Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

History and Technology of Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS), Exams of History

An in-depth exploration of the history and technology of unmanned aerial systems (uas), focusing on key contributors, technological advancements, and regulatory aspects. Topics covered include elmer sperry's contributions, the integration of uas into the national airspace, and the role of the faa in regulating uas operations. The document also delves into the components and operation of uas, safety considerations, and the impact of uas on various industries.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 06/04/2024

Academician
Academician 🇺🇸

4.3

(10)

3.4K documents

1 / 38

Toggle sidebar

Related documents


Partial preview of the text

Download History and Technology of Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS) and more Exams History in PDF only on Docsity! USI Chapters 1-17 study Guide 2022 – 2023 (Best Study Material) Unit 1 - To look for a certain unit, just press CTRL and the F key at the same time for a search bar. Credit to Musmak Make sure to scroll down and press show more to get all of the answers What did Elmer Sperry contribute to the history or UAS? - Automatic stabilization What are the three technology issues facing UAS' full integration into the airspace? - Reliability, development of Detect and Avoid technology, control link security What is the difference between a guided missile and a modern UAS? - Modern UAS are intended for recovery and guided missiles are expendable UAS like the Lightning Bug initially used INS guidance. What technology increased the accuracy and capability of UAS? - Global Positioning System What was the primary mission of the Lightning Bug in Vietnam? - Reconnaissance Why is the term "unmanned aircraft system" used versus terms like UAV or drone? - To represent all of the components of a UAS not just the air vehicle What was the first full-scale remotely piloted aircraft? - Sopwith Aerial Target In what year did Congress mandate UAS integration into the national airspace? - 2012 Which of the following would be an example of a sUAS? - ScanEagle What are the two distinctive types of unmanned aircraft systems? - Autonomous and remote control What modern-day sUAS powerhouse did Dr. Paul MacCready start? - AeroVironment What technology was added to the TDR-1 that made it different from all previous UAS? - Television guidance What are the FAA's three categories of UAS? - Micro, Small, UAS What year did nonmilitary agencies begin using UAS? - 2004 What "first" for UAS was first credited to Reginald Denny? - Mass production What system was the original genesis of the modern-day Predator? - Leading Systems Amber What UAS was created by Israel in the 1970s and battle tested in 1982? - Scout What type of UAS remote pilots did the FAA first authorize? - Public What is the upper GTOW limit of a small UAS? - Less than 55 pounds Who patented a way to control vehicles remotely using radio waves? - Nikola Tesla What is diffraction? - Radio waves bending and moving around an object Name the two primary types of antennas. - Omni and directional What information is transmitted through uplink? - Commands What is wave propagation? - Way in which radio waves move from the source antenna to the receiving end What is the greatest advantage of a directional antenna/transceiver over an omni antenna transceiver? - Range What can limit a datalink's strength/range? - Environmental factors, power, antenna type, and range What is a carrier wave? - An EM wave that is modulated to convey a signal What is reflection? - Result of radio waves bouncing off the surface of an object and changing direction What is scattering? - Beam of radio waves hitting a mass of smaller materials, which individually reflect and spread the radio waves in different directions What is absorption? - Radio waves consumed by an object What is the term used to name what happens when an uplink or down link is broken? - Lost link What are the three main types of datalinks? - Simplex, half-duplex, and duplex What information is transmitted through a downlink? - Payload Which of the following are primary safety datalink flight requirements concerning UAS implementation into the NAS? - Near real-time telemetry from the AV Near real-time flight commands to the AV What U.S. government organization regulates frequencies? - Federal Communications Commission (FCC) How does LOS and BLOS differ? - BLOS has link establishment through satellite or relay. What is the purpose of a datalink? - Establish reliable communications between the AV and GCS What is refraction? - Bending of waves as they pass from one medium to another, due to a change in their speed Unit 4 - What is based on information critical to the operation of the aircraft? - Display design Which of the follow is considered contingency planning? - Lost communications flight plan A function of the GCS is payload monitoring and control. - True Most UAS pilot displays of a modern-day GCS are in a _____ configuration. - lateral From the GCS, who may also need to perform external communications via voice communications with the external crewmembers, air traffic control, customer(s), or company? - UAS crew The term sense and avoid is used in the UAS industry to _____. - transmit information for aircraft self-separation A UAS remote pilot can collapse and make his/her display completely disappear, if desired. - True The MCE will usually work rotating shifts and enable the aircraft to loiter longer on