimensions for A-series containers 30 inches wide, 66 inches high, and 48 inches deep, to include the cargo parachute (T/F) For A-Series containers, dimensions are measured in relation to how the A-Series container sits in the paratroop door with the cargo parachute facing toward the skin of the aircraft. False, it is measured with the cargo parachute facing the inside of the aircraft Weight of A-21 cargo bag Approximately 18 pounds Major components of A-21 cargo bag Canvas cover, sling assembly with scuff pad, ring strap group, quick release assembly For the A-21 cargo bag, the three safety features of the quick release assembly are Safety fork and lanyard, turn to unlock, strike/press to release Two major components of A-7A cargo sling A-7A cargo strap, D-ring A-Series container rigged with two A-7A cargo straps has a maximum weight of ______. 300 pounds A-Series container rigged with three A-7A cargo straps has a maximum weight of ______. 400 pounds A-Series container rigged with four A-7A cargo straps has a maximum weight of _____. 500 pounds Weight of T-10 modified cargo parachute 21 pounds The T-10 modified cargo parachute allows a maximum weight of______. 500 pounds The T-10 modified cargo parachute allows a minimum weight of________. 90 pounds For A-Series containers, at the 20 minute time warning the Safety will: move the load in the vicinity of the paratroop door, inspect the load, connect the universal static line snap hook to the outboard anchor line cable

For A-Series containers, after the jump command of _______ has been given, the Jumpmaster will regain control of their universal static line modified and the number one Jumpers. Standby CARP stands for: Computed Air Release Point The CARP is plotted by the: Air Force navigator The _____ is an imaginary point in the air where the first parachute suspended object must exit the aircraft in order to strike the point of impact CARP PPI stands for: Personnel Point of Impact HEPI stands for: Heavy Equipment Point of Impact For CARP, personnel operations the planning drop altitude is_________. 1,000 feet above ground level For CARP, personnel operations the planning air drop speed is_______. 130 knots For CDS and heavy equipment operations, the planning drop altitude is_______. 1,100 feet above ground level For CDS and heavy equipment operations, the planning air drop airspeed is______. 140 knots For personnel operations, the minimum drop zone is _____ wide by _____ long. 600 yards, 600 yards For heavy equipment, the minimum drop zone is ______ wide by _____ long. 600 yards, 1000 yards (T/F) For 1NANAS, the 1 refers to the minimum size drop zone needed for all of the personnel on the airborne operation. False, it is for the minimum size drop zone for the type of operation (T/F) For 1NANAS, the first N refers to night time operations. True For 1NANAS, add _____ to the length and width of the drop zone for night time operations. 100 yards (T/F) For 1NANAS, the first A refers to the actual drop altitude of the operation. True For 1NANAS, for every 100 feet above the planning drop altitude, add ______ to both the length and width.

30 yards (T/F) For 1NANAS, the first "N" refers to whether the aircraft are traveling not in trail. False, the second "N" refers to not in trail (T/F) For 1NANAS, the width for not in trail is added one time and one time only. True (T/F) C-17 Globemaster III aircraft can only fly in a trail formation when exiting personnel. False, C-17 Globemaster III cannot fly in trail when exiting personnel For 1NANAS, _____ is added to the width one time for C-130 Hercules not in trail for both personnel and heavy equipment. 100 yards For 1NANAS, _____ is added to the width one time for C-17 Globemaster III not in trail for heavy equipment. 100 yards For 1NANAS, ______ is added to the width one time for 2 C-17 Globemaster III not in trail for personnel. 640 yards For 1NANAS, ______ is added to the width one time for 3 C-17 Globemaster III not in trail for personnel. 1,200 yards (T/F) For 1NANAS, the second A refers to additional jumpers or platforms. True For 1NANAS, add _____ to the length for each additional jumper. 75 yards For 1NANAS, add _____ to the length for each additional heavy equipment platform for a C- 130 Hercules aircraft. 400 yards For 1NANAS, add ______ to the length for each additional heavy equipment platform for a C- 17 Globemaster III aircraft. 500 yards For 1NANAS, the S refers to the use of_____. Station Keeping Equipment SKE stands for: Station Keeping Equipment For 1NANAS, add _______ to the width one time and one time only when using SKE. 400 yards ADEPT stands for: Alternate Door Exit Procedures for Training

ADEPT _____ utilizes one paratroop door per pass. option 1 ADEPT _____ utilizes both paratroop doors per pass, but only one at a time. option 2 Point of impact placement for day time heavy equipment operations is _____from the ____ edge of the drop zone in the direction of flight. 500 yards, lead Point of impact placement for night time heavy equipment operations is _____from the ____ edge of the drop zone in the direction of flight. 550 yards, flight Point of impact placement for day time personnel operations is _____from the lead edge of the drop zone in the direction of flight. 300 yards Point of impact placement for night time personnel operations is _______ from the lead edge of the drop zone in the direction of flight. 350 yards Point of impact placement for day time CDS operations from a C-17 Globemaster III aircraft is _____ from the _____ edge of the drop zone in the direction of flight. 225 yards, lead Point of impact placement for night time CDS operations from a C-17 Globemaster III aircraft is ____ from the lead edge of the drop zone in the direction of flight. 275 yards Point of impact placement for day time CDS operations from a C-130 Hercules aircraft is _____ from the lead edge of the drop zone in the direction of flight. 200 yards Point of impact placement for night time CDS operations from a C-130 Hercules aircraft is ______ from the lead edge of the drop zone in the direction of flight. 250 yards For personnel operations, the control center will be located at the ______. Personnel Point of Impact (PPI) or the code letter For CDS operations the control center will be located _____ from the code letter or point of impact, not in the direction of flight. 200 yards For heavy equipment operations, the control center will be located _____ from the code letter or HEPI, not in the direction of flight. 300 yards AWADS stands for:

Adverse Weather Aerial Delivery System (T/F) For operations using AWADS, the control center will be located off the drop zone at the best vantage point. True (T/F) The control point will be located where the DZSO and DZSTL can best observe the operation, in the direction of flight. False, any direction except the direction of flight The 1 minute reference point is approximately______, opposite the direction of flight, from the lead edge of the drop zone. 4000 meters The 30 second reference point is approximately ______, opposite the direction of flight, from the lead edge of the drop zone. 2000 meters An aircraft flying at 130 knots is travelling approximately ___ yards per second. 75 DZSTL stands for ________ (Drop Zone Support Team Leader) STS stands for ________ Special Tactics Squadron (STS) T/F The duties of the DZSTL and the DZSO are combined when STS is not present on the drop zone and the individual meets the minimum qualifications for both the DZSO and the DZSTL. True DZSO stands for _____ (Drop zone safety officer). IMC stands for _____ (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) The DZSTL must be _____ or above. Marine Corps can be CPL, and Air Force can be SRA. SGT T/F The DZSTL does not need training on conducting airdrop operations without the support of STS (F) T/F The DZSTL does not need training on conducting airdrop operations without the support of STS False The Primary mission of the DZSTL during peacetime is _____ to provide personnel, equipment, and CDS airdrop coverage for one to four aircraft under visual meteorological conditions

