US Marine Corps Core Questions and Answers, Exams of Military Strategy and Training

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Fleet Marine Force Core Questions

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Marines landed in South Vietnam in what year? - Correct answer 1965 In what battle did Marines earn the name "Teufehunden" or "Devil Dogs"? - Correct answer Belleu wood What battle took place during the 1968 vetnamese holiday of Tet? - Correct answer Hue City What was the largest all-Marine battle in History? - Correct answer Iwo Jima On 7 August 1942 the Marines landed on the beaches of Guadalcanal. What island chain was this? - Correct answer Solomon Who held the Marine Corps Commandant position for 39 years? - Correct answer Archibaid Henderson Who is remembered for his performance at Cuzco Well (Guantanamo Bay, Cuba)? - Correct answer John Quick Who earned the Medal of Honor for semaphoring for an emergency lift of the naval bombardment while under Spanish and American Shellfire? - Correct answer Johns Quick Who is recognized for earning two Medals of Honor: (1) Chinese Boxer Rebellion and (2) First Caco War in Haiti? - Correct answer Dan Daly Who served in Nicaragua through several periods of political unrest and rebellious activity? - Correct answer Louis B. "chesty" Puller Who became known as the "Tiger of the Mountains" in 1930? - Correct answer Louis B. Puller

Who is recognized for Marine Prowess in aerial dogfights? - Correct answer Gregory Boyington What Marine is immortalized in the now famous photograph taken of the second flag raising on Iwo Jima? - Correct answer Ira H. Hayes Who was the first enlisted woman in the Marine Corps? - Correct answer Private Johnson Who was the first female general officer in the Marine Corps? - Correct answer Brewer What date was the U.S. Marine Corps was established? - Correct answer 10 November 1775 The first Marine Corps Amphibious landing took place in what year? - Correct answer 1776 The first Marine Corps Amphibious landing took place in what location? - Correct answer New Providence Island in the Bahamas Marines stormed the Barbary pirates' stronghold on Burma in what year? - Correct answer 1805 The Shores of Tripoli were part of what campaign? - Correct answer Burma Who became the commander of the first Marine Corps Battalions? - Correct answer Samuel Nicholas Who commanded the attack on Harper's Ferry? - Correct answer Robert E. Lee The Marine Corps adopted the eagle, globe and anchor as its emblem in what year? - Correct answer 1868 Who was responsible for adopting the eagle, globe and anchor as the Marine Corps' emblem? - Correct answer Jacob Zeilin

In what year did Marines defend the American Legation in Peking China during the Boxer Rebellion? - Correct answer 1900 Who was the Marine Corps first pilot? - Correct answer Alfred Cunningham What year did the Marine Corps establish its Aviation unit? - Correct answer 1913 How many elements are there in the Marine Corps mission? - Correct answer 7 True or False, To provide detachments and organizations for service of the armed vessel of the Navy and security detachments for the protection of Naval stations and bases is the responsibility th U.S. Marine Corps? - Correct answer True One mission of the Marine Corps is to? - Correct answer Perform such other duties as the President directs How many chains of command exist within the Marine Corps? - Correct answer 2 Who is not found in operational chain of command? - Correct answer Secretary of the Navy The Cammandant of the Marine Corps is in what chain of command? - Correct answer Service Who is the Commandant of the Marine Corps directly responsible to? - Correct answer Secretary of the Navy What is the Marine Corps principle organization for the conduct of all missions across the range of military operations? - Correct answer MAGTF A MEF consists of what subordinate comands? - Correct answer CE, ACE, CSSE, GCE

What is the GCE of a MEB? - Correct answer Re-enforced infantry regiment The Marine Corps operating forces consist of? - Correct answer Marine Corps Forces, Marine Corps Security Forces, and Marine Security guard detachments Marine Security detachments provide forces to the who? - Correct answer Department of State What do Marine Corps security forces protect? - Correct answer Naval Installations True or False, the BSSG is a component of the MEB MAGTF? - Correct answer True How many MEU (SOC) Command elements are in I MEF? - Correct answer 3 How many MEY (SOC) Command elements are in III MEF? - Correct answer 1 How many MEY (SOC) Command elements are in II MEF? - Correct answer 3 The structure of a SPMAGTF is task organized. - Correct answer True Which section is responsible for personnel and administration? - Correct answer G- Which section is responsible for intelligence? - Correct answer G- Which section is responsible for operations and training? - Correct answer G- Which section is responsible for logistics? - Correct answer G- Which section is responsible for communications? - Correct answer G- Which section is responsible for plans? - Correct answer G-

Begin hand salutes how many paces away from the officers being saluted?