station. - True A waypoint is a place where the AV is halfway through the mission. - False The term used to explain that a human is involved in the overall action, but is removed from the control loop, allowing autonomous systems to function with infrequent or no human intervention, is called human _____. - on the loop What is the primary role of a GCS? - Keep the pilot out of the plane Which of the following joins two independent computer networks together to engage communication between them? - Bridged network The payload operator and AV remote pilot work together to get the best imagery. - True The term used to describe UAS operations and flight without humans monitoring or being in control of the AV is human _____. - out of the loop What is the name for the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum with wavelengths ranging from 700 nanometers to 1 millimeter? - Infrared band What bandwidth of EMR is useful for looking at the thermal emittance of an object? - Infrared What does an image's geolocation data contain? - Sensor's location What is the term for the remote sensor being pointed straight down from the aircraft in a line perpendicular to Earth's surface? - Nadir What is the primary functional use of a RADAR or LiDAR sensor? - Measuring distances What EM bands are typically used in precision agriculture applications? - Visible and near infrared Unit 6 - Limited research indicates that sUAS can perform _____% of the missions performed by traditional manned aircraft. - 33 to 75 In relation to UAS preflight operations, a "FRAT" is a _____. - flight risk analysis tool The U.S. military has used sUAS extensively to enhance situational awareness of forward deployed units. - True A sUAS operated by the New York City Police Department and utilized to search for a fleeing suspect was conducted at night, what level of Federal Aviation Administration authorization would be required? - Either a Part 107 exemption or Certificate of Authorization or waiver The Federal Aviation Administration's extremely rapid and efficient rulemaking process has been a major factor in the widespread adoption of sUAS technology. - False Overcoming regulatory and technological barriers are major factors in _____. - Beyond Line of Sight (BLOS) sUAS operations U.S. law enforcement agencies have been more proactive in utilizing sUAS than U.S. fire departments. - True The high cost of purchasing and operating sUAS is a significant limiting factor in adoption of the technology by police and fire agencies. - False The sUAS operated by a university and utilized to conduct research on snow distribution would be classified in the _____ user category. - scientific Commercial UAS weather briefings are best obtained through one of the many phone applications developed for UAS hobbyists. - False An outlook weather briefing is appropriate to obtain _____. - if the departure time is greater than 6 hours distant As the number of sUAS batteries increases, what must be reduced, so that the aircraft remains below the 55-pound requirement? - payload Notices to Airman (NOTAMs) related to UAS operations are issued by the _____. - FAA through their official vendor Leidos (formerly Lockheed-Martin) The first step in planning a commercial UAS operation is _____. - defining mission objectives A sUAS operated by the New York City Police Department and utilized to search for a fleeing suspect would be classified in the _____ user category. - government A sUAS operated by Bill Jones, a real estate agent, and used to take aerial photos of a home that Bill has listed for sale would be classified in the _____ user category. - commercial Inspections of pipelines and powerlines utilizing sUAS beyond visual line of sight procedures are routinely conducted on a daily basis throughout the United States. - False Which are limitations that UAS pilots are experiencing? (select all that apply) - capacity of battery life sense and avoid technology Unit 7 - Winds are usually named for: - The direction or place from which they are blowing At select stations, METARs provide: - an observation of past weather conditions As altitude increases, the remote PIC should expect: - Winds to increase During the passage of a warm front, which of the following conditions should be expected: - Stratiform clouds, bringing widespread light and continuous precipitation Which of the following associations are correct? - A valley breeze during the day A mountain breeze at night time Manufactures limits and procedures Why is maintenance recordkeeping recommended? (select all that apply) - Records help establish trends on the service life of components, which in turn help create a scheduled maintenance program. Records show that maintenance has been performed and the remote pilot is attempting to keep the UAS airworthy. Why are lithium-based batteries dangerous? (select all that apply) - Lithium batteries are considered a hazardous material and a fire hazard. Lithium is highly flammable Lithium reacts with water Lithium batteries can experience thermal runaway What does the remote pilot need to do if experiencing a UAS flyaway? - Monitor the system's location, and if the UA enters airspace that requires new authorization, then the remote pilot needs to immediately notify ATC. What is the purpose of PPE? - A physical control that helps crews protect themselves from bodily harm Match the term with the definition? - Schedule maintenance => Preventative and occurs at recommended intervals or at service limits Conditional maintenance => Any servicing or replacing of parts that is required, because