The secondary mission of the DZSTL during peacetime is _____ to provide airdrop coverage for more than four aircraft under visual meteorological conditions. The tertiary mission of the DZSTL during peacetime is ______ to provide AWADS airdrop coverage under IMC for one to three aircraft. The primary mission of the DZSTL for combat operations is _____ to provide CDS air drop coverage for battalion size or smaller. The secondary mission of the DZSTL for combat operations is _____ to provide force projection and sustainment of personnel, equipment, and CDS (T/F) DZSO stands for Drop Zone Support Officer False, Drop Zone Safety Officer T/F The DZSO is the Airborne Commander's representative on the drop zone. True T/F The DZSO is exclusively and totally responsible for the safe and efficient operation of the drop zone. True T/F The duties of the DZSTL and DZSO can be combined True T/F The DZSO does not need be a current Jumpmaster. False, The DZSO must be a current and qualified Jumpmaster The Jumpmaster must perform the duties of the DZSO once every _____ days on a successful airborne operation to remain current. 180 The assistant DZSO must be _____ or above. Marine Corps can be Cpl, Air Force can be SRA SGT T/F The assistant DZSO must be a current Jumpmaster. True The assistant DZSO must have received _____ with a wind speed indicator hands on training The DZSO team requires a medical team with a minimum of_____ and ______. two medical personnel and 2 FLA's T/F The DZSO team does not always require a malfunctions officer with camera. False, A malfunctions officer is always required for airdrop T/F The DZSO team may require a ladder detail with saw and tree climbing equipment. True The DZSO team requires a boat detail if a body of water is _____ 4 feet deep or deeper, 40 feet wide or wider, and within 1000 meters of the drop zone The DZSO requires _____ VS-17 panels to establish code letter for day time operations

The DZSO requires _____ White omnidirectional or infrared lights for night time operations 11 The DZSO requires _____ of night vision goggles for night time operations 2 sets The DZSO requires _____ radios 2, 1 for DZSO, 1 for assistant DZSO at a minimum The 2 approved anemometers are _____ DIC-3, Turbometer The Turbometer must be held within _____ degrees of wind line with the wind entering the rear of the meter to ensure accurate readings 20 The airborne commander is responsible for ensuring winds on the DZ do not exceed ____ knots during static line personnel airdrops 13 The DZSO must open the drop zone through range control no later than _____ prior to drop time. one hour RAM stands for _____ Raised Angle Marker _____ is the Primary means of marking the drop zone for day time operations A RAM (Raised Angle Marker) Code letters for rectangular CARP drop zones are _____ J,C,A,R,S How do you check an anemometer? Check the anemometer in a no wind condition such as a vehicle cab. Turn on the anemometer and, if any reading other than zero registers, the anemometer is not fit for use. Or Use a three anemometer check by comparing the reading on three anemometers in identical conditions. If one anemometer takes different readings, it will not be used. Code letters for circular CARP drop zones are _____ O,H (T/F) Code letter is constructed of 11 omnidirectional lights for day time operations False, VS-17 panels will be utilized for daytime operations The code letter must be at least _____ 35 feet long and 35 feet wide The code letter is placed at _____ the point of impact The top of the code letter is located _____ for day time operations

at the base of the RAM The code letter is constructed of _____ for night time operations 9 omni-directional white lights Flanker lights will be placed _____ to the right and left of the code letter for night time operations 250 meters For night time operations, an ARB (Amber Rotating Beacon) must be placed _____ 1,000 meters from the code letter in the direction of flight, or at the trail edge of the drop zone, whichever comes first. The DZSO will ensure that all powerlines near the drop zone are shut off no later than _____ prior to drop time 15 minutes The DZSO must be positioned at the control center _____ before drop time 15 minutes T/F The DZSO will transition all rotary wing aircraft away from the drop zone. True If rotary wing aircraft are within _____ of the drop zone, they must have rotors tied down 1000 meters The DZSO will start taking wind readings _____ minutes prior to drop time 12 The DZSO will establish a _____ minute window. Declare "no drop" if winds exceed the maximum 10 The final decision will be made _____ minutes prior to drop time and "clear to drop" or "no drop" will be relayed to the aircraft 2 The surface wind speed cannot exceed _____ knots for personnel operations 13 The surface wind speed cannot exceed _____ knots for heavy equipment operations 17 T/F During the operation, the DZSO does not need to continuously monitor surface winds from the point of impact. False, The DZSO must continuously monitor surface winds during the operation The assistant DZSO/DZSTL will take _____ at another location on the drop zone, usually the highest point surface wind readings T/F The DZSO controls all medical evacuations. True T/F Antennas do not need to be tied down.

