VTNE Secrets Study Guide Questions 1 – 70 Exam 2023-2024, Exams of Nursing

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VTNE Secrets Study Guide Questions 1 – 70

Exam 2023- 2024

Which of the following pieces of information is NOT required on a prescription label? a. date of the prescription b. age of the patient c. name of the prescriber d. address of the dispensing pharmacy - ANS-B: Age of the patient Fluoroquinolones should not be used in: a. young animals because they cause arthropathy b. growing animals because they can cause heart conduction disturbance. c. pregnant animals because they can cause abortion d. older animals because they cause arthropathy - ANS-A: young animals because they cause arthropathy Fluoroquinolones are toxic to chondrocytes. Damaged chondrocytes for vesicles on articular surfaces. Higher doses of fluoroquinolones are more likely to cause articular damage. Affected animals become lame. Which of the following is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside? a. Streptomycin b. Amikacin c. Tobramycin d. Neomycin - ANS-D: neomycin The significant adverse effect of aminoglycosides include nephrotoxicosis, ototoxicosis, and vestibulotoxicosis. Nephrotoxicosis risk increases with frequent and extended administration of aminoglycosides, particularly when tough concentrations are persistently elevated. Articles in the veterinary literature indicate that neomycin is the most nephrotoxic of the group. Which class of drugs is NOT a good choice to treat an infection by a gram-positive anaerobe? a. Tetracycline b. Macrolides c. Aminoglycosides d. Beta-lactams - ANS-C: aminoglycosides Beta-lactams and macroslides are reliably useful against gram-positive anaerobes. Aminoglycosides are not clinically useful in fighting gram-positive anaerobes.

When a cat is in compensatory shock the cat should receive isotonic replacement crystalloid fluids intravenously at a rate of: a. 60 mL/kg/L b. 90 mL/kg/L c. 30 mL/kg/L d. 45 mL/kg/L - ANS-A: 60 mL/kg/L In compensatory shock, or early decompensatory shock, cats should be treated with 60 mL/kg/hr of isotonic crystalloid replacement fluids. Dogs are treated at the rate of 90 mL/kg/hr. When replacement crystalloids with synthetic colloids are used, the rate to treat a cat in compensatory or decompensatory shock decreased to 24 - 36 mL/kg/hr. If a patient presented with dry and retracted eyes, dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulses, and a significant loss of skin turgor, at what percentage of interstitial dehydration would you estimate the patient to be? a. more than 11% b. 8% - 10% c. 4% - 5% d. 0% - 3% - ANS-B: 8% - 10% To create a 5% dextrose solution in a 500mL bag of 0.45% NaCl, how many mL of a 50% dextrose solution must be added? (Assume that a corresponding amount of NaCl solution will be removed prior to the dextrose being added). A. 5 mL B. 25 mL C. 50 mL D. 100 mL - ANS-C: 50 mL Each mL of 50% dextrose contains 0.5 g of dextrose. A 5% solution contains NaCl will contain 50 g of dextrose per liter, or 25 g per half liter. If each mL of 50% of dextrose contains 0.5 g, 50 mL of the 50% dextrose will be needed to bring the 500 mL bag of 0.45% NaCl to a 5% dextrose solution. 50 mL of NaCl should not be removed from the bag before the corresponding amount of dextrose is added. Hydromorphone, Fentanyl, and Pentobarbital are classified by Drug Enforcement Administration (DFA) regulations as belonging to which of the following? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV - ANS-B: Schedule II *CII substances have a high potential for abuse and include Morphine and other narcotics, including hydromorphone, methadone, meperidine, oxycodone, and fentanyl, that may lead to severe psychological or physical dependency. CII controlled

substances include stimulants as well as cocaine, amobarbital, glutethimide and pentobarbital.* CIII controlled substances have less potential for abuse. CIII also includes some narcotic combination products with a defined, limited dose of narcotic. CIV controlled substances have an even lower potential of abuse that CIII substances have. CI controlled substances have a high potential for abuse with no accepted medical use. Which of the following statements is/are true about the inventory of controlled substances? a. a new inventory of controlled substances on hand must be taken at least every 2 years. b. an inventory must include the number of commercial containers of each finished form. c. an inventory must include the date the inventory was conducted. d. all of the above - ANS-D: all of the above *According to the DEA, and inventory of controlled substances must:!