a component is no longer serviceable or has failed Match the term with the definition. - Ethics => Set of rules or ideas that are considered the norm Professionalism => Set of attitudes or behaviors that are believed to be appropriate for particular occupations What is the definition of a PIC? - The individual that has the final authority and responsibility for the operation and safety of an sUAS operation What is flight termination? - Deliberate controlled flight of a UAS into terrain Which of the following are attributes of professionals? (select all that apply) - Organized Level headed Risk averse Methodical What do the following professions have in common: doctors, lawyers, and engineers? - Long formalize course of study and are certified by a board of experts Unit 9 - What are the minimum requirements for a Remote Pilot Certificate (not previously certified under Part 61)? - 16 years of age Pass an Aeronautical Knowledge Exam Complete a TSA background check What is the primary step that remote pilots should take when experiencing a known physical or mental condition that would interfere with the safe operation of a sUAS? - Exclude themselves from any crew duties Why should remote pilots check NOTAMs? - Center NOTAMs list TFRs. Pursuant to 14 CFR Part 107, no coordination with air traffic control is required for operations in Class-G airspace. - True What are the limits to Visual Line of Sight (VLOS)? - Furthest point at which an observer can see the system's location, as well as determine the system's attitude, altitude, and direction of flight with an unaided eye What government agency regulates unmanned aircraft systems? - Federal Aviation Administration What is the target turnaround time for Certificates of Waiver applications? - 90 days For which of the following reasons would a TFR be issued? - Movement of the President Abnormally high barometric pressure conditions Space flight operations Sporting events Which of the NOTAMs is most import to a remote pilot? - [D] or Distant If a pilot observed this sign, where would the aircraft be located? [Black Square with Yellow "A"] - Taxiway Alpha If a pilot is converting standard time to UTC time and is given the time 1730 UTC, what would EST be? - 1230 hours What does this sign mean? [Rectangle with Black and Yellow Stripes] - Indicates the taxiway does not continue Which is true regarding flight operations to or from another airport for Class C (towered) airspace area? - Prior to entering that airspace, pilots must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility. Remote pilots operating under Part 107 are required to maintain VLOS between the _____. - PIC and UA What two parts of effective radio communication techniques allow for the professional and successful transmission of the communication? - Listening and thinking The FAA has applied Class G (night) weather minimums for a RPIC to fly an unmanned aircraft under VFR. These minimums include: - 3 SM visibility and 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal of clouds When identifying a runway at an airport, a pilot can observe a large white number on each end that corresponds to a degree on a compass. If a pilot were to land on Runway 5, what would be the runway heading at the opposite end? - 230 Where could a remote pilot find the CTAF of an airport? - U.S. Chart Supplement and VFR Sectional Charts Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace? - The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating in that area. Pilots at towered airports can only deviate from towered airport instructions when _____. - receiving an amended clearance or during an emergency If a pilot was to enunciate an aircraft altitude over radio communications, how would the altitude of 13,500 feet be said? - One three thousand five hundred What are the two broad categories of airport facilities in the United States? - Towered and non- towered According to the AIM, initial contact with the tower should be made approximately ____ NM out from the airport. - 15 If a pilot is flying a textbook downwind leg (parallels runway) for Runway 09, what heading would show on the heading indicator display? - 270 Unit 11 - Schemas are valuable memory structures, because they _____. - help you recognize deviations that signify a problem A system's _____ depends on its ability to detect problems as they emerge, take appropriate action to intervene, and recover should the interventions fail. - resilience The dominant model that researchers use to represent information processing is based on the _____. - computer Expert basketball players have high levels of perceptual-motor fluency. This means their perception and performance _____. - are tuned to the demands of playing basketball A system design in which humans and technology are well integrated is a design that supports the anticipation and preparation. This refers to the design guideline to _____. - support projection A common source of error when working with automated systems is failing to notice when the system's mode of operation changes automatically and without notifying the operator. This undetected change in operating mode is called _____. - loss of mode awareness Information in memory that is interconnected on the basis of its involvement in a common event is called _____. - episodic memory The function allocation strategy that involves determining how best each system function can be accomplished by a joint human-technology team is the _____ allocation strategy. - complementarity In Reason's Swiss Cheese Model, the events and conditions