• Correct answer at least six. but not more than 30 paces away What Marine Corps officer rank is equal to a lieutenant Commander in the Navy? - Correct answer Major Which enlisted Marine Corps rank has an exploding bomb between its rockers and chevrons? - Correct answer Master Gunnery Sergeant What is the rank of Marine 0-9? - Correct answer Lieutenant General True of False, When meeting a foreign naval officer? - Correct answer True When passing an officer who is going in the same direction as you, you should salute and say what? - Correct answer By your leave The II Marine Expeditionary Force is based where? - Correct answer North and South Carolina What ranks are classified as a NCO? - Correct answer Corporal The III Marine Expeditionary Force is based where? - Correct answer Japan and Hawaii The proper procedures for rendering honors while in driving a car is to: - Correct answer Stop the car and sit at attention If you are passing or being passed by uncased colors which are being paraded, presented or on formal display, when should you start saluting? - Correct answer Six paces before When boarding a ship between 0800 and sunset you should salute the national ensign located on the ship's? - Correct answer Fantail Sailors should board small boats Senior first. - Correct answer False The I Marine Expeditionary Force is based where? - Correct answer Southern California and Arizona

Headquarters, U.S. Marine Corps, consists of the Commandant of the Marine Corps and those staff agencies that advise and assist the Commandant in discharging those responsibilities prescibed by law and higher authority. - Correct answer True The mission of a ______ is to provide the combatant commanders with a forward deployed see based rapid crisis response capability to execute a full range of military operations. - Correct answer MEU What is the Air Combat component of a MEU? - Correct answer Re- enforced Helo Squadron What is the GCE element of a MEU? - Correct answer Infantry Battalion (re-enforced) Chief Petty Officer (E7-E9) may act as reporting seniors for member in which pay grades? - Correct answer E4 and below A SPMAGTF is normally used in what situations? - Correct answer Disaster relief, Humanitarian assistance, and Security operations Who is responsible for performance couseling program? - Correct answer Commanding Officer Delegation of reporting senior authority is an actual transfer of that authority, and not merely an authorization to sign "by direction authority"? - Correct answer True What type of performance evaluation/fitness report is submitted annually? - Correct answer Regular reports What type of performance evaluation/fitness report may be used to document significant performance during temporary additional duty? - Correct answer Concurrent reports For the majority of Sailors and officers, most of the performance trait grades should be in the ___ to ___ range. - Correct answer 2.0 to 4.

The comment block of the performance evaluation/fitness reports should be based on? - Correct answer Verifiable facts For enlisted personnel, a recommendation of "Promotable" or above is the Commanding Officer's official recommendation for advancement, even if made by a delegater reporting senior. - Correct answer True What promotion recommendations is equal to 3.8 performance mark? - Correct answer Must promote A rater should be at a minimum of what pay grade. - Correct answer E Using the BUPERS supplied report preparation will prevent all incorrect entries. - Correct answer False What promotion recommendation is equal to 3.4 performance mark? - Correct answer Progressing Misconduct reporting may be used as punishment. - Correct answer False Members have a right to submit statements concerning their performance evaluation/fitness reports for up to how long. - Correct answer 2 years The left, right, bottom margins of a standard letter should be ____? - Correct answer 1 inch The subject line of a naval letter should be in what format? - Correct answer Normal word order, with all letters capitalized The signature line of a standard letter should start on the ___ line after the last sentence. - Correct answer Fourth Same page endorsements may omit. - Correct answer Both SSIC, and Subject line Every new page endorsement must ____. - Correct answer Repeats the basics letter SSIC, Identify the basic letter in the "endorsement number" line, and Use the basic letter's subject as its own

