UTA A&P II Final Exam 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT, Exams of Nursing

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UTA A&P II Final Exam 1 00%

VERIFIED ANSWERS

2024/2025 CORRECT

!!! In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of ________. increased membrane permeability to sodium ions The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart.

1. right atrium
2. left atrium
3. right ventricle
4. left ventricle
5. venae cavae
6. aorta
7. pulmonary trunk
8. pulmonary veins 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6 The bicuspid of mitral valve is located ______. between left atrium and left ventricle !!! The wall of the left ventricle is thicker than the right because _____. the left ventricle does more work than the right ventricle and the left ventricle produces a higher pressure than the right The right ventricle pumps blood into the _______. lungs via the pulmonary artery The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the ______. ventricular contraction

Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the ______. Right atrium Pacemaker cells in the SA node both show a spontaneous depolarization and are connected by gap junctions to atrial myocytes. !!! The plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential relates to _____. the result of K+ and Ca2+ influx The T wave on an ECG tracing represents _____. ventricular repolarization Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic receptors will _____. decrease heart rate Blood flow into the heart from the venae cavae flows next through the ____ valve. tricuspid !!! The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the _____. Stroke volume Which of the following factors will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries? Both decreased plasma albumen and increased blood hydrostatic pressure !!! Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space? The net filtration pressure is usually zero. Compared to arteries, veins _____. have thinner walls Materials can move across capillary walls by diffusion, bulk flow, and transcytosis !!! Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the __________.

arterioles dilate Arrange the structures in the following list in the order that blood will encounter as it flows from the output side to the input side of the cardiovascular flow circuit.

1. venules
2. arterioles
3. capillaries
4. elastic arteries
5. medium veins
6. large veins
7. muscular arteries 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 Blood pressure increases with all of the following, except increased ______. parasympathetic innervation !!! The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the ______. concentration of plasma proteins !!! Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by the _____. precapillary sphincter !!! Blood moves through veins because of all of the following except ______. pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the ______. tunica media Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following, except the_____. osmolarity of interstitial fluids Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone____. erythropoietin !!! Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called

megakaryocytes Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones? albumin !!! The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are____. albumins Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of iron !!! White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the ____. basophils !!! Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? produce antibodies in response to antigens !!! The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme _____. thrombin In response to hemorrhage, there is vasoconstriction, activation of platelets and Von Willebrand factors, activation of fibrinogen (all of the above) !!! The waste product bilirubin is produced from _____. heme molecules lacking iron A person with Type A blood has _____. antigen A on the RBCs and anti-B agglutinins (antibodies) in the plasma ______ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. Macrophages The pituitary hormone that promotes ovarian secretion of progesterone and testicular secretion of testosterone is _____. LH (luteinizing hormone)

The hypothalamus controls secretion by the anterior pituitary gland by _____. secreting and releasing inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system !!! The link between a peptide hormone and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormone is usually______. a G protein !!! Which statement about steroid hormones is false? Steroid hormones bind to receptors within the cell A hormone that promotes glucose synthesis in the liver is _____. cortisol The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex produces gluccocorticoids !!! Beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce _____. insulin Follicle cells in the ovary secrete ________ when stimulated by FSH. estrogens !!! Liver cells respond to growth hormone by increasing the expression and production of ______. IGF proteins Which of the following is NOT a function of growth hormone? It causes fat accumulation within adipocytes Some hormones exhibit synergistic or antagonistic effects on each other. Which of the hormones below, do you think, exhibit synergy? epinephrine and glucagon Endocrine cells _____. release their secretions directly into body fluids Chronic stress can and will affect almost all body systems. Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?

better digestion Submucosal glands that secrete mucus are characteristic of the _____. duodenum The sum of all of the biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given time is called metabolism The enzyme pepsin digests _____. proteins Where are nucleic acids digested and absorbed? digested: small intestine; absorbed: small intestine The fusion of the hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the _____. common bile duct !!! Lacteals _____. carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system The prominent ridges in the lining of the empty stomach are called_____ and function to allow the stomach to ______. rugae; stretch significantly Sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be found in the submucosal plexus The breakdown of proteins into peptides is through the enzymes _____. pepsin and trypsin _____ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding. molars Functions of the stomach include all of the following, except _____.

absorption of triglycerides What stimulates the cephalic phase of digestion? odors, sights, and thoughts of food Which of the following can directly trigger a defecation reflex? distention of the rectal wall The obstructive lung disease in which elastic fibers are lost, leading to collapse of alveoli and bronchioles, is called emphysema Paralysis of the _____ is one of the primary reason why cigarette smokers cough frequently. ciliated columnar cells of the trachea Large airborne particles are filtered by ______. hairs in the nasal cavity Boyle's law states that gas volume is _____. inversely proportional to pressure What is inspiratory reserve volume? 3,000ml (b) !!! _____ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle. Tidal volume The actual sites of gas exchange with the lungs are _____. alveoli !!! What happens to oxygen binding to hemoglobin when blood pH drops? oxygen affinity decreases and oxygen is unloaded to the tissues The vocal folds are located within the ____? larynx

!!! Pulmonary ventilation refers to the _____. movement of air into and out of the lungs Henry law states that ____. the volume of a gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure. The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive system is the _____. pharynx The vitamin that is required for erythropoiesis and absorbed when intrinsic factor is produced by the stomach is _____. vitamin B All of the following occur during the post-absorptive state, except that _____. levels of blood glucose are elevated !!! The trace element needed for hemoglobin and enzyme synthesis is _____. copper !!! An ion that is a necessary component of high-energy compounds and nucleic acids and a structural component of bone is the _____ ion. phosphate !!! The presence of ketone bodies in the urine is known as _____. Ketonuria The conversion of ammonia into a less toxic substance produces urea Sometimes called "good cholesterol," ________ carry excess cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver. high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) A cation that is important for enzyme synthesis, immune system health, and general protein formation is ______.

