VTNE final exam 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT, Exams of Health sciences

Download VTNE final exam 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity! VTNE final exam 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT What the usual life span mice, rats and hamsters? C) 3 years A ferret presents for periodic hind end weakness and the veterinarian suspects an insulinoma. If blood is drawn while the ferret is presenting with clinical signs, what laboratory result would most likely be found? a hypoglycemia Which species gives birth to large precocial young? d.) d. Guinea pig Which viral disease carried by hamsters and other rodents is zoonotic? ⓑ Lymphocytic choriomeningitis Which disease in the non-human primate is routinely tested for in the laboratory setting? ⓑ Tuberculosis Which laboratory animals should be routinely vaccinated for rabies C ferret Trichobezoars is most common in which species B rabbit Where is blood most commonly collected from the rabbit Ear Snuffles in a rabbit is caused by Pasterurella mutocicida What is a common problem scene in young hamsters from a pet store Diarrhea A usual site for vina puncture in anesthetized mice is Retro orbital The sex of a juvenile mice is determined by Anogenital distance Seizures are inherited condition most often seen in which species Gerbil Vitamin C is an essential ingredient in the diet of which species Guinea pigs and nonhuman primates The best method of euthanizing a large group of mice is Carbon dioxide Rabbits practice scope of Asia primarily to recover Vitamin B complex What is the primary cause of upper respiratory disease in rats Oxygen can be administered to a patient through all of the following except Chest tube A small breed dog is considered Tachycardic if the heart rate is A. <180 Which of the following would best to treated a cat that experiences status epilepticus A. Midazolam A dog has Matilda hide poisoning and presents with seizures. His temperature is 10 9°F, and you begin cooling techniques while the veterinarian to reach the seizures. At what temperature should you stop trying to cool the dog? C. 103F You need to administer emergency drugs and fluids to a critical 0.25 KG puppy but are unable to place a cephalic or jugular catheter. What would be the best alternative route? Introsseous To reduce intracranial pressure that results from trauma, what of the following may be administered? A. Mannitol Which heart rhythms shows occasional bizarre shapes QRS complex at random intervals? A. Ventricular premature contractions 18-year-old domestic shorthair cat presents with a history of vomiting and inappetence and a severely dehydrated. His CBC shows a him hemoatocrit of 22%. What can be said about this cat? His true hematocrit is likely lower than 22% What is the normal reading for central venous pressure 0-10 cm H2O Which of the following is clinical signs that you would see in a dog with chocolate toxicity Tachycardia What is the rate of cardiac compressions apply to a large dog during cardio pulmonary Resuscitation 80 to 100 per minute A large dog was hit by a car and presented for mild shock and respiratory distress. On physical exam, you notice that when the dog inhales, part of the chest wall sinks into the chest. What is this condition? C. Flail chest Constant rate infusion of dopamine or dobutamine is used to achieve what desired effect? Increased heart contractibility A patient with pneumothorax is most likely to exhibit which symptoms? A. Dyspnea A toy poodle presents for muscle tremors, staff gate, and reluctance to walk. Her history shows that her vaccines are up-to-date and that she is currently nursing 53 week old puppies. You run a CBC answer in chemistry. What is most likely abnormal result? Hypocalcemia A three-week rocket and is found in which I am not responsive. What home treatment is most likely to improve the condition? C. Karo syrup Which of the following are in the correct order of flow of blood through the heart? D. Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve How much time does it take before cardiac arrest causes irreversible brain damage? Three minutes Emesishould not be induced in a dog that has consumed which toxin ? Gasoline The rapid IV administration of large amounts of potassium can result in Cardiac arrest The volume of 1 to 10,000 epinephrine for an intravenous administration to a dog is calculated to be 2.0 ML. What volume of epinephrine should be drawn up for intertracheal administration to the same patient? C. 4.0 ML The main purpose of the x-ray developer is to Convert the expose silver halide to black metal silver If a radiograph is too light and has adequate penetration, you should Increase MAS 30 to 50% Urine field bladder is best described as Anechoic When depressing that "prep" switch on a rotating anode x-ray machine, you are affectively Heating up the filament and spending the rotating anode To get more density on a film, you should do what you the kvp and MAS? Increase either or both Positive contrast media are considered to be Radiopaque, which means it will be white on a processing film Intravenous pyelogram, (IVP) is also referred to an Excretory unogram The field of view of the pelvis for orthopedic foundation for animals (OFA) includes Pelvis, femurs, and stifles What is the isotonic call Lloyd one hour "shock does" of fluid for the cat? A. 40-50 ML/KG To determine whether an animal had an on United and ancorneal process, the veterinarian would want you to x-ray the Elbow Which imaging technology has the latest safety concern for a patient and technician? Ultrasound A veterinary technician notes that a film is too dark, and there is minimal contrast (everything is gray). What is the most appropriate adjustment to be made to improve the quality of repeat film? Decrease KVP Abdominal radiographs are best taken when the Animal exhales When taking a lateral thoracic radiograph, you should make sure the spine and sternum are Equidistant from the table Which of the following does not affect radiographic density MAS Which contrast medium listed is considered negative contrast? Air And radiographing a long bone, it is important to Include the joint proximal and the joint distal Foreshortening occurs when the radiograph and long bone, and the Bone is not parallel to the cassette If MA equals 100 and S equals 1/10, what is the MAS of the x-ray exposure technique? 10 When the object to film distance is increased, the image is Magnified What is the proper order of manual processing of x-ray film? Develop, rinse, fix, wash, dry Which of these techniques causes a major increase in scatter radiation? Increasing the KVP What is the light sensitive chemical impregnated into an x-ray film? Silver halide Why are intensifying screens attitude and x-ray cassette? To cause light exposure of the film Aluminum filters remove the part of an x-ray beam ? Low energy What is the usual position for a horse for castration? Lateral recumbency A dog is prepared for an onchiectomy . What body part should be prepped? Scrotal/pre-scrotal area A caslicks operation is performed on horses to Improve fertility Which of the following is an absorbent suture material Which of the following blood stains is used to demonstrate reticulocyte New methylene blue Reduction of numbers of white blood cells is termed Leukopenia What color is lipemic serum Milky What is a left shift in a CBC Increased Young white cells Paired serum samples drawn several weeks apart are essential and diagnostic serology to Establish the presence of a current active infection The BUN Best is done to assess what Oregon Kidney It's of the following pairs of cells are agranulocyte Lymphocyte and monocytes What is the most common method used for the detection of feline leukemia virus Elisa test The term Anisocytosis refers to cells that Are unequal in size What agar is used for antibiotic sensitivity testing Muller hinton What cells types are found in the highest percentage on a normal bovine differenntial Lymphocyt Which procedure best describes a compatible major crossmatch Placing recipients serum with donors red cell suspension and seeing no hemolysis What anticoagulant is used to collect blood for a blood gas test Heparin What's with your pattern is picture to the right Horizontal mattress What is the name of the surgical instrument picture to the right Army navy What is the name of the surgical instrument picture to the right Balfour What is the name of the surgical instrument picture to the right Senn What is the name of the surgical instrument picture to the right Gelpi What is the name of the surgical instrument picture to the right Weitlaner All of the following statements are true about G.I. surgery except It is absolutely essential to fast all patients before G.I. surgery. The G.I. tract must be empty before surgery All of the following are instructions to give to clients of animals that have Penrose drains placed except The drain will fall out, and there is no need to return for removal. Proper splint and bandage care includes all of the following except Washing the splint or bandage daily Staples and other metal clips Can be used in infected wounds External fixation devices include all of the following except Bone plate A cow was placed in what position for a cyst Syrian section Standing An animal is to be prepared for femoral head Ostoectomy What part of the body is prepped Hip Which of the following is a needle driver that is also able to cut sutures Olson Hagar Which of the following forceps has The best crushing action Rodcester pean 15 psi What agent, method, or device is most appropriate for sterilizing an electric Jill to be used in an orthopedic surgical procedure Ethylene oxide gas Which of the following is not an effective form of surgical hemostasis Ligation The effectiveness of a surgical scrub of the hands and arms with a bacterial side soap depends on the Combination of contact time and scrubbing action What is the most appropriate wound flashing solution Isotonic Saline What portion of a surgical gown is considered sterile during surgery Front, from the waist up, including the arms What size scalpel blade is generally used it in our throw scopic for making the stab incision into the joint because of his pointed, rather than rounded or hooked, end? Number 11 What size scalpel blade is most commonly used for making an abdominal skin incision and dogs Number 10 Sterilization is the process of killing micro organisms by physical or chemical means. What is the most reliable form of sterilization? Steam under pressure All of the following are considered benefits of using skin staples except Staples are most cost effective If the skin edges are under extreme tension (example, and a large skin world), what is the suture pattern of choice? Interrupted horizontal mattress what form of local Anna static is used for a flank laparotomy in a cow what form of local Anna static is used for a flank laparotomy in a cow Inverted L block What suture is not recommended for skin closure Chromatic gut What is the purpose of using a subcuticlar suture pattern for final closure To decrease the chance of sutures being chewed out by the patient When suturing skin, the needle of choice is Reverse cutting Lavaging (flushing) a body cavity with warm, sterile saline after a surgical procedure is completed but before closing the incision Decreased the amount of bacteria left behind and warms the patient A tapered suture needle is The least traumatic and most often used in deep tissue layers Which orthopedic fixation consists of pins that penetrate fractured bones and are held in place externally by bolts Kishner Ehmer fixation Perineal urethrostomy are performed on Male cats with utgeral obstruction A diaphragmatic hernia Should be suspected if the animal is dyspneic following a dramatic experience An adjusted total leukocyte count needs to b ade in the presence of: nucleated red blood cells Which of the following blood stains is used to demonstrate reticulocytes? ...new methalen blue 3A reduction of the number of white blood cells is termed: leukopENIA What color is lipemic serum milky What is a left shift in a CBC? increased young white cells Paired serum samples, drawn several weeks apart, are essential in diagnostic serology to: establish the presence of a current, active infection. The BUN test is done to assess what organ? What term describes the area around a sensitivity disc on an agar plate that has no growth? zone of inhibition what type of these is the McMaster test? fecal exam which of the following solutions is used for preservation of tissue specimans formanlin Which of the following appear as Gram positive cocci in grape-like clusters? Staphylococcus What condition of the horse is diagnosed with a Coggin s test? equine infectious anemia witich of the following parasites is an important cause of colic in horses? strongylus What is the cause of visceral larval migrans in children? immature form of a common hookworm of dogs and cats What agent found in cat feces should be avoided by pregnant women? Toxoplasma What arthropod serves as the biological vector of Dirofilaria immitis? mosquitos What test can be used to distinguish the microfilaria of Dirofilaria immitis from those of Dipetalonema reconditum? Modified Knott's Which of the following is an example of chronic somatic pain? Hip dysplasia Why are NSAIDs that are approved for use in dogs often contraindicated for use in cats? The rate of metabolism of NSAIDs is highly variable in cats Which group of drugs produces its analgesic effect by altering the perception of pain in the central nervous system? Opiods Which group of drugs produces its analgesic effect by inhibiting peripheral nerve conduction? Local anesthetics Which of the following drugs is recommended got treat chronic neuropathic pain? Gabapentin Which of the following is a corticosteroid? Prednisone An NSAID with which of the following characteristics would most likely have the fewest adverse effects? COX-2 selective Phenylbutazone is an NSAID commonly used to treat chronic lameness in horses. What is e most significant adverse effect of this therapy? Gastric ulcers What is the primary chemical mediator of inflammation that is inhibited by the action of NSAIDs? Prostaglandins Corticosteroids are potent anti-inflammatory drugs. Why are they not used for routine pain management? Corticosteroids have many adverse side effects What is the term for using a combination of drugs to provide better pain management? Multimodal analgesia Clinical signs of pain in a horse includes all of the following except: Increased appetite Why is acepromazine often included in a pain management plan? Acepromazine reduces the stress that can make pain worse Which type of pain is initiated by irritation or dysfunction of a sensory nrge? Neuropathic pain Which of the following would not be a potential indicator for intraoperative pain? Decreased blood pressure A drug from which of the following categories will cause loss of motor function when administered during an epidural? Local anesthetic Excitation and vomiting Naloxone is the reversal agent for which drug? Oxymorphone When is non-rebreathing anesthetic equipment used? For all patients weighing under 15 lbs Pre-anesthetic drugs typically include which of the following? Narcotics and tranquilizers What is true regarding rebreathing systems? Rebreathing systems utilize carbon dioxide absorption canister to remove carbon dioxide from the system When should soda lime be changed? When half of the granules change color What does the speed of recovery from barbiturate anesthesia depend primarily upon? Redistribution from brain to other body tissues The circulatory system can be monitored during general anesthesia by checking what? CRT, color of mucous membranes, and heart rate What is false regarding sighing of an animal? Sighing should be done every 20-30 minutes What is the main reason for periodically emptying the rebreathing bag on a closed circuit anesthesia machine? Prevent CO2 build-up and acidosis What is the pressure in the thoracic cavity during normal inhalation? Negative pressure What term describes the volume of gas inhaled and exhaled in one breath? Tidal volume Why are intravenous barbiturates generally contraindicated in C-sections of a bitch? Severe respiratory depression of the fetuses results What procedure may cause noticeable effects from stimulation of the vagus nerves? Endotracheal intubation What should the anesthetist do to prevent atelectasis during anesthesia? Sigh the patient periodically What may interfere with endotracheal intubation? Laryngospasms What is a common problem with extinction of the brachycephalic breeds during the anesthetic recovery period? An obstructed airway leads to dyspnea What is the major drawback of using ketamine alone as a sole nestle tic in an ovariohysterectomy in. Feline? Little abdominal analgesia What is the effect of doxapram on the anesthetized patient? Increased respiration What is the effect of hypothermia on the anesthetized patient? Slow recovery What is the main purpose of the scavenger on the anesthetic machine? Remove waste gases What is the position of the trachea relative to the esophagus? Trachea is ventral to the esophagus Which drug should not be used IM for sedation Phenobarbital Which is not a preanesthetic agent? Naloxone Which of the drugs listed must be confined to a locked cabinet? Oxymorphone Which of the following anesthetic agents is contraindicated in sight hounds? Thiobarbiturates Which of the following anesthetic agents may cause panting? Narcotics How should a DTM vial be cultured? Strongylus vulgaris Which species is a host for pinworms horses Which of the following is an example of a cestode? Dipylidium caninum Which of the following is a trematode? Fasciola hepatica What is the "Walking Dandruff' mite? Cheyletiella Which of the following is an extracellular parasite? Trypanosoma sp. Where is Demodex found? in the hair follicle How is Toxocara canis transmitted to humans? ingestion Which of the following is a feline blood parasite found on the surface of the RBC's? Haemobartonella felis Which of the following parasites is best seen with a direct smear? Giardia Which of the following tests can be used to evaluate a patient for immune- mediated hemolytic anemia? Coomb's test What is a Heinz-body? a nuclear remnant What is detected by a CMT? WBC What is the best stain to observe white cell nuclear morphology? New methylene blue What organ is assessed by the fecal trypsin test? pancreas Which of the following will cause a false positive fecal occult blood test? meat in the diet What is the correct maturation sequence of the erythrocyte? rubriblast, prorubricyte, rubricyte, metarubricyte, reticulocyte, erythrocyte. Which cell will be first to respond in inflammatory reaction in response to injury? neutrophil Where are red blood cells produced? bone marrow Which of the following is spore-forming? Clostridium Which bacteria is a common cause of respiratory disease in rabbits? Pasteurella Which of the following correctly defines the term stomatitis? Inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces What is the dental formula for the adult horse (i.e. incisor-canine-premolar- molar)? Upper: 3-1-4-3 Lower: 3-1-3-3 Which is the dental formula for a cat? 2 (I3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)= 30 What is the permanent dental formula for a dog? 2(13/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3) Which of the following is the correct term for dental decay, causing demineralization of the hard tissues of the tooth? Caries Cats do not have first and second premolars on the mandible. Therefore, what is the number in the Triadan system for the premolar that is closest to the canine on the left mandible? 305 What procedure performed in horses includes filing and smoothing their teeth? Floating Lingual Which of the following is the best description of an epulis? A non-malignant oral tumor How many 3-rooted permanent maxillarv teeth are in the mouth of a dog? 6 What is the purpose of polishing the teeth after a dental cleaning? To smooth the microscopic defects on the tooth surface What percentage of dogs and cats, on average, has periodontal disease? 75% What is the normal sulcus depth of the teeth in dogs when examining with a periodontal probe? 0-3 mm In normal ocdusion, what is the proper position of the incisors and canine teeth when the mouth is closed? Mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors, and the mandibular canine is mesial to the maxillary canine Which of the following terms describes the something that is closer to the root of a tooth relative to another structure? Apical Accumulations of desquamated cells, food particles, and bacteria along the teeth are known as which of the following? Plaque As teeth make contact and grind together they gradually become worn. What is this process known as? Attrition What body system is most affected by the common infectious diseases of piglets? gastrointestinal Medications supplied in the form of pastes are most commonly administered to which species? horses The Coggins test is used to detect which disease? Equine Infectious Anemia What is the preferred manual restraint of sheep for hoof trimming? sitting on the rump Rubbing of the rear and tail is a sign of infestation with which parasite? Oxyuris equi An enterolith is a stone that forms in the intestine What restraint is most commonly used to collect blood from dairy cows? tail hold What is the normal frequency of gut sounds in a healthy ruminant? 1-3 times per minute Where would you most likely collect blood from a pot-bellied pig? auricular vein What method is commonly used to administer oral medications to a flock of sheep? drench which of the following vaccines can cause the disease if injected into people? brucellosis Johne's disease primarily affects which body system?? digestive Which of the following diseases cause abortion in cattle? brucellosis and leptospirosis Which parasite of cattle is a significant public health hazard? Crypf2.sporidium The CMT tests for the presence of what substances in milk? inflammatory cells . What are the most significant parasites of goats? coccidia and stomach worms Whatthe vein of choice for sampling blood from sheep? jugular Which disease is transmitted by ticks? Left lateral recumbency Which species does not have canine teeth? Cows On physical examination of a horse you find T=99.7° F, P=60 beats/min, R=18 breaths/min and G=2 contractions/min. What is the condition of the horse? tachycardia Which vaccine(s) is/ are administered before cattle enter a feedlot? IBR,BVD, PI-3, BRSV You need to calculate a drug dose for an average sized riding horse? What would be the best weight estimate? 1000 pounds Fenbendazole is a common de-wormer given to horses. efficacy against which parasite? bots what species is susceptible to infectius atrophic rhinist swine What are the preferred injection sites for a horse? neck and semis What is the best location to auscultate gut sounds in the horse? ventral abdomen Which of the following describes the action of a parasympathetic or cholinergic drug Increases salivation Which category of controlled drugs is most tightly controlled Category 1 Which of the following types of drugs promote excretion of urine Diuretics What does it mean to administer medication PO Orally What is the meaning of 60 ML PO TID 2 ounce by mouth every eight hours What abbreviation means to administer the medication as needed or desired PRN A 22 pound dog requires how many milliliters of atropine (1/120 Gr/milliliter) at a dosage rate of 0.05 ML per KG 1.5 ML What is a common chemical used in flea eradication Pyrethrin What is the role of a bacteriostatic drug Stop bacterial growth An animal is to receive 600 ML's of IV fluids over two hour period. What is the drop rate per minute when using a micro drip (60 drops per ML) 300 drops /minute What is the drop rate per minute for the same case if using a regular drip infusion set (15 drops per ML) 75 drops / minute What medication causes the puples to constrict Miotics How is furosemide classified Diuretics Neomycin ,streptomycin ,gentamicin ,and dihydrosterptomyocin belong to what class of anabiotic's Aminoglycosides Which agency regulates the cell and use of controlled substances DEA Which of the following is a hypertonic solution LRS Anti-emetics are indicated in which situation Vomiting What is a biological half-life of a drug The time it takes an animal to be eliminate half of the dose How much 50% dextrose do you add to 1 L of sterile water to make D5W 100 ML Which type of adverse reaction is most commonly observed with penicillin injection Hives and swelling of the face Which antimicrobial is banned from use in food animals due to the risk to human health Chloramphenicol What type of organisms are the drugs Ketoconazol and griseofulvin effectIve against Fungi Which drug is a respiratory stimulant Propanol Which type of drug is sucralfate ( carafate) Anti ulcer What does the term OD mean on a prescription Right Eye Which class of drug poses themost threat to that was handling the medication Antineoplastics How many milligrams are in each milliliter of a 6.5% solution 65 Which of the following would be used to treat muscle spasms Methocarbimol Ace inhibitors are used to treat which condition Hypertension The effects of which toxin can be counteract with vitamin K Brodifacoum A 33 pound dog is being treated with Fentanyl in the intravenous fluids. LRS is administered at 60 ML/KG/day. Fenton all is supplied in a multidose vial at 10 MG/ML. If the infusion rate for Fenton all is to MCG/KG/MIN, how many ML's of Fentanyl should be added to a 500 ML bag of LRS 2.4ml A 20 KG patient is assisted at 10% dehydration. If the clinicians orders are to make up the deficit deficit over 24 hours, how much fluids are added to the normal maintenance rate 8.3 ML/MIN