Thorough BCSP CSP Study Guide Questions with Correct Answers -Graded A., Exams of Community Corrections

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Thorough BCSP CSP Study Guide Questions

with Correct Answers - Graded A.

What part of an organization is directly responsible for safety? - Correct Answer-The Line - People doing work on the floor Safety Policy - Correct Answer-A broad statement outlining an organizational commitment to safety Safety Program - Correct Answer-A broad set of plans and policies addressing the safety goals of an organization Plan - Correct Answer-A documented strategy for getting something accomplished - it may or may not be implemented. Ex. of not implemented: natural disasters Heinrich's Theory - Correct Answer-88% of accidents caused by unsafe acts 3 "Es" for preventing accidents caused by unsafe acts according to Heinrich - Correct Answer-Engineering, Education, Enforcement McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y - Correct Answer-Theory X ("Xternal): Employees need external rewards and punishments - employees need some consequences and do not have internal motivation Theory Y: Some employees are internally motivated Theory Z - Correct Answer-Japanese style management theory - team approach Chris Agyris - Incongruence Theory - Correct Answer-There is disconnect between management and workers Herzberg Motivation/Hygiene Theory - Correct Answer-Hygiene (Satisfaction) Factors:

• Money
• Status
• Relationship with Manager

• Company Policies
• Work Conditions Motivation Factors:
• Achievement
• Recognition
• Enjoyment of Work
• Possibility of Promotion
• Responsibility Must build both Satisfaction and Motivation into job Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs - Correct Answer-Safety second in this hierarchy (MAYBE LOOK TO LECTURE FOR MORE HERE TOO) Pareto Principle - Correct Answer- 80 - 20 Rule; 80% of effects results from 20% of causes Role of Principals in a Company - Correct Answer-Set policies and objectives for an organization. CEO: Sets example for safety; should participate in safety meetings From where is authority of safety function in a company generally derived? - Correct Answer-Ability to influence LINE management How is the size of safety department generally determined? - Correct Answer-- Frequency of Accidents
• Tasks Assigned to Safety Department
• Number of Workers ISO 9001 - Correct Answer-- QUALITY CONTROL standard
• Documentation is key
• Elements:
• Quality MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

• Management RESPONSIBILITY
• RESOURCE management
• Product REALIZATION
• Measurement, Analysis, Improvement ISO 14000 - Correct Answer-ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ISO 4501 - Correct Answer-Standard being developed for safety OHSAS 18000 - Correct Answer-- Voluntary Standard
• Aimed at helping organizations control occupational health/safety risks ANZI/AIHA Z10 - Correct Answer-- "Plan, do, check, act" model OSHA VPP - Correct Answer-- Voluntary Protection Program
• 4 Components:
• Management LEADERSHIP and employee INVOLVEMENT
• Worksite ANALYSIS
• Hazard PREVENTION and CONTROL
• Safety and Health TRAINING General Duty Clause (OSHA) - Correct Answer-- Catch-all clause that OSHA uses if there is not a specific regulation that applies
• Employers must provide a safe worksite OSHA Inspection Priority - Correct Answer-1. Imminent Danger - Ex. People observed working on the roof not tied off

2. Catastrophe/Accident
3. Employee Complaint
4. Programmed High Hazard - Scheduled inspections for high hazard industries

5. Follow-Up Horizontal and Vertical Standards - Correct Answer-- Horizontal: applies to everyone

• Vertical: industry specific (ex. welding)
• Vertical takes precedence over horizontal OSHA 300 Log - Correct Answer-- Annual log of injuries and illnesses
• Must be posted Feb 1 - APRIL 30 each year OSHA 301 Form - Correct Answer-Incident Log Machine Safeguarding Principles - Correct Answer-- Prevent people from contacting dangerous machine parts
  • Moving parts
  • Hot parts
• Prevent flying parts from hitting people Machine Motions - 5 types - Correct Answer-1. Rotation
  • Shafts
  • Pulleys

2. Reciprocating or Transverse
   • Jig-saw
3. In-running Nip Points (Pinch point)
   • Chain and sprocket
   • Belt and pulley
4. Cutting
   • Circular saw
   • Drill
5. Punching
   • Shearing, bending