A memorandum provides a ____ way to correspond within an activity or between DON activities. - Correct answer Informal On a plain paper memorandum the word "MEMORANDUM" is typed on the ___ line down from the top of the page. - Correct answer Eight What service record page contains "Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Date"? - Correct answer Page 2 What service record page contains "Enlisted Qualification History"? - Correct answer Page 4 What service record page contains "History of Assignments"? - Correct answer Page 5 What service record page contains "Administrative Remarks"? - Correct answer Page 13 A special court-martial can be composed of a military judge alone, or a military judge and not less than ___ active duty armed service members. - Correct answer 3 In a special or genral court-martial, if the accused is an enlisted member he may request that at least ___ of the members of the court be enlisted. - Correct answer 1/ Who is responsible for upholding the UCMJ? - Correct answer Officers, Military Police, and all members of the Armed Forces The main purpose of UCMJ is to ___. - Correct answer Promote good order and discipline In time of war, a reporter accompanying an Armed Force in the field is subject to the UCMJ: - Correct answer True What listed groups are not always subject to the UCMJ. - Correct answer Members of the Air National Guard How many different types of courts-martial are there? - Correct answer 3

True or False, A summary court-martial may try Officers for capital offenses? - Correct answer False A member has a right to refuse a summary court-martial except while aboard ship. - Correct answer True If a member considers the punishment during NJP to unjust or disproportionate, he or she has ___ days to appeal. - Correct answer 5 A general court-martial can be composed of a military judge alone, or a military judge and not less than ___ active duty armed service members. - Correct answer 5 True or false NJP can be given for all offenses of the UCMJ. - Correct answer False In a special or general court-martial, if the accused is an officer who is eligible to be members of the court? - Correct answer Officers A service member may consent to acts of hazing (initiation) in order to be accepted into the unit. - Correct answer False Give an example of fraternization? - Correct answer Calling seniors by their first name, An E7 dating an E5 not in his chain of command, and An officer dating his civilian secretary. Sexual harassment is unacceptable and unprofessional behavior an only occurs against women. - Correct answer False Which section of the EDVR contains individual security data? - Correct answer Section 11 Which section of the EDVR contains alphabetic listing of all enlisted members assigned to the activity? - Correct answer Section 3 Which section of the EDVR contains NEC billet and personnel inventory? - Correct answer Section 7 Which section of the EDVR contains officer and enlister personnel in a TAD status? - Correct answer Section 12

What does ORM stand for? - Correct answer Operational Risk Management A condition with the potential to cause personal injury or death, property damage or mission degradation is the definition of a ___. - Correct answer Hazard An expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability is the definition of ___? - Correct answer Risk The process of detecting hazards and assessing associated risk is known as ____. - Correct answer Risk Assessment There are how many steps in the ORM process? - Correct answer 5 What are the ORM principles. - Correct answer Accept risk when benefits out weigh the cost, Anticipate and manage risk by planning, and make risk decisions at the f Personnel exposed to gunfire in a combat situation shall wear hearing protective devices. - Correct answer False Personnel exposed to gunfire in a training situation shall wear hearing protective devices. - Correct answer True Personnel exposed to artilery, mortar, or missile firing, shall wear hearing protection devices under any circumstance. - Correct answer True What does the acronym "PPE" stand for? - Correct answer Personal Protective Equipment What are examples of PPE? - Correct answer Hard Hats, Safety Shoes, and Goggles Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristic, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when incorrectly used is classified as ___. - Correct answer Hazardous

Who is required to provide instruction in MSDS understanding and use? - Correct answer The Supervisors What information is found on a MSDS? - Correct answer Health and safety hazards, Safe handing procedures, and composition How many common elements are found in a combat environment? - Correct answer 9 What are the nine common elements found in a combat environment? - Correct answer Violence, casualties, confusion, isolation, communication (breakdown), fatigue and discomfort, fear (stress and mental fatigue), continuous (operations), and homesickness What characterisics enable Marine and Sailors to overcome fear? - Correct answer Both Discipline and Motivation The technical, tactical, and physical ability to perform the job or mission is known as ___? - Correct answer Proficiency What is the acronym used in the troop leading steps? - Correct answer BAMCIS What is the last of the troop leading steps? - Correct answer Supervise How many troop leading steps are there? - Correct answer 6 I am an American. fighting in the armed forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense is what article of the code of conduct? - Correct answer Article 1 I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist is what article of the code of conduct? - Correct answer Article 2 If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy is what article of the code of conduct? - Correct answer Article 3

