Trauma Assessment and Management, Exams of Health sciences

Download Trauma Assessment and Management and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity! Module #5 Review Exam with Complete Questions and Answers 1. A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood- soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: A. wrap the towel with pressure bandages. B. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. C. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. D. apply pressure to the brachial artery. - Correct Answer C. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. 2. A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? A. High-flow oxygen administration B. Intravenous fluid administration C. Full immobilization of her spine D. Rapid transport to a trauma center - Correct Answer D. Rapid transport to a trauma center 3. As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be? A. Control the bleeding. B. Administer oxygen. C. Open the airway. D. Check for a pulse. - Correct Answer A. Control the bleeding. 4. Distributive shock occurs when: A. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. B. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. C. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. D. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. - Correct Answer C. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. 5. Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. A. septic shock B. neurogenic shock C. anaphylactic shock D. psychogenic shock - Correct Answer C. anaphylactic shock 6. Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: A. red blood cells. B. platelets. C. plasma. D. whole blood. - Correct Answer C. plasma. 7. In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: A. hypothermia. B. diaphoresis. C. hypovolemia. D. tachycardia. - Correct Answer A. hypothermia. 8. Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called ________. A. hypoxia B. hypotension C. shock D. perfusion - Correct Answer C. shock 9. Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: A. cardiogenic shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. anaphylactic shock. D. septic shock. - Correct Answer A. cardiogenic shock. 10.Shock due to severe infection is called ________. A. anaphylactic shock B. hypovolemic shock C. neurogenic shock D. septic shock - Correct Answer D. septic shock 21.A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? A. Lateral impact to the spine B. Secondary fall after the initial impact C. Direct trauma to the spinal column D. Energy transmission to the spine - Correct Answer D. Energy transmission to the spine 22.A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: A. stabilize her entire spine. B. inspect the helmet for cracks. C. leave her bicycle helmet on. D. obtain baseline vital signs. - Correct Answer A. stabilize her entire spine. 23.A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. auscultate bowel sounds. C. apply a cervical collar. D. assess for an exit wound. - Correct Answer D. assess for an exit wound. 24.According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS- COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she: A. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed. B. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. C. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma. - Correct Answer D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma. 25.According to the Association of Air Medical Services, you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: A. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. B. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries. C. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away. D. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome. - Correct Answer D. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome. 26.Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: A. frontal collisions. B. rear-end collisions. C. lateral collisions. D. rollover collisions. - Correct Answer C. lateral collisions. 27.Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: A. a fracture of the skull. B. airway compromise. C. intracranial bleeding. D. spinal cord injury. - Correct Answer C. intracranial bleeding. 28.Force acting over a distance is the definition of: A. latent energy. B. kinetic energy. C. potential energy. D. work. - Correct Answer D. work. 29.The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries. B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. C. the way in which traumatic injuries occur. D. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. - Correct Answer B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. 30.When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. B. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious. C. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious. D. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. - Correct Answer A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. 31.When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. B. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury. C. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls. D. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position. - Correct Answer D. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position. 32.When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. is not affected. B. doubles. C. quadruples. D. triples. - Correct Answer C. quadruples. 33.Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41-year-old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal? A. Any designated trauma center is acceptable. B. A Level IV or Level III trauma center C. Only a Level I trauma center D. A Level I or Level II trauma center - Correct Answer D. A Level I or Level II trauma center 34.Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? A. Deployment of the air bag B. Intrusion into the vehicle C. Dismounted seats D. Steering wheel deformity - Correct Answer A. Deployment of the air bag 35.Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Extremity fractures B. Flail chest C. Aortic rupture B. liver. C. gallbladder. D. spleen. - Correct Answer D. spleen. 46.Hypovolemic shock occurs when: A. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost. B. the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. C. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. D. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss. - Correct Answer D. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss. 47. If applying a dressing to control the bleeding of a patient's arm, the EMT should ________. A. apply direct pressure first B. use large or small gauze pads or dressings depending upon the size of the wound C. cover the entire wound, above and below, with the dressing D. All of these answers are correct. - Correct Answer D. All of these answers are correct. 48. If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: A. a tourniquet proximal to the injury. B. digital pressure to a proximal artery. C. a splint and elevate the extremity. D. additional sterile dressings. - Correct Answer A. a tourniquet proximal to the injury. 49. In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be: A. a low blood pressure. B. diaphoresis and pale skin. C. a heart rate over 120 beats/min. D. weakness or dizziness. - Correct Answer D. weakness or dizziness. 50. Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by: A. splinting the extremity. B. keeping the patient warm. C. applying a tourniquet. D. applying chemical ice pack. - Correct Answer A. splinting the extremity. 51.Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume. A. 5% B. 15% C. 10% D. 20% - Correct Answer D. 20% 52.The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: A. poor general appearance. B. the mechanism of injury. C. systolic blood pressure. D. clinical signs and symptoms. - Correct Answer C. systolic blood pressure. 53.What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding? A. Clotting B. Coagulation C. Vasoconstriction D. All of these answers are correct. - Correct Answer D. All of these answers are correct. 54.Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that: A. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding. B. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control. C. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first. D. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released. - Correct Answer D. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released. 55.Which of the following findings would be the MOST significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding? A. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto). B. The patient had a stroke 5 years prior. C. The patient has a history of hypertension. D. The patient has not eaten in 24 hours. - Correct Answer A. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto). 56.Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? A. Vacuum splint B. Sling and swathe C. Air splint D. Cardboard splint - Correct Answer C. Air splint 57.Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? A. Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets. B. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously. C. Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting. D. Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia. - Correct Answer B. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously. 58.Which organ or organ system has the greatest tolerance for lack of perfusion (shock)? A. Skeletal muscle B. Gastrointestinal system C. Kidneys D. Brain - Correct Answer B. Gastrointestinal system 59.Which portion of the blood carries oxygen to and wastes away from body tissues? A. Platelets B. Red blood cells C. Plasma D. White blood cells - Correct Answer B. Red blood cells 60.Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood? A. Atria B. Ventricles C. Left D. Right - Correct Answer D. Right 61.A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. C. .22-caliber pistol. D. .357 magnum. - Correct Answer A. shotgun. 71. In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A. nerve fiber damage. B. an air embolism. C. an ischemic stroke. D. a spinal fracture. - Correct Answer B. an air embolism. 72. In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? A. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest B. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye C. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen D. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back - Correct Answer D. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back 73.The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: A. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple. B. facilitates shedding of the epidermis. C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. D. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. - Correct Answer A. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple. 74.When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: A. quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water. B. brush away the chemical before flushing with water. C. deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution. D. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical. - Correct Answer B. brush away the chemical before flushing with water. 75.Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? A. Back B. Ears C. Scalp D. Soles of the feet - Correct Answer B. Ears 76.Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient? A. Second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA B. Full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA C. Superficial burn to 30% of the BSA D. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA - Correct Answer D. Partial- thickness burn to 20% of the BSA 77.Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? A. Incision B. Avulsion C. Laceration D. Abrasion - Correct Answer D. Abrasion 78.Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? A. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. B. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. C. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound. D. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow. - Correct Answer B. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. 79.Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? A. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. B. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. C. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. D. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. - Correct Answer C. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. 80.You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: A. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one. B. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. C. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. D. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one. - Correct Answer C. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. 81.A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: A. acute retinitis. B. a detached retina. C. a corneal abrasion. D. conjunctivitis. - Correct Answer D. conjunctivitis. 82.A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: A. use tweezers to try to remove the object. B. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline. C. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab. D. transport her to the emergency department. - Correct Answer D. transport her to the emergency department. 83.A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: A. assist ventilations with a BVM device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. B. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. C. fully immobilize her spine, irrigate her empty tooth sockets, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, and transport. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport. - Correct Answer B. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. 84.A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition A. wear gloves and facial protection. B. closely assess the patient's airway. C. consider the mechanism of injury. D. manually stabilize the patient's head. - Correct Answer A. wear gloves and facial protection. 96.When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________. A. SAMPLE B. DCAP-BTLS C. AVPU D. OPQRST - Correct Answer B. DCAP-BTLS 97.When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: A. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. B. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient. C. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed. D. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. - Correct Answer B. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient. 98.Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? A. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. B. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. C. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control. D. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx. - Correct Answer B. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. 99.Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? A. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. B. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost. - Correct Answer C. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. 100. You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: A. is allergic to any medications. B. regularly sees a family physician. C. noticed the change during a meal. D. has a history of eye surgeries. - Correct Answer D. has a history of eye surgeries. 101. A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: A. axial loading. B. distraction. C. hyperflexion. D. hyperextension. - Correct Answer A. axial loading. 102. A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5 - Correct Answer C. 3 103. A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: A. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. B. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. C. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. D. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor. - Correct Answer B. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. 104. An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. B. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. C. a progressively lowering blood pressure. D. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury. - Correct Answer A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. 105. Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. CSF leakage from the ears. B. widening pulse pressure. C. a rapid, thready pulse. D. decerebrate posturing. - Correct Answer C. a rapid, thready pulse. 106. During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: A. assist his ventilations with a BVM. B. immobilize his spine and transport immediately. C. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood. D. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. - Correct Answer D. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. 107. Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: A. diving. B. compression. C. hangings. D. falls. - Correct Answer C. hangings. 108. In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: A. results from a laceration to the brain tissue. B. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. C. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness. D. does not cause pressure within the skull. - Correct Answer B. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. 109. Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A. sensory and motor functions remain intact. B. it causes a problem managing the airway. C. lateral immobilization has been applied. D. the patient adamantly denies neck pain. - Correct Answer B. it causes a problem managing the airway. 110. The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: A. brain and spinal cord. B. cerebrum and meninges. C. cerebellum and brain. D. meninges and spinal cord. - Correct Answer A. brain and spinal cord. 111. The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: 121. A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should: A. apply bulky dressings to the sternum. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. apply an AED and assess his BP. D. determine if he has cardiac problems. - Correct Answer B. prepare for immediate transport. 122. A flail chest occurs when: A. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. B. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. C. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. D. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. - Correct Answer C. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. 123. A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: A. massive hemothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. pulmonary contusion. D. traumatic asphyxia. - Correct Answer C. pulmonary contusion. 124. A simple pneumothorax: A. often has a nontraumatic cause. B. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma. C. is caused by penetrating chest trauma. D. heals on its own without any treatment. - Correct Answer B. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma. 125. A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: A. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles. B. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. C. immediate cardiac arrest. D. paralysis of the diaphragm. - Correct Answer B. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. 126. An open pneumothorax occurs when: A. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung. B. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung. C. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture. D. air enters the pleural space from outside the body. - Correct Answer D. air enters the pleural space from outside the body. 127. Children are often "belly breathers" because _______. A. their diaphragm is not functional B. they are consciously controlling ventilations C. they are routinely hypoxic D. their intercostal muscles are not developed - Correct Answer D. their intercostal muscles are not developed 128. Closed chest injuries are typically caused by _______. A. flying debris B. penetrating trauma C. high-velocity weapons D. blunt trauma - Correct Answer D. blunt trauma 129. Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? A. Engorged jugular veins B. Diminished breath sounds C. A rapid, irregular pulse D. Widening pulse pressure - Correct Answer A. Engorged jugular veins 130. If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: A. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same. B. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury. C. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. D. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply - Correct Answer C. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. 131. Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. A. primary assessment B. patient history C. secondary assessment D. scene size-up - Correct Answer A. primary assessment 132. In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: A. pneumothorax. B. cardiac tamponade. C. flail chest. D. myocardial contusion - Correct Answer A. pneumothorax. 133. Patients with chest injuries will often present with _______. A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations B. tachypnea C. agonal respirations D. Kussmaul respirations - Correct Answer B. tachypnea 134. The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: A. diaphragm. B. intercostal margin. C. anterior rib cage. D. costovertebral angle. - Correct Answer A. diaphragm. 135. When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: A. may rise as high as the nipple line. B. contracts and flattens inferiorly. C. is less prone to penetrating trauma. D. descends below the level of the navel. - Correct Answer A. may rise as high as the nipple line. 136. Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death? A. Aortic dissection B. Myocardial contusion C. Aortic rupture D. Pulmonary contusion - Correct Answer C. Aortic rupture A. aorta. B. stomach. C. diaphragm. D. spleen. - Correct Answer C. diaphragm. 147. In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______. A. larger in proportion to the abdomen B. smaller in proportion to the abdomen C. less likely to bleed when injured D. more protected by the thorax compared to adults - Correct Answer A. larger in proportion to the abdomen 148. Injuries to the external male genitalia _______. A. are often life-threatening B. are rarely life-threatening C. usually result in permanent damage D. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock - Correct Answer B. are rarely life- threatening 149. Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: A. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. B. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort. C. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. D. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full. - Correct Answer C. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. 150. When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: A. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. B. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. C. it commonly protrudes through the injury site. D. the abdomen will become instantly distended. - Correct Answer B. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. 151. When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______. A. distention. B. instability. C. crepitus. D. guarding. - Correct Answer D. guarding. 152. When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient? A. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury B. Always during the secondary assessment C. Anytime the patient agrees to treatment and transport D. Only when ordered by medical direction - Correct Answer A. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury 153. Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? A. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma. B. The kidneys are not well protected. C. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. D. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys. - Correct Answer C. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. 154. Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? A. Bladder B. Liver C. Stomach D. Intestine - Correct Answer B. Liver 155. Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? A. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. B. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. C. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. D. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. - Correct Answer D. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. 156. You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: A. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min. B. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed. C. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status. D. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM. - Correct Answer D. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM. 157. You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: A. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition. B. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. C. begin documenting the call on the patient care form. D. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment. - Correct Answer B. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. 158. You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______. A. nausea B. a hematoma in the flank region C. dyspnea D. abdominal distention - Correct Answer B. a hematoma in the flank region 159. Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______. A. include your opinion of the nature of the incident B. describe the status of the suspect(s) C. be subjective and summarize the crime D. be objective and factual - Correct Answer D. be objective and factual 160. Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: A. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. B. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport. C. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. D. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. - Correct Answer C. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. 161. A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. pubic symphysis. 171. In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: A. transport time is less than 15 minutes. B. deformity and swelling are present. C. the patient is in severe pain. D. the patient is clinically unstable. - Correct Answer D. the patient is clinically unstable. 172. In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain B. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent C. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes D. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity - Correct Answer A. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain 173. Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: A. ligaments. B. tendons. C. fascia. D. cartilage. - Correct Answer B. tendons. 174. The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: A. delaying transport of a critically injured patient. B. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. C. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. D. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. - Correct Answer A. delaying transport of a critically injured patient. 175. The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A. involuntary muscles of the nervous system. B. connective tissue that supports the skeleton. C. nervous system's control over the muscles. D. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. - Correct Answer D. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. 176. When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: A. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. B. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. C. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening. D. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. - Correct Answer B. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. 177. Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A. Displaced fracture B. Severe strain C. Moderate sprain D. Hairline fracture - Correct Answer A. Displaced fracture 178. Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. Pelvic fracture with hypotension B. An amputated extremity C. Nondisplaced long bone fractures D. Bilateral femur fractures - Correct Answer A. Pelvic fracture with hypotension 179. Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. C. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis. D. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. - Correct Answer A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. 180. With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. B. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. C. part of the body that sustained secondary injury. D. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury. - Correct Answer D. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury. 181. Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? A) Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation B) Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection C) Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation D) Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction - Correct Answer C) Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation 182. Neurogenic shock occurs when: A) failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. B) the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. C) there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. D) massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. - Correct Answer A) failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. 183. Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? A) Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B) Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. C) Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. D) Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. - Correct Answer D) Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. 184. You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life- threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: A) take his vital signs in 15 minutes. B) arrange for an ALS rendezvous. C) reassess his condition in 5 minutes. D) repeat your secondary assessment. - Correct Answer C) reassess his condition in 5 minutes. A. be used with or without a shoulder harness. B. prevent a second collision inside the car. C. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. D. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries. - Correct Answer D. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries. 195. When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, you should: A) realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact. B) remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. C) suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries. D) recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe. - Correct Answer B) remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. 196. A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A) is wearing only a lap belt. B) remains within the vehicle. C) experiences multiple impacts. D) is ejected or partially ejected. - Correct Answer D) is ejected or partially ejected. 197. When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the: A) index of suspicion. B) mechanism of injury. C) kinetic energy. D) potential energy. - Correct Answer B) mechanism of injury. 198. Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A) falls and motor vehicle collisions. B) low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls. C) gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections. D) motor vehicle collisions and stabbings. - Correct Answer A) falls and motor vehicle collisions. 199. The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A) headrest is appropriately positioned. B) air bag correctly deploys upon impact. C) patient tenses up at the time of impact. D) rear end of the vehicle is initially struck. - Correct Answer A) headrest is appropriately positioned. 200. By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height? A) Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. B) Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact. C) As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact. D) Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. - Correct Answer D) Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. 201. A fall from more than _____ times the patient's height is considered to be significant. A. two B. four C. five D. three - Correct Answer D. three 202. A patient complaining of chest tightness, coughing up blood, and subcutaneous emphysema following an explosion may be suffering from a: A. ruptured tympanic membrane. B. ruptured peritoneal cavity. C. myocardial blast injury. D. pulmonary blast injury. - Correct Answer D. pulmonary blast injury. 203. A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. What was the second collision? A. The bike rider's internal organs striking the solid structures of the body B. The bike rider striking the pavement C. The bike rider hitting his bike or the car D. The bike hitting the car - Correct Answer C. The bike rider hitting his bike or the car 204. Awareness of and concern for potentially serious obvious and underlying injuries is referred to as the: A. scene size-up. B. mechanism of injury. C. general impression. D. index of suspicion. - Correct Answer D. index of suspicion. 205. Significant clues to the possibility of severe injuries in motor vehicle collisions include: A. death of a passenger. B. a blown-out tire. C. broken glass. D. a deployed air bag. - Correct Answer A. death of a passenger. 206. Which of the following is considered a type of motor vehicle collision? A. Crush B. Ejection C. Penetration D. Rollover - Correct Answer D. Rollover 207. If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: A. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain. B. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma. C. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma. D. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries. - Correct Answer C. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma. 208. Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include: A. an irregular pulse. B. coughing up blood. C. multiple rib fractures. D. vomiting blood. - Correct Answer B. coughing up blood. 209. The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: A. conversion. B. congruent. C. cavitation. B. elevating the injured extremity. C. compressing a pressure point. D. packing the wound with gauze. - Correct Answer A. applying local direct pressure. 221. The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to: A. how rapidly he or she bleeds. B. his or her baseline blood pressure. C. how fast his or her heart beats. D. the part of the body injured. - Correct Answer A. how rapidly he or she bleeds. 222. The smaller vessels that carry blood away from the heart and connect the arteries to the capillaries are called the: A. arterioles. B. vena cavae. C. capillary arteries. D. venules. - Correct Answer A. arterioles. 223. The systemic veins function by: A. returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart. B. returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium. C. delivering deoxygenated blood to the capillaries. D. delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries. - Correct Answer A. returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart. 224. Which of the following occurs after tissues are injured? A. Red blood cells separate from plasma B. Red blood cells become less sticky C. Local blood vessels begin to dilate D. Platelets collect at the injury site - Correct Answer D. Platelets collect at the injury site 225. Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for 2 to 3 hours? A. Heart B. Brain C. Kidneys D. Skeletal muscle - Correct Answer D. Skeletal muscle 226. Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is correct? A) The dermis produces a substance that provides color to the skin. B) The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings. C) The cells of the dermis are worn away and are constantly replaced. D) The dermis lies above the germinal layer and provides protection. - Correct Answer B) The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings. 227. When a person is exposed to a cold environment: A) sweat is produced and is warmed when the vessels constrict. B) blood vessels dilate and divert blood to the core of the body. C) the skin becomes flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation. D) peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin. - Correct Answer D) peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin. 228. When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to: A) manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture. B) assess circulation distal to the site of the injury. C) remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. D) recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken. - Correct Answer C) remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. 229. Which of the following is of LEAST importance when initially assessing the severity of a burn? A) Area(s) burned B) Age of the patient C) Past medical history D) Known drug allergies - Correct Answer D) Known drug allergies 230. A utility worker was trimming branches and was electrocuted when he accidentally cut a high-power line. He fell approximately 20 feet and is lying unresponsive on the ground; the power line is lying across his chest. You should: A) rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live. B) apply insulated gloves and assume manual control of his c-spine. C) quickly but carefully move the patient away from the power line. D) manually stabilize his head as your partner assesses for breathing. - Correct Answer A) rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live. 231. Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? A) Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage. B) Respiratory or cardiac arrest following an electrical burn is very uncommon. C) The exit wound caused by electrical burns is smaller than the entrance wound. D) The size of the entry and exit wounds is a reliable indicator of internal damage. - Correct Answer A) Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage. 232. _____ burns may involve the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, or internal organs. A. Superficial B. Second-degree C. Full-thickness D. Partial-thickness - Correct Answer C. Full-thickness 233. A(n) _____ occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body for a long period of time. A. contusion B. avulsion C. hematoma D. crushing injury - Correct Answer D. crushing injury 234. An open neck injury may result in _____ if enough air is sucked into a blood vessel. A. hypovolemic shock B. an air embolism C. subcutaneous emphysema D. tracheal deviation - Correct Answer B. an air embolism 235. The skin covering the _____ is quite thick. A. ears B. scalp C. eyelids D. lips - Correct Answer B. scalp 247. The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull known as the: A. eustachian tube. B. foramen magnum. C. spinous process. D. vertebral foramina. - Correct Answer B. foramen magnum. 248. When stabilizing a large foreign object in the eye, you should first cover the eye with a moist dressing, then: 249. Select one: A. surround the object with a doughnut-shaped collar made from gauze. B. irrigate the eye with saline. C. place an ice pack over the eye to reduce swelling. D. apply tape around the object and then secure the tape to the forehead. - Correct Answer A. surround the object with a doughnut-shaped collar made from gauze. 250. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a laryngeal injury? A. Subcutaneous emphysema B. Difficulty breathing C. Hoarseness D. Wheezing - Correct Answer D. Wheezing 251. You respond to a 71-year-old woman who is unresponsive. You try to get her to respond but have no success. Her airway is open, and she is breathing at a rate of 14 breaths/min. What structure on her neck should you locate to take a pulse? A. Carotid arteries B. Subclavian arteries C. Hypothalamus D. Cricoid cartilage - Correct Answer A. Carotid arteries 252. A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: A. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye. B. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve. C. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed. D. apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye. - Correct Answer A. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye. 253. The white portion of the eye is called the: A. cornea. B. sclera. C. iris. D. retina. - Correct Answer B. sclera. 254. The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A) brain stem B) cerebellum C) spinal cord D) cerebral cortex - Correct Answer A) brain stem 255. In a patient with a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicate: A) decreased cerebral blood flow. B) internal bleeding in the chest. C) an underlying skull fracture. D) herniation of the brain stem. - Correct Answer D) herniation of the brain stem. 256. Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? A) They carry information from the CNS to the muscles. B) They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. C) They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. D) They are part of the CNS and control reflexes. - Correct Answer A) They carry information from the CNS to the muscles. 257. The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: A) pia mater. B) arachnoid mater. C) gray mater. D) dura mater. - Correct Answer D) dura mater. 258. Helmets must be removed in all of the following cases, EXCEPT: A. when there are no impending airway or breathing problems. B. when cardiac arrest is involved. C. when a shield cannot be removed for access to the airway. D. when the helmet allows for excessive movement. - Correct Answer A. when there are no impending airway or breathing problems. 259. In supine patients with a head injury, the head should be elevated _____ to help reduce intracranial pressure. A. 40 degrees B. 20 degrees C. 30 degrees D. 10 degrees - Correct Answer C. 30 degrees 260. Neck rigidity, bloody cerebrospinal fluid, and headache are associated with what kind of bleeding in the brain? A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage B. Subdural hematoma C. Epidural hematoma D. Intracerebral hematoma - Correct Answer A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 261. The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system and the: A. somatic nervous system. B. autonomic nervous system. C. sympathetic nervous system. D. peripheral nervous system. - Correct Answer D. peripheral nervous system. 262. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a concussion? A. Weakness B. Muscle tremors C. Dizziness D. Visual changes - Correct Answer B. Muscle tremors 263. You respond to a 38-year-old man who fell while rock climbing. He is unconscious with an open airway. The respiration and pulse rates are within normal limits. His distal pulses are intact. You check his pupils and find that they are unequal. You know this could be a sign of: A. increased intracranial pressure. B. hypoxia. C. seizure activity. D. a pulmonary contusion. - Correct Answer A. rib fractures. 274. On inhalation, which of the following does NOT occur? A. The pressure inside the chest increases. B. The intercostal muscles contract, elevating the rib cage. C. The diaphragm contracts. D. Air enters through the nose and mouth. - Correct Answer A. The pressure inside the chest increases. 275. Which of the following is NOT a pertinent negative to note during your assessment of a patient with chest trauma? A. No heart murmurs B. No rapid breathing C. No areas of deformity D. No associated shortness of breath - Correct Answer A. No heart murmurs 276. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a chest injury? A. Bruising of the chest wall B. Unequal expansion of the chest wall C. Crepitus with palpation of the chest D. Clear and equal breath sounds - Correct Answer D. Clear and equal breath sounds 277. You respond to an 18-year-old man who has been assaulted with a baseball bat. He was hit in the chest. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. This condition is most likely related to: 278. Select one: A. traumatic asphyxia. B. cardiac tamponade. C. commotio cordis. D. pneumothorax. - Correct Answer C. commotio cordis. 279. Pleural fluid is contained between the: A. parietal pleura and the chest wall. B. parietal pleura and the heart. C. visceral and parietal pleurae. D. visceral pleura and the lung. - Correct Answer C. visceral and parietal pleurae. 280. Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the: A) liver. B) spleen. C) kidney. D) stomach. - Correct Answer A) liver. 281. The mesentery is: A) the point of attachment between the small and large intestines. B) a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs. C) a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver. D) a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body. - Correct Answer D) a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body. 282. Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called: A) flexing. B) referring. C) guarding. D) withdrawing. - Correct Answer C) guarding. 283. Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: A) distention. B) referred pain. C) diffuse bruising. D) nausea or vomiting. - Correct Answer A) distention. 284. When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie: A) below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. B) across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints. C) above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints. D) across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints. - Correct Answer A) below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. 285. The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: A) is always accompanied by hypotension. B) indicates a state of decompensated shock. C) should be assumed to be a sign of shock. D) is most commonly caused by severe pain. - Correct Answer C) should be assumed to be a sign of shock. 286. Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as: A) localized pain. B) red areas of skin. C) gross distention. D) dark-purple marks. - Correct Answer B) red areas of skin. 287. During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of: A) a ruptured spleen. B) a severe liver laceration. C) intra-abdominal bleeding. D) rupture of a hollow organ. - Correct Answer C) intra-abdominal bleeding. 288. In any case of trauma to a female patient, you should always determine if the patient: A. is currently menstruating. B. is on birth control. C. has a history of ovarian cysts. D. is pregnant. - Correct Answer D. is pregnant. 289. Suspect a possible injury of the urinary bladder in all of the following findings, EXCEPT: A. blood at the tip of the penis or a stain on the patient's underwear. B. bruising to the left upper quadrant. C. physical signs of trauma on the lower abdomen, pelvis, or perineum. D. blood at the urethral opening. - Correct Answer B. bruising to the left upper quadrant. 290. The first signs of peritonitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. nausea. B. severe abdominal pain. C. tenderness. D. muscular spasm. - Correct Answer A. nausea. 291. The largest organ in the abdomen is the: B. dislocation of the glenohumeral joint. C. separation of the acromioclavicular joint. D. multiple fractures of the proximal humerus. - Correct Answer C. separation of the acromioclavicular joint. 303. Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. ecchymosis. B. point tenderness. C. swelling. D. deformity. - Correct Answer D. deformity. 304. Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: A. guarding. B. crepitus. C. swelling. D. ecchymosis. - Correct Answer C. swelling. 305. In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A. synovial tendons. B. muscular fascia. C. gliding cartilage. D. articular cartilage. - Correct Answer D. articular cartilage. 306. The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A. traction. B. reduction. C. stabilization. D. immobilization. - Correct Answer A. traction. 307. The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: A. total depletion of synovial fluid. B. internal bleeding and shock. C. ligament and cartilage damage. D. neurovascular compromise. - Correct Answer D. neurovascular compromise. 308. Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: A. pelvis. B. humerus. C. femur. D. hip. - Correct Answer C. femur. 309. What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Striated D. Cardiac - Correct Answer B. Smooth