Danger Line - Correct Answer-- Point where dangerous action occurs

• Pinch point narrowing to 3/8 INCH or less Machine Safeguarding Methods - Correct Answer-- Physical Guards
  • Physically prevent contact
• Devices
  • De-energize system when enter hazardous area
• Distance - keep dangerous parts out of reach of contact
• Location
  • Dangerous operations located in separate area from people Qualities of Effective Safeguarding Methods - Correct Answer-- Exist as function of machine
• Difficult to override Guard Distance from Danger Line - Correct Answer-Distance from danger line increases as max opening width increases Physical Guard Properties - Correct Answer-Physical Guards MUST:
• Be PERMANENT part of machine
• PREVENT ACCESS to the danger zone
• DURABLE to resist wear
• ALLOW routine MAINTENANCE Physical Guards MUST NOT:
• INTERFERE with machine operation
• Create additional hazards themselves Enclosure - Correct Answer-Enclosing hazard is an effective way to eliminate injuries

Interlocks - Correct Answer-De-activate equipment when guard removed

• Ex. Washing machine Power Transmission Guards - Correct Answer-Ex. Guards of Drive Trains Presence Sensing Guards - Correct Answer-- Mats
• Photoelectric Sensors
• Lasers Restraints - Correct Answer-Physically prevent entry into device Two Hand Control - Correct Answer-Employees must use both hands to operate Hand Feed Tools - Correct Answer-Tools used to feed products into and out of machine Robots - Correct Answer-- Used heavily in auto industry
• Must protect against entire reach of robot Abrasive Wheels - Correct Answer-Perform RING TEST prior to installation
• Tests the integrity of the abrasive grinding wheel
• Want to hear ring when tapping wheel Abrasive Wheel Work Rests - Correct Answer-No more than 1/8 INCH between abrasive grinding wheel and rest Lockout Tagout Procedures (Electricity) - Correct Answer-- Control of hazardous energy
• Zero energy state - needs to be taken down to this state
• WRITTEN program - need to have a written program
• Training
• Must be "competent person" (OSHA)

"Competent Person" (OSHA) - Correct Answer-One who is CAPABLE OF IDENTIFYING existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has AUTHORIZATION TO TAKE PROMPT CORRECTIVE MEASURES to eliminate them. 7 Types of Hazardous Energy - Correct Answer-1. Potential

2. Kinetic
3. Mechanical
4. Electrical
5. Pneumatic
6. Hydraulic
7. Steam Authorized Worker - Correct Answer-- Worker who locks and tags out machines and equipment; has specialized training and have to demonstrate competency

• KEYS must be carried at all times Affected Worker - Correct Answer-Any worker in the area where equipment is locked out Control Point - Correct Answer-Valve, switch, flange or other point on equipment used to isolate the equipment Lock - Correct Answer-Lock used ONLY for isolating equipment Basic Lockout Procedure - Correct Answer-1. Notify impacted employees

2. Power down equipment
3. Control energy as required
4. Try operating equipment
5. Perform work
6. Remove controls
7. Verify operation

8. Notify affected employees Wooden Ladders Requirements - Correct Answer-- Free from sharp edges and splinters

• Steps not more than 12 INCHES
• Side rails spread at least 1 INCH for each FOOT of length stepladder Metal Ladder Requirements - Correct Answer-- 12" center spacing for rungs
• Non-slip material on bottom FOUR rungs Portable Step Ladder Maximum Length - Correct Answer- 20 feet Type I Stepladder - Correct Answer-- Industrial (utilities, contractors)
• 3 to 20 feet Type II Stepladder - Correct Answer-- Commercial (Painters, offices, light industrial)
• 3 to 12 feet Type III Stepladder - Correct Answer-- Household use
• 3 to 6 feet Extension Ladder Required Dimensions - Correct Answer-- Max Length = 60 feet - Height to base distance ratio: 4:
• Ladder must extend 3 FEET ABOVE POINT OF SUPPORT
• Overlap Requirements:
  • Ladder <(or equal) 36 ft: 3 FEET
  • 36 Feet < Ladder <(or equal) 48 ft: 4 FEET
  • 48 Feet < Ladder <(or equal) 60 ft: 5 FEET Extension Ladder Safety Precautions - Correct Answer-- INSPECT prior to each use
• Feet set on NONSLIP base
• LASHED

Fixed Ladder Safety Requirements - Correct Answer-- Ladder must be TREATED to prevent corrosion in atmospheres that lead to corrosion

• UNIFORM STEPS <(or equal) 1 FOOT apart
• Pitch not to exceed 90 DEGREES
• Recommended Pitch: 75 to 90 degrees Fixed Ladder Cage Requirements - Correct Answer-- Ladders > 20 FEET must have cage
• Ladders > 20 feet must have LANDING every 30 FEET
• Cage starts 7' - 8' from the ground
• Cage must extend 42 INCHES above LANDING Stairway Safety Requirements - Correct Answer-- Must have railing on all exposed sides
• Angle between 30 to 60 DEGREES
• Uniform spacing of steps Standard Railing Requirements - Correct Answer-- Top Rail, Mid Rail, and Posts
• Vertical height: 42 INCHES
• Mid-Rail height: 21 INCHES
• Withstand 200 LBS of horizontal force Standard Toeboard - Correct Answer-- 4 INCHES vertical height
• 1/4 INCH clearance above floor Crane Safety Guidelines - Correct Answer-- INSPECT all machinery and equipment prior to each use
• Attachments used with crane should NOT EXCEED MANUFACTURER'S RATING
• NEVER work under loads Power Lines and Cranes - Correct Answer-- Safest method is to ground at point of work

• IF you can't de-energize
  • Use a default clearance between the crane and the lines of 20 FEET
• OSHA has defined distances as well (if voltage known)
  • Minimum distance is 10 feet for up to 50 volts - then goes up 5 feet for every 150 volts up to 500 volts
  • From 500 - 1000 volts, goes up 10 feet for every 250 volts Illumination for Safety - Correct Answer-- Unit for illumination is the footcandle (fc)
• High hazard areas
  • 5fc in high activity areas
  • 2fc in low activity areas
• Low hazard Areas
  • 1fc in high activity level
  • .5fc in low activity level Colors for Markings (Red, Yellow, Green, Black/White, Orange, Blue, Magenta) - Correct Answer-Red: Danger, fire equipment Yellow: Caution Green: First Aid, Safety Equipment Black/White: Traffic Markings Orange: Dangerous Parts Blue: Information Magenta: Radiation Hazards First Two Steps in Training Process - Correct Answer-1. Needs Assessment

2. Training Objectives

Needs Assessment (training) Definition - Correct Answer-- Determination as to whether training is correct response to organization's needs

• A "Gap analysis" of current results and desired results Hierarchy of Controls ("ESEAP") - Correct Answer-Eliminate Substitute Engineer Administrative PPE Solutions to Skill/Knowledge Issues - Correct Answer-- Training
• Information
• Job Aids
• Coaching
• Mentoring Solutions to Environmental Issues - Correct Answer-- Redesign of Job
• New tools
• New technology Important Training Objectives - Correct Answer-- Clearly state what STUDENTS WILL GAIN from training
• Objectives must be MEASURABLE
  • Ex. Identify 5 hazards on the MSDS Four Components of a Training Performance Objective - Correct Answer-1. WHO is being trained?

2. WHAT should they be able to do?
3. Under what CONDITIONS should they be able to do it?
4. How well must they PERFORM? Most/Least Effective Methods for Retention - Correct Answer-Most: Practicing material Least: Reading material

Ways that Active Participants Learn Best - Correct Answer-- Hands on Learning

• Participating in simulations
• Field Trips
• Drills Ways that Reflective Observers Learn Best - Correct Answer-- Reading manuals
• Watching videos
• Listening to lectures Recordkeeping Elements - Correct Answer-- Maintain records of all training in employee work history
• Include: (1) TRAINING Attended (2) DATE Attended (3) PURPOSE of Training Order of Math Operations (Please Excuse My Dear Aunt Suzy) - Correct Answer- Parentheses Power Multiply Divide Add Subtract Static Muscular Effort - Correct Answer-Muscles have a long state of contraction - can lead to deterioration of joints, ligaments, tendons Dynamic Muscular Effort - Correct Answer-Muscles constantly moving Musculoskeletal Disorders - Correct Answer-- Disorders of muscles, nerves, tendons, ligaments, joints
• Not typically a result of acute event Occupational Risk Factors for Musculoskeletal Disorders ("RJFCV") - Correct Answer-- Repetition/duration Less than 30 sec/cycle More than 1,000 parts per shift

• Joint deviation Raised elbows Bent wrists
• Force High amount of hand force Hand grasping Mechanical stress
• Cold Muscles not as flexible
• Vibration Power hand tools Higher Risk Body Parts - Correct Answer-- Soft tissue
  • Muscle, tendon
• Nerves
• Blood vessels
• Lower back Tendon - Correct Answer-Connects muscle to bone Ligament - Correct Answer-Connects bone to bone ("BLB") Carpal Tunnel Syndrome - Correct Answer-- Carpal tunnel on the palmar side of the wrist contains tendons, nerve, etc
• Swelling of tendon pinches nerve Epicondylitis ("Tennis Elbow") - Correct Answer-- Caused by jerky, throwing motions
• Tendons on outside elbow injured or strained