• Be a complete and accurate record of controlled substances on hand.
• Include the date the inventory is conducted.
• Be in written, typewritten or printed form.
• Be conducted at least every 2 years following an initial inventory.
• Be maintained at the registered location for at least 2 years past the date of the inventory.
• Include when the inventory was taken (open or closed business).
• Include the names of controlled substances.
• Include each finished form of the controlled substances (Inj., liquid, powder, tablet and dose and concentration).
• Include the number of dosage units each finished form in the commercial container (for instance, 50 tablet bottle, 10 mL vial).
• Include the number of commercial containers of each finished form (i.e. five 10 mL vials).
• Include the disposition of the controlled substances.* What is a reversed distributor? a. a supplier who resells returned merchandise. b. a supplier who resells returned pharmacy merchandise only. c. a Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) registered pharmacist who is authorized to sell items from their inventory to practitioners. d. a Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) registrant authorized to receive unusable or unwanted controlled substances. - ANS-D: a DEA registrant authorized to receive unusable or unwanted controlled substances.

Practitioners dispose of out-of-date, damaged, unusable, and unwanted controlled substances by transferring them to a reverse distributor, a DEA registrant authorized to receive them. Local DEA field offices provide a list of authorized reverse distributors. Copes of the records documenting the transfer and disposal must be maintained for 2 years. Which of the following is an effective surface disinfectant? a. 1:32 dilution of 5.25% solution of sodium (Na) hypochlorite. b. 5.25% solution of sodium (Na) hypochlorite. c. 1:5 dilution of 5.25% solution of sodium (Na) hypochlorite. d. all of the above - ANS-A- 1:32 dilution of 5.25% solution of sodium (Na) hypochlorite. Proper surface disinfection depends on proper cleaning of the surface and maintain contact with the surface with a suitable period of time. Sodium hypochlorite, the active ingredient in bleach, provides optimal disinfection with a 0.16% solution. A 0.16% solution is created by diluting a 5.25% solution to a 1:32 dilution. A dilute bleach or sodium hypochlorite solution is effective against parvovirus as well as other bacteria's and virus's. Which of the following is NOT true about recombinant human erythropoietin (rh-EPO)? a. rh-EPO is indicated in canine and feline patients with renal disease and a PCV of 25% or less. b. there is a high incidence of antibody formation to rh-EPO in dogs & cats. c. rh-EPO should be given to dogs & cats three times weekly until the target PCV is reached. d. the maximum dose of rh-EPO that should be given to a dog or cat is 100 U/kg. - ANS-D: the maximum dose of rh-EPO that should be given to a dog or cat is 100 U/kg. rh-EPO is a therapy for anemia associated with chronic renal disease in people and animals. It is indicated when PCV drops to 25% or less, and is given at doses of 50 - 100 U/kg 3 times weekly subcutaneously until the target PCV is reached. Patient PDV should be measured twice weekly to monitor response. When the target PCV is reached, rh-EPO may be given twice weekly. Non-responsive patients may be given a higher dose of rh-EPO. The dose can be increased in 25 - 50 U/kg increments. Responsive patients have reticulocytosis and a 0.5% - 1.0% daily increase in PCV. There is a incidence of antibody formation in dogs and cats. Which of the following is the BEST description if strangles? a. a contagious disease of horses cause by Streptococcus equi var equi b. an autoimmune disease in canines causing skin disorder. c. a bacterial disease of horses that can be prevented with vaccination. d. all of the above - ANS-D: all of the above *Strangles, also known as distemper in horses, is a highly contagious disease that can cause S. equi var equi. Vaccines are available and are recommended where strangles is endemic or when horses are expected to be at high risk. Streptococcus equi can be