that contributed to an error's occurrence are called _____. - latent conditions For decades, researchers believed the capacity for working memory to be _____ of information. - 7 +/- 2 chunks A common training shortfall is _____. - All of the answers are correct When automation conceals an escalating problem from the operator until the point when it cannot handle the problem any longer, and then hands off control of the ailing system to the operator, that is known as _____. - automation surprise What is "normalization of deviation"? - Noncompliance with SOPs that becomes accepted practice Which of these are CRM Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTP)? - Leadership Communication Situation awareness The bottom line for CRM in UAS operations is _____. - mission objectives are achieved efficiently and safely Complacency can result from automation bias and is a high threat to effective mission performance. - True The three levels of situation awareness formation are _____. - Perception, Comprehension, and Projection Choose the best statement of CRM strategy. - Safely and efficiently perform UAS mission objectives. How do you determine that an objective is achieved? - All Measures of Performance (MP) for that objective are attained. What does planning the mission involve? - Set objectives, tasks, and timelines. Choose the right team for the mission. Determine the resources necessary to attain objectives. TEM, Threat and Error Management, includes _____. - identification of potential sources of error, often denoted as "threats" recognizing and mitigating damage of errors as they occur applying effective control measures to ensure that errors do not lead to undesirable consequences Which of the following are examples of clear communication and standardized terminology? - Callouts/code words CUS words "Go-around" The three most important steps for crews-to-resource UAS missions are _____. - planning, executing, and assessing What is "VVM" as it relates to CRM/TEM? - Verify, Validate, and Monitor all crewmembers on actions taken by any crewmember USI defines CRM as the _____. - crew using resources and tactics to manage UAS flight operations The acronym CRM stands for _____. - Cockpit Resource Management Crew Resource Management When is the mission complete? - When all objectives of the flying operation are performed Which of the following are elements of SA relevant to effective CRM and TEM? - Flight path of all aircraft in the operating environment Time Objectives Location of terrain Airspace Which of the following is a potential crewmember for a UAS team? - Remote Pilot in Command (RPIC) Other Person Manipulating Controls (OPMC) Visual Observer (VO) Crew chief Unit 13 - What antidote can be applied to the hazardous attitude of macho? - Taking chances is foolish. What are the parts of the DECIDE decision-making model? - Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate What is a UAS remote pilot looking for in the NOTAM system? - Hazards affecting the flight, e.g., GPS outages TFRs, such as sporting events What mnemonic can help remote pilots with risk mitigation alternatives? - TEAM Unit 14 - What are the four pillars of SMS? - Safety Policy, Safety Risk Management (SRM), Safety Assurance (SA). and Safety Promotion What are the functions an emergency response plan must do? (There is more than one answer.) - Provide a Point of Contact (POC) recall list Care for the survivors and families of organization personnel Provide directions for first steps response team members must take in the event of an emergency recall Provide checklists for personnel/responders assisting in emergency response Outline how the organization's emergency response team will coordinate with other organizations and governmental authorities Outline the emergency authorities within the aviation organization and assigned responsibilities to specific personnel or positions Who is the accountable executive for an aviation organization? - The accountable executive holds the ultimate responsibility for the SMS program. The FAA considers an SMS program "implemented" when the aviation organization has _____. - the plan accepted/approved What is safety accountability and who does it directly affect within an aviation organization? - Safety accountability is the extent to which the members of an aviation safety organization are both aware of their roles in the safety of the organization and active participants in the execution of their duties within the SMS program. One of the four basic steps for delivering an SMS Implementation Plan is _____. - moving the organization toward further compliance with SMS processes Who was the first person to die in a fatal (powered) airplane accident? - Thomas Selfridge What is the risk in making a safety policy that is too tight-fitting or restrictive? How does this affect program safety in a larger sense? - A safety policy that is too tight-fitting may get breached, eroding credibility from the entire document. Aviation safety was born in the wake of the first aviation accidents. Why? - First attempts led to preventing further mistakes. What is the aviation organization's documented commitment to safety? - Safety Policy More than any other technical innovation, this improvement (in the 1950s and 1960s) decreased the aviation accident rate more than any other. - Implementation of the jet engine Unit 15 - When seeking to mitigate an evaluated risk, it is important to consider whether it can be mitigated for _____, _____, _____, or _____. - probability, severity, both, none Match the term with its appropriate definition: - Probability => The likelihood of an event coming to pass Mitigation => To lessen the overall risk by decreasing the probability and/or severity of a hazard Hazard => A real or perceived condition, event, or circumstance that a pilot encounters Risk => The assessed potential for adverse consequences resulting from a hazard Severity => The degree to which the negative effects occur or are experienced A _____ should be conducted prior to the first flight of the day on every fly day. - time-critical risk analysis RPICs must be knowledgeable about the _____, in order to quickly realize at what point in an event a mitigator is to be employed, how it is to be employed, and to what level of fidelity. - implementation of mitigators Not all risks can be eliminated. Those that can't must be _____. - managed A hazard that has been assessed for probability and severity becomes a(n) _____. - evaluated risk The time-critical risk analysis is typically done immediately before the flight event and is used to increase crew risk awareness. The tool most often used to conduct this analysis is the _____. - Flight Risk Assessment Tool The management of operational and organization change is a function of Safety Assurance. Change management activities within the SMS are principally concerned with which of the following? - Incremental change Internal audits are typically performed by which of the following? - The operating department or process owner that owns the technical activities An Acceptable Level of Safety (ALoS) is established by whom? - Safety committee Which is the most correct statement about controls in operational processes and procedures? - Organizational policies and procedures are useful controls. Which is not a characteristic of a voluntary reporting system? - The reporting employee is reprimanded due to procedural violations. Unit 17 - Management involvement in SMS, specifically Safety promotion, can take the form of _____. - All of these answers Communication silos _____. - require training and a positive safety culture in order to ensure information is shared appropriately across the organization Why is documentation practice important? - All of these answers What is Safety Culture is defined as? - The shared values, beliefs, assumptions, and norms that may govern organizational decision making, as well as individual and group attitudes about safety What techniques should not be used to help train team members in hazard reporting and analysis? - Using an incident or accident that occurred, demanding why those involved accepted the risk and why their calculation failed to address the problem before hand, in front of peers Which of the following team members should be involved in training and education programs related to safety? - All of these answers Safety briefing characteristics should include, but are not limited to _____. - All of these answers Safety newsletters are best described as providing safety information in the following way: - Unidirectional technique that should be friendly in tone and focused on safety, but can also have other helpful information What does "Compliance is not Safety" mean? - It is not enough to comply with the federal regulations, you must proactively integrate safety policies and procedures for your organization. Safety Promotion is often referred to as the _____ pillar of SMS. - fourth According to the ICAO Safety Management Manual, Safety Promotion training should include which of the following? - Accountable executive and senior managers who may not be actively engaged in the implementation of SMS Policy, roles, and responsibilities, and SMS principles to help illustrate the importance of reporting incidents Why are checklists important? - They provide a consistent procedure that is not overly burdensome, which helps identify problems that may arise. What is the overall goal of Safety Promotion? - Disseminate safety critical information throughout all levels of an organization in the interest of providing a positive safety culture that supports hazard reporting, proper documentation, and ultimately avoids the occurrence of incidents and accidents An SMS manual must be _____. - provided to all members of the organization and kept up to date and approved by the organization, with any major changes/updates highlighted available in hardcopy and/or digital copy The Safety Priority "Top 5" is a technique that _____. - highlights the Top 5 safety concerns you have identified for your company and that you would like your operators to be mindful of moving forward Why is a positive Safety Culture important? - All of these answers Change management is important, because _____. - any changes made to the system should be considered a hazard and must be assessed for how that change represents a risk Safety Promotion is a(n) _____. - systematic way to provide safety knowledge throughout your organization in support of developing a safety culture How are bidirectional communication and unidirectional communication relevant to SMS in UAS operations? - Bidirectional communication ensures that safety information relevant to the organization is expressed from management and to management. Unidirectional communication relates to the traditional expectation that management gives information and the crest of the organization receives information. According to Safety Promotion doctrine, what is safety communication defined as? - The manner by which management disseminates vital safety information throughout an organization in an appropriate and well-defined approach