Tendinitis - Correct Answer-- Inflammation of tendons associated with repeated moving, bending Trigger Finger - Correct Answer-- Finger movement not smooth - snaps or jerks White Finger - Correct Answer-- Insufficient blood supply causes fingers to become pale

• Arteries closed due to vasospasms triggered by VIBRATIONS
• Working in the cold, working with jackhammers, etc Ergonomics Program Steps/Factors - Correct Answer-- All personnel represented on ergo team (labor, management, engineering, safety)
• Training
• Identifying existing or potential problems
• Evaluate risk factors
• Design and implement
• Monitor Effectiveness of corrections Workstation Design (10 Factors) - Correct Answer-1. Ensure PROPER MATCH between facility and operator

2. Task design and work DESIGN INTERRELATED
   • Forces kept to less than 30% of maximal forces
   • Up to 50% acceptable for short durations
   • Static forces kept to less than 15% of maximal forces
3. Use best MECHANICAL ADVANTAGE
4. Foot controls OK for seated workers NOT for standing workers
5. Maintain proper SITTING HEIGHT
6. Permit CHANGE of POSTURE

7. Accommodate LARGE OPERATORS in design
8. BENCH Height
   • Sitting 50cm - 70cm
   • Standing 89cm
9. Controls and computer screens placed in VISUAL FIELD 10 INSTRUCT and TRAIN operators to use good working posture Standing Work Heights (Delicate, Light, Heavy) - Correct Answer-- Delicate work - 2"-4" above elbow

• Light work - 2"-4" below elbow
• Heavy work - 6"-16" below elbow REBA (Rapid Entire Body Assessment) (Bag it, tag it) Steps - Correct Answer-- Looks at entire body as you do a task
• Steps
  1. Observe the task
  2. Fill out a checklist
  3. Compute Scores
  4. Compare
  5. Interview and Observation
• Based on
  • The most difficult postures and work tasks
  • Posture sustained for longest period of time
  • Posture where highest work loads occur RULA (Rapid Upper Limb Assessment) - Correct Answer-Very similar to REBA - see REBA for steps

REBA/RULA Pros/Cons - Correct Answer-Pros:

• User Friendly
• Advanced Degrees/special equipment not required Cons:
• Does not consider duration of task
• Only allows for looking at one point in time or worst case scenario
• Must use representative postures System Safety - Correct Answer-- Systematic approach to detect deficiencies in system components
• Incorporate safety devices
• Provide warnings
• Develop procedures/training System Safety Analysis (What-if, HAZOP) - Correct Answer-- What-if Analysis: INFORMAL investigation introducing and evaluating hypotheticals
• Haz-OP: FORMAL study examining potential deviations from design conditions that could create problems/hazards
• Both of these frequently a TEAM EFFORT FMEA (analysis) - Correct Answer-- Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
• Looks to potential equipment failures - traced to predict effects
• Analysis leads to critical items list: What are the worst hazards? How to prioritize? STEP analysis - Correct Answer-- Simultaneous Timed Events Plotting
• Looks at events from time or sequence perspective MORT - Correct Answer-- Management Oversight and Risk Tree
• Identifies risks and refers to proper management

Energy Trace and Barrier Analysis (Part of MORT) - Correct Answer-- Incident: unwanted energy flow from inadequate barriers resulting WITHOUT adverse consequences

• Accident: Same but WITH adverse consequences Fault Tree Analysis - Event Types - Correct Answer-- Four Event Types:
  • Fault Event: Rectangle
  • Basic Event: Circle
  • Undeveloped Event: Diamond
  • Normal Event: House Shape - probability close to 1 Fault Tree Analysis - "And" gates; "Or" gates - Correct Answer-- "And Gate": A and B both need to occur to lead to C
  • AxB=C
  • Bullet shape
• "Or Gate": A or B needs to occur to lead to C
  • A+B=C
  • Looks kind of like an oar (Curved semicircle) See p. 164 - 165 for examples Aims of Industrial Hygiene - Correct Answer-Anticipate Recognize Evaluate Control Health Hazards TLVs (health hazards) - Correct Answer-- Threshold Limit Values
• GUIDELINES in controlling hazards NOT in regulations
• Level of exposure a typical worker can experience without adverse health effects