transmitted directly or indirectly, and causes an inflammatory response resulting in fever, dysphagia, anorexia, stridor, nasal discharge, and lymphadenopathy. All symptoms are not necessarily present.* Strangles in canines is called puppy strangles, juvenile cellulitis, and sterile granulomatous dermatitis, and lymphadenitis. It is an uncommon disease related to immune system dysfunction occurring in puppies between 3 weeks and 4 months of age. The face becomes markedly swollen. High doses of corticosteroids are needed to treat the disease. Following resolution, the disease does not recur. Which of the following is FALSE regarding endotoxins? a. endotoxin is a component of the external cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. b. endotoxin causes the release of cytokines, vasoactive amines, and proteases. c. Glucocorticoids are used to treat endotoxin shock. d. Antibiotics are used to treat endotoxin shock. - ANS-D: antibiotics are used to treat endotoxin shock Endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide and a component of the external cell wall of gram- negative bacteria. It is released from the bacteria during bacterial growth, and cell lysis and death. When endotoxin binds receptors on host endothelial cells, macrophages or monocytes, or polymorphonuclear leukocytes, biochemical mediators are produced and released. These mediators include... cytokines, eicosanoids, nitric oxide, platelet activating factor, proteases, toxic oxygen radicals, and vasoactive amines. The release of these mediators initiates physiologic events resulting in endotoxic shock with cardiopulmonary dysfunction, loss of microvascular integrity, and not antibacterial's. Glucocorticoids are used in endotoxic shock because they are known to reduce cytokine production, inhabit the inflammatory cascade, and inhibit nitric oxide. Lazaroids, NSAIDs, , pentoxifylline, and nitrous oxide inhibitors are used to treat endotoxic shock, but not antibacterial's. Which of the following is NOT a statement of the Veterinary Technician Code of Ethics? a. "VT's shall remain competent through commitment to life-long learning". b. "VT's shall safeguard the public and the profession against individuals deficient in professional competence of ethics." c. "VT's shall assume accountability for their professional actions as well as those with whom they work". d. "VT's shall represent their credentials or identify themselves with specialty organizations only if the designation has been awarded and earned." - ANS-C: "Veterinary Technicians shall assume accountability for their professional actions as well as those whom work." *The full NAVTA Veterinary Technician Code of Ethics covers the obligations, ethical responsibilities and ideals, of veterinary technicians. It was developed but the NAVTA Ethics Committee and contains 11 statements in the Code of Ethics. The line in

question correctly reads, "Veterinary Technicians shall assume accountability for individual professional actions and judgements." Which of the following groups contains all reportable diseases? a. Bluetongue, paratuberculosis, Rift Valley fever, lumpy skin disease b. Anthrax, Coronavirus, Marek's disease, Ascariasis c. Rinderpest, Sheep Pox virus, Toxoplasmosis, Feline Infectious Peritonitis d. Camel Pox virus, Q fever, Trichinellids, Feline Immunodeficiency virus. - ANS-A: bluetongue, paratuberculosis, rift valley fever and lumpy skin disease. Complete lists of reportable disease for all species can be found on the CDC, USDA, and state websites. Of the disease included, the following are reportable: Bluetongue, Paratuberculosis, Rift Valley Fever, Lumpy Skin Disease, Anthrax, Marek's Disease, Rinderpest, Sheep Pox Virus, Camel Pox Virus, Q Fever, and Trichinellosis. Which of the following is/are important post-surgical instructions following an ovariohysterectomy (OVH)? a. directions for use of pain relief b. limit movement c. return for suture removal in 3 days d. BOTH a & b. - ANS-D: both a & b Following OVH, patient's movements should be restricted to minimize discomfort as well as pull on the future line and internal organs. While challenging at times, restriction is important for several days following surgery. Injectable pain relief may be used at times of surgery with oral pain relievers as well as potential side effects. The surgeon may place intradermal, or subcuticular, sutures, or use skin glue for closure, so that no suture removal is necessary. If skin sutures are placed, they should be removed 7 - 10 days following surgery. In some cases, sutures may be removed as early as 5 days post-surgery. What is the proper order of procedures for cleaning the canine and feline ear canal?