If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information nor take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades is what article of the code of conduct? - Correct answer Article 4 When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability is what article of the code of conduct? - Correct answer Article 5 I will never forget that I am an Amirican. fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the priciples which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United Stated of America is what article of the code of conduct? - Correct answer Article 6 A POW has the right to all off the bellow except what? - Correct answer The right to send e-mail A POW has the right to have a copy of all camp regulations in a language which they understand. - Correct answer True True or False, A POW os obligated to give his captors his Unit? - Correct answer False There are ___ general first aid rules. - Correct answer 9 In a tactical situation, patients whose injuries require minor professional treatment that can by done on an outpatient or ambulatory basis. These personnel can be returned to duty in a short period of time is what class of patients? - Correct answer Class I Triage is a French word meaning to ____. - Correct answer Sort In a tactical situation, patients whose injuries require immediate life- sustaining measures or are of a moderate nature. Initially, they require a minimum amount of time, personnel, and supplies is what class of patients? - Correct answer Class II

In a tactical situation, patients for whom definitive treatment can be delayed without jeorpardy to life or loss of limb are what class of patients? - Correct answer Class III In a tactical situation, Patients whose wounds or injuries would require extensive treatment beyond the immediate medical capabulities. Treatment of these casualties would be to the detriment of others is what class of patients? - Correct answer Class IV In a non-tactical situation, patients with correctable life-threatening illnesses or injuries such as respiratory arrest or obstruction, open chest or abdomen wounds, femur fractures, or critcal or complicated burns is what class or patients? - Correct answer Class I In a non-tactical situation, Patients with serious but non0life-threatening illnesses or injuries such as moderate blood loss, open or multiple fractures (open increases priority), or eye injuries is what class of patients? - Correct answer Class II In a non-tactical situation, patients with minor injuries such as soft tissue injuries, simple fractures, or minor to moderate burns is what class of patients? - Correct answer Class III In a non-tactical situation, patients who are dead or fatally injured. Fata; injuries include exposed brain matter, decapitation, and incineration is what class of patients? - Correct answer Class IV When performing a primary survey is a you should be concerned with what is referred to as the ___ process. - Correct answer ABCDE Ideally the ABCDE steps, process, and transport decision should be completed within ___ minutes of your arrival on the scene. - Correct answer 10 During shock, eyes may be glassy and dull and the pupils may be ___. - Correct answer Dilated True or False, The best way to control external bleeding is Pressure dressing? - Correct answer True

A tourniquet should not be made out of what of? - Correct answer Rope How should a victim with a sucking chest would be transported if on a stretcher? - Correct answer On the affected side With an abdominal wound you should? - Correct answer Wrap the intestine in a dry sterile dressing You should not remove clothing adhering to a burn. - Correct answer True On a ___ degree burn, the epidermal layer is irritated, reddened, and tingling. - Correct answer First A figure-eight bandage may be used to support what kind of fracture? - Correct answer Clavicle fracture If available, you should treat what kind of fracture with a Hare of Thomas half-ring splint? - Correct answer Both Thigh fracture and Lower leg fracture A ___ degree burn is a full-thickness injury penetrating into muscle and fatty connective tissues. - Correct answer Third A ___ degree burn is characterized by epiderman blisters, mottled appearance, and a red base. - Correct answer Second What is the most common condition cased by working or exercising is hot environments? - Correct answer Heat exhaustion What is the most serious type of heat causality? - Correct answer Heat stroke A patient suffering from heat ___, you should give him plenty of cool (not cold) water to drink, adding about one teaspoon of salt to a liter pr quart of water. - Correct answer Heat cramps Frosbite occurs when ice crystals form in the skin or deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of ___ degrees or lower. - Correct answer 32 The first system of hypothermia is ___. - Correct answer Shivering

Immersion foot, results from prolonged exposure to wet cold at temperatures ranging from just above freezing to 50 degree and may also occur in the hands. - Correct answer True When purifying water under field conditions, you should draw water upstream and put how many iodine tablets in a 2 quart canteen of clean water? - Correct answer 2 When purifying water under field conditions, you should draw water upstream and put ow many iodine tablets in a 2 quart canteen of cloudy water? - Correct answer 4 You should wait a total of how many minutes before drinking water, purified with iodine tablets? - Correct answer 30 A cat hole is approximately what size? - Correct answer 1 foot wide and 1 foot deep A straddle trench may be used for maximum of how many days in a bivouac site. - Correct answer 3 A straddle approximately what size? - Correct answer 4 foot long, 2 1/ feet deep, and 1 foot wide To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on alert and observing everything that takes place within sight or hearing is general order number ___. - Correct answer 2 To quit my post only when properly relieved is general order number ___. - Correct answer 5 To call the corporal of the guard in any case not covered by instructions is general order number ___. - Correct answer 9 To salute all officers and all colors and standards not cased is general order number ___. - Correct answer 10

What are the duties of the interior guard? - Correct answer Preserve order, Protect property, and Enforce regulation with the jurisdiction of command When standing interior guard, who is the first person in your chain of cammand? - Correct answer Corporal of the guard There are how many condition that justify the use of deadly force? - Correct answer 6 Under what circumstances is deadly force authorized? - Correct answer Defending yourself and Prevent crimes agains people Deadly force may be used to apprehend or to prevent the escape of a person reasonably believed to have committed an offense involving national security, or to prevent the escape of a designated prisoner. - Correct answer True The unlawful use or threatened use of violence to force or to intimidate governments or societies to achieve political, religious, or ideological objectives is know as what? - Correct answer Terrorism A general threat of possible terriorist activity agaist installations and personnel is TREATCON condition ___. - Correct answer Alpha An increased and more predictable threat of terrorist action is TREATCON condition ___. - Correct answer Bravo An incident has occured or that intelligence has been received indicating that some form of terrorist action is imminent is TREATCON condition ___.

• Correct answer Charlie A terrorist attack has occured or that intelligence indicates that a terrorist action against a specific location is likely is TREATCON condition ___. - Correct answer Delta What are preventive measure an individual can take to protect themselves from a terrorist attack? - Correct answer Avoid traveling alone, Park in well-lighted areas with multiple exists, Vary transportation methods, routes, and times

What should you avoid in protecting your self form a terries attract? - Correct answer Maintain a low profile, Remain vigilant, Protect your automobile The determination by an authorized official that official information requires, in the interests of national security, a specific degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure is known as what? - Correct answer Classification An unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more persons who do not possess a current valid security clearance is known as what? - Correct answer Compromise What is the highest level of security classifications? - Correct answer Top Secret What is the lowest level of security classification? - Correct answer Confidential What should be done upon finding unsecured classified material? - Correct answer Protect it from further compromise and notify the security manager What method might a foreign agents use in collecting information? - Correct answer Both Eaves dropping on electronic communications and Reading news releases What is the maximum transmission ranges for a man Pack SINGAR radio on low power? - Correct answer 200 M - 400 M There are how many different modes of operation for the Single channel Ground and Airborne Radio System. - Correct answer 2 What is the maximum transmission ranges for a man pack SINGAR radio on medium power? - Correct answer 400 M - 5 KM What is the maximum transmission ranges for a man pack SINGAR radio on high power? - Correct answer 5KM - 10KM What is the non-rechargeable hold up battery? - Correct answer BA 5372

What is the non-rechardgeable (lithium) primary man pack radio battery? - Correct answer BA What is the rechargeable man pack radio secondary power battery? - Correct answer BA 590 What word is used in the phonetic alphabet to say the letter H? - Correct answer Hotel What word is used in the phonetic alphabet to say the letter W? - Correct answer Whiskey What word is used in the phonetic alphabet to say the letter S? - Correct answer Sierra What word is used in the phonetic alphabet to say the letter T? - Correct answer Tango What word is used in the phonetic alphabet to say the letter M? - Correct answer Mike What is used to clean the audio connector pins on the radio and handset? - Correct answer Rubber eraser In the acronym FITAL what does the F stand for? - Correct answer Feel In the acronym FITAL what does the T stand for? - Correct answer Tighten In the acronym FITAL what does the A stand for? - Correct answer Adjust What is the maximum effective range of an M9 service pistol? - Correct answer 50 meters What is the magazine round capacity of a M9 service pistol? - Correct answer 15 What condition code does not apply the M9 service pistol? - Correct answer Condition 2

What is the maximum effective range of an M16A2 service rifle for a point target? - Correct answer 550 meters What is the maximum range of an M16A2 service rifle? - Correct answer 3600 meters What is the caliber of the M16A2 service rifle? - Correct answer 5.56 mm What is the maximum range of an M9 service pistol? - Correct answer 1800 meters If there is a bullet stuck in the bore of the M16A2 service rifle, what should you should? - Correct answer Turn the weapon into the armorer What is the magazine round capacity of a M16A2 service rifle? - Correct answer 30 What is the maximum effective range for a point target for the MK machine gun? - Correct answer 1500 meters A M203 grenade launcher is a lightwieght, single shot, breech-loaded, pump action shoulder-fired weapon attached to what type of weapon? - Correct answer M16A What is the maximum effective range for a fire team sized area target for the M203 grenade launcher? - Correct answer 350 meters What is the maximum effective range for a vehicle or weapon point target for the M203 grenade launcher? - Correct answer 150 meters What is the minimum safe firing range for a high explosive round during combat, for the M203 grenade launcher? - Correct answer 31 meters When firing the M249 (SAW) at a sustained rate of fire of 85 rounds per minute, fired in 3 to 5 round burst, 4 to 5 seconds between burst, requires barrel changes every how many minutes? - Correct answer No barrel changes required

When firing the M249 (SAW) at a rapid rate of fire of 200 rounds per minute, fired in 6 to 8 round burst, 2 to 3 seconds between burst, requires barrel changes every hoe many minutes? - Correct answer 2 minutes The M240G fires what caliber of rounds? - Correct answer 5.56 mm What occurs when the heat of the barrel is high enough to cause the propellant powder inside the round to ignite even though the primer has not been struck? - Correct answer Cook off What occurs when the cartridge primer has detonated after being struck by the firing pin but some problem with the propellant powder causes it to burn too slowly and this delays the firing of the projectile? - Correct answer Hang fire What is it called when a gun continues t fire after you release the trigger? - Correct answer Run away gun The M2 50 CAl machicne gun is made by who? - Correct answer Browning The M2 50 CAL machine gun total system weighs approximately how much? - Correct answer 128 lbs The grazing range of a M2 50 CAL machine gun is what? - Correct answer 700 meters The MK19 is designed to deliver accurate, intense, and decisive firepower against evemy personnel and ___. - Correct answer Lightly armored vehicles The MK19 machine is a self-powered, air-cooled, belt-fed, blowback operated weapon. - Correct answer True What is the bore diameter of a MK19 machine gun? - Correct answer 40 mm What are methods used for unaided observation techniques? - Correct answer Off-center vision method, Scanning method, and Strip method

What should you not do to preserve night vision when subjected to lighted areas or illumination? - Correct answer Use sun glasses What acronym is used for and intelligence information report? - Correct answer SALUTE What does the "S" stand for in an intelligence information report? - Correct answer Size What does the "A" stand for in an intelligence information report? - Correct answer Activity What acronym is used to identify the 5 paragraph operations order? - Correct answer SMEAC What does the "E" stand for in a 5 paragraph operations order? - Correct answer Execution What does the "C" stand for in a 5 paragraph operations order? - Correct answer Command and Signal What does the "S" stand for in the acronym SAFE when constructing a fighting position? - Correct answer Security What does the "A" stand for in the acronym SAFE when constructing a fighting position? - Correct answer Automatic weapons What does the "F" stand for in the acronym SAFE when construtcting a fighing position? - Correct answer Field of fire What does the "E" stand for in the acronym SAFE when constructing a fighting position? - Correct answer Entrenchment An individual fighting positing position should be at least how deep? - Correct answer 4 feet One disadvantaged of a two-man fighting hole is that it provides less protection against strafing? - Correct answer True

What is the purpose of covering all metal areas and taping up all loose straps of 782 gear during combat patrolling? - Correct answer To silence the gear The helmet may not be used for what purposes? - Correct answer To hammer with it, To heat water in it, and to dig with Anything that you can use to keep yourself, your equipment, and your position from looking like what they really are is called what? - Correct answer Camouflage Anything that gives protection from bullets, fragments of exploding rounds, flame, nuclear effects, and biological and chemical agents is called what? - Correct answer Cover Anything that hides you from enemy observation is called what? - Correct answer Concealment What type of individual movement is used when cover/concealment are available and greater speed of movement is required? - Correct answer High crawl What is the most common mistake made when observing around the corner? - Correct answer Allowing the weapon to extend beyond to corner Open areas such as streets, alleys, fields, and parks are known as ___. - Correct answer Danger areas What MEDEVAC category is assigned to emergency cases that should be evacuated as soon as possible in order to save life, limb, or eyesight? - Correct answer Priority 1 What MEDEVAC category is assigned to sick and wounded personnel requiring prompt medical care. - Correct answer Priority 2 What MEDEVAC category is assigned to sick and wounded personnel requiring evacuation but whose condition is not expected to deteriorate significantly? - Correct answer Priority 3