False, The DZSO ensures all antennas remain tied down T/F The DZSO will check the radios every 10 minutes. False, The DZSO continues to monitor the radios. T/F The DZSO will check the radios every 10 minutes. False, The DZSO continues to monitor the radios. The secondary method of declaring a "no drop" for day time operations is _____ removal of the RAM. The primary method of declaring a "no drop" for night time operations is _____ red star clusters or flares. The secondary method of declaring a "no drop" for night time operations is _____ turning off the white omnidirectional lights The universal temporary closing of the drop zone will be signaled by _____ two parallel rows of four VS-17 panels each. The universal mission cancelation signal is to _____ form an "X" out of eight VS-17 panels After the operation, the DZSO closes the drop zone after _____ accountability of all personnel, equipment, air items, and equipment is completed. T/F All obstacles must be identified within 1000 meters of drop zone True Completed AF IMT 3823 is good for _____ years from the date of approval. 5 T/F You do not need to be a current DZSO or DZSTL to determine the ceiling for a CARP operation. False, You must be a current and qualified DZSO or DZSTL The circumference of the 30 gram pi-ball for day time operations must be _____ 75 inches If a discrepancy in ceiling height exists between the DZSO/DZSTL's calculations and the STS's calculations, the _____ calculations will be utilized. STS's The circumference of the 30 gram pi-ball for night time operations must be _____ 94 inches The circumference of the 10 gram pi-ball for day time operations must be ______ 57 inches The circumference of the 10 gram pi-ball for night time operations must be _____ 74 inches Tie the _____ inch chem-light to the end of the pi-ball; if conducting operation at night 6

The maximum troop transport capabilities of the C-130 Hercules aircraft for training is _____ jumpers. 62 The C-130 Hercules aircraft requires a minimum of _____ supervisory personnel 6 The C- 130 Hercules aircraft supervisory personnel are _____ 1 Primary Jumpmaster, 1 Assistant Jumpmaster, 2 Safeties, 2 Loadmasters. The maximum troop transport capabilities of the C-130 Hercules aircraft for in-flight rigging is _____ jumpers. 52 The C-130 Hercules aircraft requires a minimum of _____ supervisory personnel for in-flight rigging. 10 The C-130 Hercules aircraft supervisory personnel for in-flight rigging are _____ 1 Primary Jumpmaster, 1 Assistant Jumpmaster, 3 Additional current and qualified Jumpmasters from chalk, 2 Safeties, 2 Loadmasters. The C-17 Globemaster III slows down _____ minutes from the drop zone 6 T/F Troop transport capabilities may be reduced depending on the equipment that is utilized inside the aircraft and the equipment that is being jumped by personnel. True In-flight rigging should be considered for all flights longer than _____ in duration 4 hours The C-130 Hercules aircraft paratroop door dimensions are _____ in height, ______ in width. 72 inches 36 inches The maximum width of any item that may be exited from the paratroop doors of a C-130 Hercules aircraft is _____ inches 30 The C-130 Hercules aircraft has _____ anchor line cables 4 The C-130 Hercules aircraft allows a maximum of _____ jumpers per anchor line cable 20 The anchor line cable is made up of _____ 7 strands with 7 wires each T/F The maximum allowable amount of broken wires is 4 broken wires per inch per strand of anchor line cable.

False, The maximum allowable amount of broken wires is three broken wires per inch per strand of anchor line cable T/F If three broken wires are present in one inch of anchor line cable, there can be no broken wires in the inch before and inch after on the anchor line cable. True The maximum allowable amount of broken wires is _____ broken wires per inch of anchor line cable. six T/F If 5 broken wires are present in one inch of anchor line cable, there can be no broken wires in the inch before and inch after on the anchor line cable. False, If six broken wires are present in one inch of anchor line cable, there can be no broken wires in the inch before and inch after on the anchor line cable. T/F If 6 broken wires are present in one inch of anchor line cable, there can be no broken wires in the inch before and inch after on the anchor line cable. True T/F The C-130 Hercules aircraft has 2 towed parachutist retrieval systems, one per active paratroop door. True The C-130 Hercules aircraft has a drop speed of _____ 125 to 135 knots. The C-130 Hercules aircraft's wind deflectors must extend ___ from the skin of the aircraft. 15 ½ inches The four time-warnings given by the jumpmaster are _____ 20 minutes, 10 minutes, 1 minute, and 30 seconds The nine jump commands are _____ "get ready," "outboard personnel stand up," "inboard personnel stand up," "hook up," "check static lines," "check equipment," "sound off for equipment check," "standby," "go." The maximum troop transport capability of the C-130J-30 Super Hercules aircraft for training is _____ jumpers 76

The C-130 Hercules aircraft slows down _____ minutes prior to the drop zone. 3 The C-130J-30 Super Hercules aircraft requires a minimum of _____ supervisory personnel 6 The 6 supervisory personnel on the C-130J-30 Super Hercules aircraft are _____ 1 Primary Jumpmaster, 1 Assistant Jumpmaster, 2 Safeties, 2 Loadmasters. The maximum troop transport capability of the C-130J-30 Super Hercules aircraft for in-flight rigging is _____ jumpers 74 The C-130J-30 Super Hercules aircraft requires a minimum of _____ supervisory personnel for in- flight rigging. 12 The 12 supervisory personnel on the C-130J-30 Super Hercules aircraft for in-flight rigging are

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1 Primary Jumpmaster, 1 Assistant Jumpmaster, 6 additional current and qualified Jumpmasters 2 Safeties, 2 Loadmasters The C-130J-30 Super Hercules aircraft paratroop door dimensions are _____ in height, _____ in width. 72 inches 36 inches The maximum width of any item that may be exited from the C-130J-30 Super Hercules paratroop door is _____ 30 inches The C-130J-30 Super Hercules aircraft has 4 anchor line cables that can sustain a maximum of _____ Jumpers per anchor line cable 31 The C-130J-30 Super Hercules aircraft has _____ sets of jump caution lights. 7 The 5 supervisory personnel on the C-17 Globemaster III are _____ 1 Primary Jumpmaster, 1 Assistant Jumpmaster, 2 Safeties, 1 Loadmaster. The maximum troop transport capabilities for the C-17 Globemaster III for in-flight rigging is _____ jumpers. 100 The C-17 Globemaster III requires _____ supervisory personnel for in-flight rigging. 11 The 12 supervisory personnel for the C-17 Globemaster III for in-flight rigging are _____ 1 Primary Jumpmaster, 1 Assistant Jumpmaster, 6 Additional current and qualified Jumpmasters, 2 Safeties, 1 Loadmaster.

T/F The C-17 Globemaster III has no aft end capabilities for static line operations. True The C-17 Globemaster III paratroop door dimensions are _____ in height, _____ in width. 72 inches 36 inches The maximum width of any item that may be exited from the paratroop door of a C-17 Globemaster III is _____ 30 inches. The C-17 Globemaster III maximum allowable number of Jumpers per anchor line cable is ____ Jumpers per outboard anchor line cable and _____ Jumpers per inboard anchor line cable. 27outboard, 24 inboard The C-17 Globemaster III has _____ sets of jump caution lights. 12 The C-17 Globemaster III has a airdrop speed of _____ 130 knots plus or minus 3 knots. The C-17 Globemaster III has a airdrop speed of _____ 130 knots plus or minus 3 knots. The wind deflector on an C-17 Globemaster III extends _____. 35 degrees plus or minus 5 degrees Once all Jumpers have exited, to include the Jumpmasters, what are the three things safeties must do?

1. Conduct a clear to the rear to ensure there are no towed Jumpers
2. Issue a thumbs up to the opposite Safety
3. Begin retrieving the deployment bags inside the aircraft. What is the maximum and minimum safe drop speed of the T-11 main parachute system? Maximum: 150 knots Minimum: 50 knots True/False. The T-11 main parachute is activated by the universal static line. False.(improper nomenclature) It is activated by the universal static line modified. The T-11 reserve parachute is deployed by the ___________throwing the reserve extractor and apex of the reserve canopy away from the Jumper's body. Ejector spring assembly The advanced combat helmet must have ____oval pad(s), _____crown pad(s), and ______trapezoid pad(s). Four, One, Two True/False. The chinstrap fastener must always be secured on the Jumper's right side. False. The Jumper's left side. True/False. The Ballistic nape pad can be used in place of the nape pad.

False. The Ballistic nape pad is unauthorized (T/F) The universal parachutist recovery bag must be worn with the smooth side facing towards the Jumper, leg strap retainers facing away from the Jumper and the folds facing skyward. True There are ________ color-coded attaching loops on each side of the harness single point release. Three (T/F) The Jumpmaster must wear a communications headset on a UH-60 Blackhawk constant communication with their pilots. True Never load Army aircraft until instructed to do so by the ________ or _______. Jumpmaster, flight crew When can you unhook the universal static line snap hooks on a UH-60 Blackhawk in flight? When the cargo door is closed (T/F) On a UH-60 Blackhawk, the Jumpmaster must be static (non-jumping) and will wear an Advanced Emergency Bailout Parachute. False. The Jumpmaster will wear a harness The modified anchor line system components are: 1)8 D-rings 2)A-7A cargo strap 3)8 cotton buffers 4)4 connector snaps 5)4 safety wires For a CH-47 Chinook jump, it is recommended that the Jumpmaster be static. What must happen if they are not? They will be the number one Jumper and a non-jumping Safety is required to control the flow and exit Jumpers (T/F). The T-10 modified cargo parachute can be used for both the A-21 cargo bag and the A-7A cargo sling. True List the two actions the Safety will take for door bundles on Air Force aircraft once the paratroop doors are opened.

1. Move the load to the trail edge of the paratroop door with the T-10 modified cargo parachute facing inside the aircraft.
2. Ensure the Jumpmaster has enough room to conduct paratroop door checks. The ____and ____ will co-locate at the control point no later than 15 minutes prior to the drop time. DZSO, DZSTL

For IMC/AWADS/INS conditions, control centers will be located: Off the drop zone at the best vantage point (T/F) Civilian traffic is allowed on the drop zone, as long as the lights are off. False. No unauthorized vehicles are on the drop zone. The Air Force listing of all available drop zones that were approved for use is called the ________. Zone Availability Report (ZAR) (T/F) The DZSO must have received training on the proper procedures for determining the ceiling for a CARP operation. True If there is a discrepancy in ceiling height exists between the DZSO/DZSTL's calculations and the Special Tactics Squadron's (STS) calculations, the _______calculations will be utilized. STS's calculations A Pi-ball is used to determine the ceiling. The two sizes are ____ and ______. 10 gram, 30 gram When observing the ceiling utilizing the pi-ball and the exact time is not on the chart, ________to the nearest time. Round down In the Army, you must be a ______(rank) or above to perform duties as a Jumpmaster Sergeant In the Marine Corps or Air Force you must be a _____ (pay grade) or above to perform Jumpmaster duties. E- 4 (T/F) Jumpmasters must perform duties as a Safety once before performing duties as an Assistant Jumpmaster. False, Jumpmasters must perform duties as a Safety twice before performing duties as an Assistant Jumpmaster. (T/F) Jumpmasters must perform duties of a Safety twice and Assistant Jumpmaster twice before performing duties as a Primary Jumpmaster. True (T/F) Jumpmasters must perform duties as a Safety twice and an Assistant Jumpmaster twice within 180 days to establish Baseline Currency. False, Jumpmasters must perform duties as a Safety twice and an Assistant Jumpmaster once within 180 days to establish Baseline Currency. (T/F) Novice Rated Jumpmasters must perform duties as a Safety once every 180 days to remain current. False, Novice Rated Jumpmasters must perform duties as a Assistant Jumpmaster or a Primary Jumpmaster once every 180 days to remain current.

Advanced Rated Jumpmasters can perform duties as a __________, __________, or _________ once every 180 days to remain current. Assistant Jumpmaster, Primary Jumpmaster, or Safety. (T/F) Jumpmasters perform duties at the Unit Area, Departure Airfield, and in Flight. True When do duties of a Jumpmaster begin? Upon Notification The Primary Jumpmaster can delegate _________ but not ________ Authority, Responsibility (T/F) Sustained Airborne Training can be conducted in the Unit Area or the Departure Airfield. True (T/F) Sustained Airborne Training at a minimum must consist of Pre-jump. False, Sustained Airborne Training at a minimum must consist of Pre-jump, Parachute Landing Falls, and mock door training. (T/F) Jumpmasters load the jumpers in reverse chalk order to enforce the commander's tactical cross load. True (T/F) A minimum of three mock door rehearsals must be conducted during sustained airborne training. False, two mock door rehearsals. (T/F) Upon arrival to departure airfield, the Primary Jumpmaster will report to the DACO for updates or changes to the operation or timeline True (T/F) All members of the Jumpmaster team will report to the GLO and receive the serious incident brief False,All members of the Jumpmaster team will report to the DACO and receive the serious incident brief (T/F) Station time is the time agreed upon between the Army and the Air Force for when all the Jumpers and equipment must be loaded and seated with seatbelts on inside the aircraft True (T/F) Safeties will draw one extra aviators kit bag for every 30 Jumpers False, Safeties will draw one extra aviators kit bag for every 15 Jumpers (T/F) Safeties will draw one extra universal parachutist recovery bag for every 30 Jumpers True At least ___ additional reserve parachutes must be drawn by the Jumpmaster team 2 (T/F) JMPI stands for Jump Master Pre Inspection False, JMPI stands for Jump Master Personnel Inspection

(T/F) The Primary Jumpmaster should oversee the Jumpmaster personnel inspection and only help with inspecting if required to meet Station time True The adjustable leg strap is routed ____ JMPI after When exiting the left paratroop door the ____ adjustable leg strap must be routed around the ____ leg right When exiting the right paratroop door, the ____adjustable leg strap must be routed around the ____ leg and MAWC left, left _______ should stay in constant communication with the pilots through the load master Primary Jumpmaster (T/F) The loadmasters will ensure that they are monitoring the medical state of the Jumpers and distributing of air sickness bags as required False, The safeties will ensure that they are monitoring the medical state of the Jumpers and distributing of air sickness bags as required The ______ will take control of all jump refusals Safeties Safeties begin inspecting the universal static lines modified after the jump command of ________ Check Static Lines (T/F) During Paratroop door checks, the safety will be position at the trail edge of the paratroop door True All the personnel and equipment left over from an airborne operation will be turned over to the ____ upon completion DACO (T/F) The approximate rate of descent of a T-11 main parachute is 18.5 feet per second. True (T/F) The maximum suspended weight of the T-11 main parachute is 350 pounds. False, The maximum suspended weight of the T-11 main parachute is 400 pounds (T/F) The T-11 main parachute average deployment time is approximately 6.5 seconds True (T/F) The minimum safe drop speed of the T-11 main parachute is 50 miles per hour False, The minimum safe drop speed of the T- 11 main parachute is 50 knots (T/F) The maximum safe drop speed of the T-11 main parachute is 150 knots True