Zinc !!! The vitamin that plays a role in maintaining epithelia and is required for the synthesis of visual pigments is Vitamin A An element that is a compound of hemoglobin, myoglobin, and cytochromes is _____. iron Urea is formed in the _____. liver During the absorptive state, _____. the liver forms glycogen !!! Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, that are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection are _____. IgM !!! When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a _____ cell. cytotoxic T Non-specific immune defenses include ______. phagocytic cells, physical barriers, inflammation, interferons (all of the above) The body's nonspecific defenses include all of the following, except _____. antibodies !!! The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are _____ cells. plasma Stem cells that will form T cells mature in the _____. thymus !!! Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection, except _____. complement

Various types of macrophages are derived from monocytes Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells. cytotoxic T Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are _____. IgG An inflammatory response is triggered when _____. mast cells release histamine and heparin Immunity that results from receiving a vaccine with a weakended (attenuated virus) is called _____ immunity artificial active The release of pyrogens by active macrophages would produce a fever The process of filtration is driven primarily by _____. blood hydrostatic pressure Agents that increase urine excretion are known as _____. diuretics !!! What is the primary function of the loop of Henle? creating the corticomedullary gradient Blood leaves the glomerulus through a blood vessel called the efferent arteriole !!! Which hormone is released by heart muscle in response to excessive blood volume/pressure and stimulates the kidney to adjust the production of urine? natriuretic peptides When the level of ADH decreases, _____.

more urine is produced and the osmolarity of the urine decreases A urine sample shows glucose negative, blood negative, proteins negative, ketones negative, and nitrites positive. There also appears to be a little pus. Which is a possible reason behind these urinalysis results? urinary tract infection The kidneys not only remove waste products from the blood, they also assist in the regulation of blood volume, blood pH, blood pressure, and blood ion levels !!! A patient excretes a large volume of very dilute urine on a continuing basis. This may be due to _____. absence of ADH !!! One mechanism the kidney uses to raise systemic blood pressure is to _____. increase secretion of renin The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule is____. absorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins, and water Urine is carried to the urinary bladder by _____. the ureters A glomerulus is ____. a capillary within the renal corpuscle !!! A urine sample shows glucose negative, blood negative, proteins present, ketones present, and nitrites negative. Which is a possible reason behind these urinalysis results? diabetes mellitus Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body.

1. major calyx
2. minor calyx
3. nephron
4. urethra

5. ureter
6. collecting duct 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4 The cavity of the kidney that receives urine from the calyces is called the renal pelvis !!! In response to respiratory alkalosis, the kidneys retain more hydrogen ions A person with emphysema will exhibit signs of _____. respiratory acidosis A person who consumes large amounts of sodium bicarbonate ("baking soda") to settle an upset stomach risks _____. metabolic alkalosis Calcium reabsorption by the kidneys is promoted by the hormone Parathyroid hormone (PTH) !!! Sever kidney damage (such as glomerulonephritis) often leads to ____. metabolic acidosis !!! Consuming a meal high in salt will ____. result in a temporary increase in blood volume !!! When the pH of the extracellular fluid drops, the _____. kidneys excrete more hydrogen ions and excrete fewer bicarbonate ions Hypoventilation leads to ____. respiratory acidosis Excess hydrogen ion is eliminated from the body largely by _____. the kidneys Intracellular fluid (ICF) is found only within _____.

the cells of the body !!! Exchange between the two main subdivisions of ECF occurs primarily at the _____. capillaries A chemical that minimizes changes in the pH of a body fluid by releasing or binding hydrogen ion is called a(n) _____. buffer Leydig cells produce _____. androgens The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testis is called the ____. tunica albuginea !!! What is a function of the nitric oxide released by the parasympathetic nerves during erection? it causes the relaxation of the smooth muscle in the walls of arterioles supplying the penis The organs that are at the base of the urethra and produce an alkaline secretion is the _____. bulbourethral glands Arrange the four structures listed below into the order in which sperm pass from the testis to the urethral meatus.

1. ductus deferens
2. urethra
3. ejaculatory duct
4. epididymis 4, 1, 3, 2 Sperm develop from stem cells called ____. spermatogonia The organ that produces a secretion that contains fructose, prostaglandins, and fibrinogen is the seminal gland (seminal vesicle) The organ that stores sperm and is the site of sperm maturation is the ____. epididymis

The role of FSH in males is to _____. initiate sperm production in the testes !!! The broad ligament is _____. an extensive mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus Which of the following is NOT an action of estradiol? mimics the symptoms of menopause The surge in luteinizing hormone (LH) that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers _____. ovulation The oral contraceptive pill contains an estrogen and progesterone or a synthetic mimic of these hormones. The combination of these two hormones taken in the pill and circulating in the blood work because: the hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation Fertilization generally occurs in the ____. oviducts (uterine/ fallopian tubes) The corpus luteum releases what 2 hormones, which maintain pregnancy? estradiol; progesterone !!! During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, _____. the functional zone of the endometrium is restored !!! Which of the following is not an action of estrogen? mimics the symptoms of menopause The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is the uterus Which of the following does not occur in both male and female sexual response?

All occur in both sexes: blood pressure and heart rate increases, blood flow to genital structures increases, muscles of the structures in the reproductive duct contract rhythmically The critical factor that determines gender during development is _____. the SRY gene Human egg and sperm are similar in that _____. they have the same number of chromosomes The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________. in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced from the parent cell, and in spermatogenesis, four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell.