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VTNE Practice Test A QUESTIONS

WITH COMPLETE 100% VERIFIED

SOLUTIONS 2024/

A vial of penicillin contains 2,000,000 units of the dry drug. To make the penicillin into a solution that contains 400,000 units per ml, how much diluent is needed?

• 2 ml
• 4 ml
• 5 ml
• 10 ml 5 ml When an anesthetized patient is to be placed on a circular or semiclosed anesthesia circuit, the correct reservoir bag size is determined by using which of the following?
• 60 ml/lb/min
• 60 ml/lb
• 60 ml/kg
• 60 ml/kg/min 60 ml/kg It is necessary to immunize ferrets against:
• feline panleukopenia
• feline rhinotracheitis
• canine hepatitis
• canine distemper Canine distemper endotrachel intubation of the horse is usually performed:
• blindly
• with the aid of a laryngoscopes
• by palpation of the larynx
• with direct visualization of the larynx Blindly

In an anesthetized patient, hypocarbia (hypocapnia) could be attributed to:

• exhausted soda lime
• low respiratory rate
• excess artificial ventilation
• kinked endotracheal tube Excess artificial ventilation Which solution is contraindicated as a surgical prep if electrocautery is being used during the procedure.
• povidone iodine
• hexachlorophene
• isopropyl alcohol
• chlorhexidine Isopropyl alcohol Ivermectin is classified as which type of agent?
• fungicide
• anthelmintic
• antibiotic
• disinfectant Anthelmintic When discharging a patient that is wearing a fentanyl patch, instructions to the owners should include:
• skin irritation from the patch is considered a normal reaction
• proper use and disposal of the patch
• duration of pain control is 24 hours
• gloves are not necessary when handling the patch Proper use and disposal of the patch Acepromazine is classified as a(n):
• neuroleptanalgesic
• anticholinergic
• dissociative
• tranquilizer Tranquilizer

The correct names of the four valves of the heart are:

• pulmonic, systolic, atrial, and tricuspid
• mitral, pulmonic, aortic, and tricuspid
• aortic, diastolic, septal, and mitral
• mitral, pulmonic, atrial, and tricuspid Mitral, pulmonic, aortic, and tricuspid If anaphylaxis occurs after the administration of any vaccine or drug, which drug will best reverse the effect of shock?
• antihistamines
• epinephrine
• doxapram
• dexamethasone Epinephrine In treating hypovolemic shock in the canine, the most important form of therapy is to:
• administer IV fluids
• inject corticosteroids
• keep the patient warm
• give analgesics Administer IV fluids Which of the following is the smallest suture?
• 0
• 3 - 0
• 5 - 0 5 - 0 When a patient shows clinical signs of dyspnea and cyanosis, the technician should check for:
• ataxia
• hypothermia
• respiratory obstruction
• urethral obstruction Respiratory obstruction For a 20-kg dog that is 5% dehydrated, how much fluid replacement is required?
• 250 ml

• 500 ml
• 1000 ml
• 2000 ml 1000 ml A vial containing 1 gram of medication has to be reconstituted to a 2.5% solution (w/v). What volume of diluent is needed and what concentration will result?
• 25 mL, resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/L
• 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 2.5 mg/L
• 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/mL
• 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL 40 ml, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/ml In the anesthetized, healthy patient, which of the following abnormalities is most commonly encountered?
• Respiratory alkalosis
• Metabolic acidosis
• Metabolic alkalosis
• Respiratory acidosis Respiratory acidosis The standard culture medium used for bacterial sensitivity testing is:
• MacConkey
• Hektoen enteric
• Sabouraud dextrose
• Mueller-Hinton Mueller-Hinton The inhalant anesthetic isoflurane:
• is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container
• is odorless
• is flammable
• does not vaporize at room temperature when stored in an open container Is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container For horses under anesthesia in lateral recumbency, padding and positioning of the front legs and head is important to prevent:

• decubital sores
• granuloma
• laminitis
• neuromuscular damage Neuromuscular damage adequate tissue perfusion is presumed when an animal exhibits normal:
• heart rate
• body temperature
• capillary refill
• pupillary size Capillary refill Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of an ovarian follicle and the release of a mature egg from an ovary?
• Luteinizing hormone
• Estrogen
• Follicle stimulating hormone
• Progesterone Luteinizing hormone The most profound adverse effect of the opioid drugs is:
• respiratory depression
• decreased heart rate
• bowel hypermotility
• decreased blood pressure Respiratory depression How long is the gestation period in the mare?
• 112 - 115 days
• 148 - 156 days
• 280 - 290 days
• 326 - 354 days 326 - 354 days Inanimate objects contaminated with pathogens are referred to as:
• carriers

• hosts
• fomites
• vectors Fomites Which of the following parasites requires an intermediate host in order to complete the life cycle.?
• ascarid
• hookworm
• coccidia
• heartworm Heartworm basophillic stippling of RBCs is a characteristic finding in:
• lead poisoning in dogs
• anemia in horses
• acetaminophen toxicity in cats
• healthy avian blood Lead poisoning in dogs An effective drug for treating anaphylaxis is:
• calcium gluconate
• piperazine
• procaine
• epinephrine Epinephrine If a horse is given 825 mL of a 10% solution of guaifenesin, the amount in grams of guaifenesin given is:
• 0.825 g
• 8.25 g
• 82.5 g
• 825 g 82.5 g Which of the following does not increase radiographic density?
• increased kVp
• increased distance from target

• increased developing time
• increased developing temperature Increased distance from target Anemia due to the lack of iron and chronic blood loss are classified as:
• microcytic, hypochromic
• macrocytic, polychromatic
• macrocytic, hypochromic
• microcytic, polychromatic Microcytic, hypochromic Bordetella vaccine is given to dogs to prevent:
• Lyme disease
• parainfluenza
• distemper
• tracheobronchitis Tracheobronchitis Which type of suture material is more likely to "wick" fluid along it and therefore, should not be used in a contaminated environment?
• Catgut
• Monofilament
• Stainless steel
• Braided polyglactin 910 Braided polyglactin 910 A palpebral reflex is checked at the:
• pupil
• foot
• eyelid
• throat Eyelid Which of the following is the most likely complication of endotracheal tube cuff overinflation during lengthy anesthesia?
• Air leakage from the cuff
• Cuff rotation within the trachea

• Tissue necrosis
• Cuff wear and tear Tissue necrosis What is the advantage of using a narcotic as a premedication?
• increased analgesia
• increased blood pressure
• decreased salivation
• decreased respirations Increased analgesia In cattle, an increase in fibrinogen relative to the other plasma proteins is most likely to be due to:
• estrus
• inflammation
• ketosis
• pregnancy Inflammation When skeletal muscles are not being used, or when they lose their nerve supply, they tend to:
• hypertrophy
• atrophy
• necrose
• dystrophy Atrophy In radiographic terminology, to which of the following does the term density refer?
• The difference in anatomical detail observable between two areas on the radiograph
• The concentration of X rays produced
• The thickness of the radiograph
• The degree of blackness of the radiograph The degree of blackness of the radiograph Butorphanol tartrate has been prescribed for a Pomeranian with a collapsed trachea. The client should be cautioned that a common side effect of this drug is:
• hyperventilation
• tachycardia

• polydipsia
• sedation Sedation The primary function of the segmented neutrophil is:
• to remove histamine from the tissues
• the phagocytosis of small particles
• the antigen/antibody response
• to transport oxygen to the tissues The phagocytosis of small particles The contrast media that are most used in veterinary radiography are iodine, barium sulfate, and:
• water
• urine
• air
• feces Air Cells that line the thoracic, pericardial, and abdominal cavities are known as:
• mast cells
• macrophages
• Schwann cells
• mesothelial cells Mesothelial cells Constant Rate Infusion (CRI) of an analgesic:
• rarely requires a loading dose
• is administered in large amounts over a short period of time
• avoids peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection
• provides excellent analgesia in dogs but not in cats Avoids peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection Which of the following instruments is used for removing subgingival plaque?
• curette
• elevator
• scaler
• calculus forceps

Curette A correct statement about vaccines is that they contain:

• antibodies
• t-lymphocytes
• b-lymphocytes
• antigens Antigens Which of the following is the common name of the first upper premolar tooth in the horse?
• incisor
• canine
• wolf
• carnassial Wolf A rising antibody titer in paired serum samples taken 2 weeks apart indicates a:
• latent infection
• lack of infection
• past infection
• recent infection Recent infection Which surface of the tooth meets the opposite tooth during mastication?
• lingual
• buccal
• occlusal
• labial Occlusal How many grams of sodium chloride should be dissolved in 1.5 L of water to make a 12% solution?
• 1.8 g
• 18 g
• 180 g
• 1800 g 1.8 g

Which of the following forceps do veterinary surgeons most often use to aid in suturing?

• Kelly
• Adson
• Halsted
• Babcock Adson Which of the following is an analgesic drug commonly administered via a transdermal patch?
• Oxymorphone
• Meloxicam
• Xylazine
• Fentanyl Fentanyl The term that is used to describe the removal of the dorsal, bony roof of the spinal canal is:
• myectomy
• laminectomy
• neurectomy
• caudectomy Laminectomy Onychectomy is correctly defined as the surgical removal of:
• ovaries
• tonsils
• testicles
• claws Claws A decrease in RBC size observed during a CBC should be noted as:
• hypochromasia
• macrocytosis
• normocytosis
• microcytosis Microcytosis pocalcemia is commonly seen in:

• lactating animals
• the second trimester of pregnancy
• unweaned animals
• animals exhibiting lactose intolerance Lactating animals The lingual surface of the tooth is closest to the:
• cheek
• tongue
• palate
• lips Tongue For a midline ovariohysterectomy, the patient is positioned in which type of recumbency?
• Left lateral
• Ventral
• Dorsal
• Right lateral Dorsal All of the following drug groups produce analgesia except:
• barbiturates
• alpha-2 agonists
• phenothiazines
• opioids Phenothiazines When the veterinarian orders radiographs to investigate a suspected fracture of the left olecranon in a canine patient, the technician should radiograph the left:
• carpus
• elbow
• stifle
• tarsus Elbow During surgery, an atraumatic method of hemostasis is:
• clamping with hemostatic forceps
• wiping with gauze sponges

• blotting with gauze sponges
• ligation with suture material Blotting with gauze sponges After parturition, a cow may become partially or totally paralyzed with which of the following types of paralysis?
• Perineal
• Obturator
• Median
• Femoral Obturator After Gram staining, any bacterium that looks reddish-pink under the microscope is:
• alpha-hemolytic
• Gram-negative
• acid-fast
• Gram-positive Gram-negative The primary reason that vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetics is to:
• increase the duration of action
• increase the area affected by the anesthetic
• minimize toxicity
• decrease the duration of action Increase the duration of action Which type of immunoassay typically results in the visible clumping of particles?
• Fluorescent antibody testing
• Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
• Agglutination test
• Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) Agglutination Overinflation of an endotracheal tube cuff in the trachea of an anesthetized animal may result in:
• immediate dyspnea
• emesis

• laryngospasm
• pressure necrosis Pressure necrosis In an anesthetized animal, pale-gray mucous membranes are indicative of:
• hypercapnia
• hyperventilation
• poor tissue perfusion
• arrhythmia Poor tissue perfusion A radiograph that has been overexposed is:
• very detailed
• too dark
• not developable
• too light Too dark Lipase is a pancreatic enzyme that:
• degrades carbohydrates
• activates insulin
• degrades fat
• activates proteins Degrades fat The neutrophilic segmented cell belongs to the:
• plasmacytic series
• monocytic series
• granulocytic series
• erythrocytic series Granulocytic series Which of the following diseases is caused by Protozoa?
• pasteurellosis
• trichomoniasis
• salmonellosis
• leptospirosis

Trichomoniasis Metoclopramide belongs to which class of drugs?

• antiemetic
• anti-infective agent
• nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent
• muscle relaxant Antiemetic Which of the following is a common side effect of glucocorticoid usage?
• Polyuria
• Inappetence
• Vomiting
• Pruritus Polyuria Cattle are commonly vaccinated against which of the following zoonotic diseases, which can be spread by the urine of deer and rats?
• Leptospirosis
• Borreliosis
• Campylobacteriosis
• Brucellosis Leptospirosis