1. Ensure the tympanic membrane is intact.
2. Massage the ear.
3. Apply cleaning/flushing fluid to the ear canal.
4. Remove debris from the canal. a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 4, 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 3, 2, 4 d. 3, 2, 4, 1 - ANS-C: 1, 3, 2, 4 Ensure the tympanic membrane is intact, then apply cleaning/flushing fluid to the ear canal. Massage ear, then remove the debris from the canal. Which of the following is true about heat therapy during cranial cruciate ligament rehabilitation?

a. damp heat is applied to muscles prior to exercise. b. dry heat is applied to the joint and muscles. c. heat is applied to immediately following surgery. d. heat is applied every hour during recovery. - ANS-A: a damp heat is applied to muscles prior to exercise. Following cranial cruciate ligament injury and/or surgery, the application of heat to the muscles around the stifle joint is helpful to recovery. During the first 3 postoperative days, only cryotherapy should be used. Beginning day 4, heat should be applied TID, and should be applied prior to any rehabilitative exercise. Damp heat offers better penetration than dry and is far safer. When considering the dietary needs of a dog or a cat with liver disease, which of the following is true? a. protein must be restricted. b. normal amounts of protein are fed. c. a high amount of fat diet is recommended. d. high amount of sugar are fed. - ANS-B: normal amount of proteins are fed. Historically, recommended dietary therapy for dogs and cats with liver disease included limits on protein intake. Experts now recommend that normal amount of protein be fed. Additionally, cats and dogs with liver disease should be fed a high-quality, high digestible diet in frequent, small amounts. High-fat diets should be avoided; the diet should include normal fat levels. Calculate the constant rate of infusion (CRI) of Lidocaine for a 20 kg dog. The dog must receive Lidocaine at 60 mcg/kg/minute. The dog is currently receiving NaCl at a rate of 60 mL/kg/day. a. 68 mL b. 72 mL c. 78 mL d. 90 mL - ANS-B: 72 mL The patient is receiving fluids at 1200mL/day (60mL x 20kg = 1200mL) or 50 mL/hour (1200/24=50). The 1 L bag of fluids will last this patient 20 hours (1000/50=20) or 1200 minutes (20X60). The patient must receive 1200mcg lidocaine per minute. Since the fluids will last 1200 minutes at the current rate of delivery, 1,440,000mcg (1200 mcg X 1200 minutes) or 1440 mcg (1,440,000mg/mL of lidocaine must be added to the liter of NaCl. 2% lidocaine contains 20 mg/mL of lidocaine. 1440mg of 2% lidocaine will be present in 72mL. (1440/20=72mL) 72 mL of NaCl should be discarded from the liter bag, and 72 mL of 2% lidocaine added. When a pet dies, its owner often experiences grief. Identify the order and stages of the five stages of grief as identified by Kubler-Ross.

a. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. b. anger, depression, denial, bargaining, acceptance, and peace. c. anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance, and peace. d. bargaining, anger, depression, peace, acceptance. - ANS-A: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. When elevating a dog or cat for middle ear disease, which radiographic view is best to use? a. VD or lateral b. VD, open mouth, or parallel open jaw c. DV or open mouth d. DV and lateral - ANS-B: VD, open mouth, or parallel open jaw "Fill in the cat's bladder with contrast and saline. Place the cat in lateral recumbency. Apply gentle pressure to the bladder. Take a radiograph as fluid leaks out". Which of the following is a proper name for this procedure? a. bladder study b. Vesicoureterogram c. voiding urethrogram d. positive contrast urethrogram - ANS-C: voiding urethrogram This procedure is designed to evaluate the urethra, not the bladder, and will show contrast as it actively moves through the urethra. A positive contrast urethrogram, by contrast, is performed by placing a catheter about 2 cm into the urethra and injecting positive contrast. The catheter is withdrawn and a radiograph is taken. This study shows a passive view of the urethral status. A non-rebreathing circuit on an anesthetic machine should only be used... a. for patients weighing 6 kg or less. b. for patients weighing more than 6 kg. c. during anesthetic induction. d. when using isoflurane anesthesia. - ANS-A: for patients weighing 6kg or less. With a non-rebreathing circuit, anesthetic gages flow from the anesthetic machines to the patient to the atmosphere without flowing back to the patient. Adequate gas flow is needed to properly eliminate CO2. Due to delivery of precise anesthetic concentration with a non-rebreathing system, a change in vaporizer setting effects rapid change in inspired gas concentration and patient anesthesia. Which of the following steps is NOT necessary to check an anesthetic machine and circuit prior to use? a. fill vaporizers b. confirm waste gas savaging system is connectedterm- 25 c. check the system for leaks by pressurizing a closed circuit to 30 cm H2O d. allow O2 and gas to flow for five minutes prior to use. - ANS-D: allow O2 and gas to flow for five minutes prior to use.