What MEDEVAC category is assigned to patients for whom evacuation by medical vehicle is a matter of medical convenience rather than necessity. - Correct answer Priority 4 The size of a landing zone required for landing is determined by? - Correct answer Type of helo and Obstruction height True or False, When selecting a helo landing site, you should be concerned the wind? - Correct answer True What are good locations for when selecting a landing zone? - Correct answer Hill tops and Flat open spaces The peace time MEDEVAC request differs from the wartime request in what 2 line item areas? - Correct answer 6 and 9 How many lines are found in a war and peace time MEDEVAC request? - Correct answer 9 Which line of the MEDEVAC request the patients nationality and status? - Correct answer 8 Which line of a wartime MEDEVAC request the method of marking the pick up site? - Correct answer 7 What is the Marine Corps attract hellicopter? - Correct answer Cobra This type of helicopter can be used for MEDEVACs and equipped with up to 15 litters. - Correct answer CH-46 The Ch 46 Sea Knight's primary function is ___? - Correct answer A medium lift assault support helicopter A CH-53E Sea Stallion can carry how many passengers with centerline seats installed? - Correct answer 55 What type of helicopters were used to rescue Air Force Captain Scoot O'Grady in Bosnia in June 1995? - Correct answer CH-53 E

The primary mission of this helicopter is for airborne command and control.

• Correct answer Huey The MV-22B Osprey is scheduled to replace what Marine Corps helicopter? - Correct answer CH46 E and CH53 D What type of aircraft is use to provide active radar jamming support to attack aircraft and ground units? - Correct answer EA-6B Prowler Which aircrafts primary function is to attack and destroy surface targets under day and night visual conditions? - Correct answer AV-8B Harrier What type of aircraft is used for inflict refueling/tactical transport? - Correct answer KC 130 Hercules What type of aircraft is use to intercept and destroy enemy aircraft and surface targets? - Correct answer F-18 Hornet Which class of ship serves as the centerpiece of a multi-ship Amphibious Readiness Group (ARG)? - Correct answer LHA The ___ are the largest amphibious ships in the world? - Correct answer LHD Wasp class What type of ship is configured as a flagship and provide extensive comman, control, and communications facilities to support an Amphibious Task Force Commander. - Correct answer LPD Which ships primary mission is to dock transport and launch the Navy's Landing Craft and other amphibious craft and vehicles with crew and Marines into potential trouble spots in the world? - Correct answer LSD The landing craft air cushion (LCAC) is a high-speed, over-the-beach fully amphibious landing craft capable of carrying a ___ ton payload. - Correct answer 60-75 The landing craft air cushion (LCAC) is not capable of carrying a M-1 tank.
• Correct answer False

What type of ships are used as Marltime Prepositioning Ships for the Marine Corps. - Correct answer T-AK Hospital ships are operated by who? - Correct answer Military Sealift Command Hospital are to provide acute medical and surgical for which branch/braches of service? - Correct answer Army, Air Force, and Marine Corps What are examples of a MOOTW? - Correct answer Arms control, Peace Operations, and Strikes and raids Operation Full Accounting is an example of what type of MOOTW? - Correct answer Recovery operations The evacuation of U.S. and foreign national personnel is known as what type of MOOTW? - Correct answer NEO Following the Inchon landing, U.S. and Republic of Korea (ROK) forces recaptured the South Korean capital from the North Koreans. This is an example of ___. - Correct answer MOUT Noncombatants have little or no impact on urban warfare. - Correct answer False What are principles of OMFTS? - Correct answer Pits strenght agains weakness, Focuses on and operation objective, and Use the sea as maneuver space When splinting a broken bone at or near the elbow __. - Correct answer Splint it in the position found During combat lay a victiom with a sucking chest wound ___. - Correct answer On their injured side Clothing stuck to a burn should be __. - Correct answer Left in place A Class II (Tactical) triage patient would have what type of injuries? - Correct answer Requires immediate life-sustaining measures