• Based on industrial experience and lab tests TLV-TWA - Correct Answer-- Time Weighted Average
• 8 hour workday
• 40 hour work week
• Nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed DAY AFTER DAY without adverse effect TLV-STEL - Correct Answer-- Short Term Exposure Limit
• Workers can be exposed continuously for a SHORT PERIOD OF TIME without: Irritation Chronic/irreversible tissue damage Narcosis (stupor, drowsiness, unconsciousness)
• No longer than 15 MINUTES
• No more than 4 TIMES A DAY
• 60 MINUTES BETWEEN exposures OSHA PELs - Correct Answer-- Permissible Exposure Limit
• REGULATION
• Based on TLVs from 1968 Ceiling Limit - Correct Answer-Concentration should not be exceeded at ANY time Particulate Matter Size Categories - Correct Answer-- Inhalable - less than or equal to 100 μm (micro meters)
• Thoracic - less than or equal to 10 micro meters
  • These get a little farther into the throat but not far enough to cause any damage
• Respirable - less than or equal to 4 micro meters

• These get far down enough to cause damage Pump and Filter Sampling Method - Correct Answer-- Measures for total dust
• Pulls air through filter
• Filter sent to lab to be weighed - Gravimetric method Cyclone Sampling Method - Correct Answer-- Used for RESPIRABLE dust
• Uses pump and filter as well
• Cyclone system separates smaller particulate from larger
• Placed in the breathing zone - around face Direct Reading Dust Monitor (Miniram) - Correct Answer-- Scatters light in a room and uses to take a reading for dust Photoionization Detector (PID) - Correct Answer-- Used to test for amount and class of chemicals in the air
• Immediate qualitative results
• IF you know the individual contaminants you can get quantitative results PID Disadvantages - Correct Answer-- Poor selectivity
• Adversely affected by: humidity, particulates, hot/corrosive atmospheres
• Must be recalibrated when lamp ages/is contaminated Gas Detector Tubes - Correct Answer-- Specific volume of air drawn through tube with hand pump
• In tube you have chemicals that will react with the things you are looking for
• Color changes proportional to concentration Combustible Gas Detector - Correct Answer-- Measures combustible gases as a percentage of the lower flammable limit or lower explosive limit (LEL)
• Called a Wheatstone Bridge This is what gas is burned across

Part of the combustible gas detector

• Alarm sounds at 10% LEL Absorbents (impinger) - Correct Answer-- LIQUID media absorbs air with contaminant
• Sample drawn through liquid and gas absorbed in liquid
  • Liquid analyzed in lab Adsorbents - Correct Answer-- SOLID material that retains chemical molecules Activated carbon most common
• Tube sent to lab for analysis
• Adsorbents can be used: Actively - air being pulled through media Passively - media being worn etc.
• Good for: hydrocarbons, ethers, alcohol, glycol ethers Active Sampling - Correct Answer-Two sections: collection adsorbent and breakthrough adsorbent Breakthrough - Correct Answer-- Essentially contamination of sample
  • High temperature
  • Migration of Chemicals Diffusion Sampling - Correct Answer-- Passive sampling
• Sample rate determined by Fick's Law - this has been on test
• Uses same media as solid sorbent tubes
• Less obtrusive to the wearer Biological Air Sampling - Correct Answer-- Uses pump - air drawn through media

• Collects colony forming units
  • Count colonies that grow Calibration of Air Sampling Instruments - Correct Answer-- All air sampling instruments must be calibrated
• Pumps must calibrate airflow BEFORE and AFTER each sampling period
• Electrochemical sensors must be calibrated on a routine basis Vector - Correct Answer-Organism is a vector if it spreads disease Fungi - Correct Answer-- Everywhere in human environments
• MOISTURE and growth MEDIA lead to growth mVOCs - Correct Answer-- Microbial Volatile Organic Compounds
• Spores offgassing when reproducing produces bad smell Legionella - Correct Answer-- Bacteria
• Legioners desease
• In air conditioners, cooling units, cooling towers
  • Water Sampling E Col - Correct Answer-- Bacteria
• Water Sampling to Detect Drug Resistant Pathogens - Correct Answer-- MRSA
  • Staph infection
• Tuberculosis (skin and airways)
  • Droplet spread respiratory infection
• Influenza
  • H1N1: "bird flu"