*All anesthetic machines should be checked prior to use by:

1. Restock by filling vaporizers, and filling the CO2 canister with absorbent.
2. Check to confirm function of unidirectional valves, verify the O2 supply, check the pressure of the O2 cylinder and the N2O cylinder, and check for free movement of the float in flow meters.
3. Check the integrity of the breathing circuit and ensure tight connections. Close the pop-off or pressure relieve, block the Y-piece, bring the circuit to a pressure of 30cm H2O, and check for leaks.
4. Check the gas scavenging system is properly connected and turned on.
5. Check that the ventilator is properly attached to the breathing circuit and is free of leaks.* Which of the following is not a parameter of perfusion? a. capillary refill time (CRT) b. mucous membrane color c. heart rate d. respiratory rate. - ANS-D: respiratory rate A patient's perfusion can be assessed by evaluating the patient's heart rate (HR), capillary refill time (CRT), mucous membrane color (MM), and arterial blood pressure. Food should be withheld for how long prior to surgery in horses? a. 1 hour b. 4 - 8 hours c. 24 hours d. food should not be withheld - ANS-B: 4 - 8 hours Whenever possible, food should not be withheld for more than 4-8 hours prior to surgery in equine patients. Water should not be withheld. By comparison, food is withheld for 12-18 hours prior to surgery in large ruminants., and 8-12 hours in small ruminants. Cats and dogs should be fasted 6 hours prior to surgery. Which of the following anesthetics is the only one licensed for used in fish? a. isoflurane b. etomidate c. tricaine methane-sulfonate (MS-222) d. ketamine - ANS-C: Tricaine Methane-Sulfonate (MS-222) MS-222, etomidate, clove oil, and isoflurane are effective anesthetic agents in fish. Only MS-222, Tricaine Methane-Sulfonate, is licensed for use in fish. MS-222 is used as an immersion bath with 20-50mg/L causing sedation and 75-125mg/L causing anesthesia. Anesthesia is maintained to 50-75mg/L though dose is species-dependent. To achieve proper depth of anesthesia, fish are moved from an anesthetic water bath to a non-anesthetic water bath. MS-222 has a wide margin of safety and induces anesthesia rapidly, in less than 5 minutes.

Surgical anesthesia is attained in rabbits and rodents? a. when the patient has been on anesthetic gas for five minutes. b. when reflexes have decreased such that ear, toe and tail pinches do not result in withdrawal c. when heart rate decreases to 40 beats per minute (bpm). d. in none of the above situations. - ANS-B: When reflexes have decreased such as ear, toe and tail pinches do not result in withdrawal. Rabbits and rodents have reached a surgical plan of anesthesia when they no longer withdraw to a pinch on the ear, toe and tail. Corneal reflexes are highly variable under anesthesia. Loss of corneal reflex in a patient that previously had a reflex indicates that anesthesia is too deep. Anesthesia is also too deep if HR or RR is dropping. Which of the following types of forceps would NOT be included in a standard surgical pack? a. kelly hemostatic forceps b. adson-brown tissue forceps c. babcock forceps d. backhaus towl clamp - ANS-C: Babcock forceps Babcock forceps have looped blade that are designed to hold a short length of intestines without causing tissue compression. They are not part of a standard surgical pack, but would be used for intestinal surgeries. Kelly hemostatic forceps are used to occlude blood vessels or clamp tissue. Adson-Brown tissue forceps and/or Brown- Adson forceps, are common grasping forceps. Backhaus towel clamps are commonly used to hold towels or drapes in place. What is the correct use of Metzenbaum scissors? a. to cut delicate tissue b. to cut bandages c. to cut sutures d. for routine cutting and dissection - ANS-A: to cut delicate tissue Metzenbaum scissors are smaller, slightly curved surgical scissors that are designed to cut delicate tissues. Mayo scissors are used for routine cutting and dissection. Some other scissors are practically named, bandage scissors for cutting bandages, and suture scissors for cutting sutures. Which of the following is true about steam sterilization of surgical packs? a. cotton muslin wrap should never be used. b. a minimum temperature of 160F is needed for sterilization. c. wrapping materials must be permeable to steam. d. autoclave paper can be reused. - ANS-C: Wrapping materials must be permeable to steam.

Steam autoclaves are used to sterilize surgical packs. Successful sterilization depends upon the steam throughout penetrating the pack wrap and the contents. Wrapping should be permeable to steam, but not to microbes. Cotton muslin is a good choice for its durability and flexibility, but offers less storage time than other wraps. When used, muslin should be double layered and double wrapped around the pack. Autoclave paper, such as crepe paper, can be used, but not reused. Paper can be used in single or double layers and offers superior pack storage time to fabric. Instruments should be unhinged when they are sterilized for proper effect. Pans should be packed with the open facing down or horizontally. Linens must be laundered and ironed prior to sterilization. Drapes should be packed separately and individually to allow proper steam penetration of the compact material. Instrument packs should be position in the direction of steam flow and vertically with empty space between the packs. A minimum of 13 minutes saturated steam at 120F is the minimum requirement for sterilization. Higher temperatures may be used for highly resistant spores. Which of the following is true regarding cytochrome P450?

1. Cytochrome P-450 gene families are named beginning with the letters CYP.
2. Cytochrome P-450 enzymes metabolize toxins and drugs.
3. Cytochrome P-450 enzymes work primarily in the intestines.
4. Cytochrome P-450 enzymes synthesize steroids.
5. Cytochrome P-450 enzymes synthesize bile acids.
6. Drugs can cause cytochrome P-450 enzyme induction. a. 2, 4, 5, 6, b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, c. 1, 2, 5, 6 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 - ANS-B: 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 Cytochrome P-450 enzymes metabolize toxins and drugs, the process of biotransformation, primarily the liver. P-450 enzymes also synthesize steroids, fatty acids, and bile acids. These enzymes are also found in the intestines, lungs, and other organs. Cytochrome P-450 gene families are classified by sequence similarities, not function. A gene family is labeled by the letters "CYP". CYP1, CYP2, and CYP3 gene families metabolize drugs. Individual enzymes in this system are named "CYP" followed by a number, letter, and a number. CYP2D6, for example, is responsible for metabolizing psychotherapy drugs. Drug interactions result from cytochrome P-450 enzyme inhibition or enzyme induction. Enzyme induction occurs when the body produces additional enzyme protein in response to a drug.

Diffusion across the cell membrane with the assistance of carrier proteins is called: a. diffusion b. osmosis c. facilitated diffusion d. filtration - ANS-C: Facilitated Diffusion Diffusion is a passive process of molecular movement from a high concentration to a low concentration. Osmosis is the movement of water semipermeable membrane from an area of low solute to high solute. Facilitated diffusion is diffusion with the assistance of carrier proteins across the cell membrane. Filtration is a process of forcing substances across a cell membrane using hydrostatic pressure. When delivered fluid is more concentrated than intravascular fluid, the delivered fluid is considered: a. hypertonic b. isotonic c. hypotonic d. none of the above - ANS-A: Hypertonic Isotonic fluid is equally as concentrated as a comparison fluid. Hypotonic fluid is less concentrated than the comparison fluid. Hypertonic fluid is more concentrated than the comparison fluid. Adipose is what type of tissue? a. epithelial tissue b. muscle tissue c. nervous tissue d. connective tissue - ANS-D: Connective Tissue Areolar, Adipose, and reticular tissues are all proper connective tissues. Hyaline, Elastic, Fibrocartilage, Spongy blood, and bone are all specialized connective tissues. If something is plantar, it is... a. at the bottom of the rear foot. b. towards the tail. c. toward the back bone. d. farthest from the medial plane. - ANS-A: At the bottom of the rear foot By definition, Plantar refers to the bottom of the rear foot; Palmar is to the bottom of the front foot; Caudal and posterior refers to toward the tail; Dorsal is towards the back bone; Lateral is farthest from the medial plane. Which of the following is equivalent? a. 1 tbsp = 5 mL b. 1 tbsp = 15 mL

c. 1 in = 2.45 cm d. 1 in = 2.50 cm - ANS-B: 1 tbsp. = 15 mL One teaspoon is equivalent to 5 milliliters. One tablespoon is equivalent to 15 milliliters. One inch is equivalent to 2.54 centimeters. A dog weighs 80 pound weighs.. a. 36 kg b. 31 kg c. 176 kg d. 203 kg - ANS-A: 36kg 80/2.2 = 36kg The proper name for a neutered male pig is a a. gelding b. wether c. gib d. barrow - ANS-D: Barrow

Neutered male pig = Barrow Neutered male ferret = Gib Neutered male horse or llama = Gelding Neutered male sheep = Wether The gestational period time of the horse is a. 285 days b. 148 days c. 336 days d. 365 days - ANS-C: 336 days *Normal gestational periods for the following: Horse = 336 days Cow = 285 days Sheep = 148 days Goat = 149 days Pig = 114 days Dog = 63 - 65 days Cat = 63 - 65 days Which of the following is FALSE about canine hookworms? a. Uncinaria stenocephala is a canine hookworm b. canine hookworms have a worldwide incidence. c. the prepatent period of a canine hookworm is 7 days. d. dogs are infected by the ingestion of 3rd stage larvae. - ANS-C: The prepatent period of a canine hookworm is 7 days

Ancylostoma caninum, unicinaria stenocephala, and ancylostoma brazilinese are canine hookworms. Dogs are infected by ingestion of 3rd stage larvae, larval penetration of the skin, ingestion of a vertebrae with infected tissue, and transmammary transmission. The prepatent period ranges from 13 - 27 days, through nursing puppies can shed eggs in just 10 - 12 days. Canine hookworms are present worldwide. A. caninum is highly pathogenic, and A. brazilinese causes cutaneous larva migrans. Alternaria species, grain mite eggs, and Planarian are all... a. pseudoparasites b. spurious parasites c. parasites of chickens d. parasites of geese - ANS-A: Pseudoparasites Pseudoparasites are mistaken for parasite when found in feces or blood, but are not parasites. Fecal pseudoparasites include Alternaria species, free-living nematodes, grain mite eggs, Planarian, and pollen granules. A spurious parasite is a true parasite in one more species, but not in the one in which it is found. Spurious parasites are found when an animal ingests invertebrates with larval stages of the parasite or the feces of infected animals. Which of the following life cycle is correctly ordered? a. Dirofilaria immitis: mature larvae in the pulmonary arteries and right heart; then microfilaria develop in the blood to L3 stage; then mosquito ingests the L2 larvae and larvae develop to L3 stage; then mosquito transmits infective L3 by bite. b. Taenia spp.: adult worms live in an animal's small intestines; then eggs and posterior segments of adult worms are shed in feces; then eggs are released from segments in feces; then intermediate hosts ingest eggs; then intermediate host tissue is eaten by the animal. c. Toxascaris leonina: larvae mature in the small intestines and adult worms lay eggs; then eggs pass via feces; then eggs embryonate; then eggs undergo three molts; then animals pick up the L5 larvae in the environment. d. Echinococcus granulosus: adult worms in the small intestines lay eggs; then eggs pass in the feces; then larvae develop to the infective L3 stage; then larvae are eaten ad develop adult worms. - ANS-B: Taenia spp. Adult worms live in an animal's intestines; then eggs and posterior segments of adult worms are shed in feces; then eggs are released from segments in feces. then intermediate hosts ingest eggs; then intermediate host tissue is eaten by the animal. When performing a barium study of the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract of a bird, ventral-dorsal and lateral radiographs should be taken at... a. 0, 15, 30, 60, and 20 minutes b. 0, 15, 30, 45, and 60 minutes