• H1N5: "swine flu" Parasites - Correct Answer-- Bedbugs
• Giardia
• Tapeworms
• Malaria Exposure Assessment (Bacteria, parasites, fungi, etc.) - Correct Answer-- Water Sampling (Legionella)
• Surface sampling of mold and bacteria
• Air sampling of mold and bacteria Control Strategies (Bacteria, parasites, fungi, mold, etc.) - Correct Answer-- ISOLATE source
• LOCATE and CORRECT source
• ENGINEERING controls - biosafety hoods, etc
• ADMINISTRATIVE controls - cleaning procedures, etc
• PPE Toxins - Correct Answer-Biological - naturally occurring Toxicants - Correct Answer-Man made LD Lo (Toxicology) - Correct Answer-Lowest lethal dose for test subjects LD50 (Toxicology) - Correct Answer-Lowest dose at which 50 percent of test subjects die LC50 (Toxicology) - Correct Answer-Lethal concentration at which 50% of test subjects die NOAEL (Toxicology) - Correct Answer-No Observable Adverse Effect Level LOAEL (Toxicology) - Correct Answer-Lowest Observable Adverse Effect Level

IDLH (Toxicology) - Correct Answer-Immediately Dangerous to Health and Life Dose-Response Curve - Correct Answer-- Non-linear

• You will get more of a response with increased dose Carcinogen - Correct Answer-- Cancer causing
• Partial List:
  • Benzene
  • Asbestos
  • Cadmium
  • Radon
  • Benzidene Teratogen - Correct Answer-Substance that causes birth defects in a developing fetus Mutagen - Correct Answer-- Substance that may cause genetic mutations
• Can also be carcinogens
• Ex:
  • Lead
  • Radon Acute Affects - Correct Answer-Adverse effects from short term exposure Chronic Affects - Correct Answer-Adverse health effects from long term exposure to a toxin Latency Period - Correct Answer-The time between first exposure and onset of disease NOT necessarily symptoms Neurotoxins - Correct Answer-Toxic to nervous system

Hepatotoxin - Correct Answer-Toxic to liver Renal Toxin - Correct Answer-Toxic to kidneys (nephrotoxin) Endocrine Disruptor - Correct Answer-Substances that disturb hormones Asbestos (4 types) [Look into this more on internet] - Correct Answer-Chrysotile Amosite Crocidolite Tremolite Benzene - Correct Answer-- Simplest aromatic hydrocarbon

• Exposure routes
  • Inhalation
  • Skin absorption
• Carcinogen: associated with LEUKEMIA Coal Tar Pitch Volatiles - Correct Answer-- Paving, roofing
• Carcinogenic in lungs, kidneys, skin
• Can also cause acute affects in BLADDER Cotton Dust - Correct Answer-Can cause Byssinosis (brown lung disease) Bagiosis - Correct Answer-Disease associated with moldy sugar cane Metals (toxicity) - Correct Answer-ORGANIC metals MORE toxic than inorganic metals Chelation (metals) - Correct Answer-- Method to treat metals
• Binds to metals and excretes them
  • Also binds to ESSENTIAL METALS though Cadmium - Correct Answer-- Smelting, electroplating, soldering
• Acute exposure: can cause pulmonary edema

• Chronic exposure: can cause emphysema, lung cancer Inorganic Lead - Correct Answer-- Firing ranges, battery production
• Neurotoxin
• Affects mental development of children
• Detect in blood Atoms - Correct Answer-Composed of NUCLEUS and ELECTRONS (-) 219 - 220 in materials has good diagrams Nucleus - Correct Answer-Composed of PROTONS (+) and NEUTRONS Isotope - Correct Answer-Not every atom of a specific element has the same number of NEUTRONS Ion - Correct Answer-- Atom or molecule with an electrical charge
• The number of electrons is not necessarily equal to number of protons
• If more electrons then NEGATIVE charge
• If more protons then POSITIVE charge Atomic Number - Correct Answer-- Number of PROTONS
• Defines the element Atomic Mass - Correct Answer-Number of PROTONS AND NEUTRONS in nucleus Mole - Correct Answer-- Avogadro's number of _____ units
• 6.02 x 10 (to the 23 power) Molecule - Correct Answer-- Two or more ATOMS bound together
• Basic unit of NON-ELEMENTAL substances Gram Molecular Weight (MW) - Correct Answer-Mass of 1 mole of molecules