c. 0, 30, 60, 120, and 240 minutes d. 30, 60, 90, and 120 minutes - ANS-C: 0, 30, 60, 120, and 240 minutes An upper GI tract barium study may be used to evaluate the cause of regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, and abnormal palpation in a bird, Positive-contrast medium such as barium may also be used to determine organ location. Which is NOT a radiographic view commonly used to evaluate the navicular bone? a. dorsoproximal-palmarodistal view b. tangential coronary view c. lateral-medial view d. flexor tangential view - ANS-B: Tangential Coronary View. The navicular bone of the horse has an articular surface and a flexor surface. The articular surface is the palmar or plantar part of the distal interphalangeal joint. Radiographs of the navicular bone are used for prepurchase examinations, to evaluate navicular disease, evaluate trauma, and determine the extent of the foot abscess and wounds. You would expect to see which of the following radiographic changes in a dog with patent ductus arteriosus?

1. Enlarged L ventricle
2. Enlarged R ventricle
3. Segmental enlargement of the descending aortic arch
4. Enlarge atrium
5. Enhanced pulmonary vascular pattern a. 1, 2, 4, 6 b. 2, 3, 5, 6 c. 3, 5, 6 d. 1, 3, 4, 5 - ANS-D: 1, 3, 4, 5 Patent ductus arteriosus is a condition in which blood vessels, the ductus arteriosus, allows embryotic blood bypass the lungs and do not close at or immediately following birth. Consequently, the abnormal blood flow and pressure causes some pathologic changes in the heart and cardiopulmonary vasculature. Specifically, the descending aortic arch is segmentally enlarged, the LEFT atrium and LEFT ventricle are enlarged, and the pulmonary vascular pattern enhanced. A deficiency in which nutrients is known to cause canine cardiomyopathy? a. taurine and carnitine b. taurine and glycine c. folic acid and carnitine d. calcium and folic acid - ANS-A: Taurine and Carnitine

Canine dilated cardiomyopathy is an acquired cardiovascular disease more likely to occur in breeds such as the Cocker Spaniel, and in large and giant breeds. Research has identified low taurine and carnitine levels in blood of a considerable portion of dogs with dilated cardiomyopathy. Taurine and is amino acid. Carnitine is a derivative of the amino acid lysine. Even in dogs with dilated cardiomyopathy without measurable deficits in carnitine and taurine, patients have improved when given these nutritional supplements. Guinea pigs have an absolute requirement of: a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D - ANS-C: Vitamin A Humans, monkey's, apes, guinea pigs, capybaras, and some bats, birds, and fish cannot manufacture their own vitamin C, and therefore, have an absolute requirement for it. Topical steroids should never be used on the eye when: a. a corneal ulcer is present b. uveitis is present c. a cataract is present d. systemic steroids are also used. - ANS-A: Corneal ulcer is present A corneal ulcer is an erosion throughout the corneal epithelium. Corneal ulcers may be caused by trauma, chemical burns, infection, and disease. For example, keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS/dry eye) dries the cornea and predisposes it to ulceration. Corneal ulcers are treated with antibiotic drops or ointment to prevent infection., atropine drops or ointment to relieve spasm, and, often, surgery to close and protect the eye. Steroids are contraindicated during the initial healing phase of corneal ulceration because steroids inhibit healing of the epithelium and the response to infection. A 40-kg nursing bitch presents with hypocalcemia. She is to be treated with a constant rate infusion (CRI) of 10% calcium gluconate at a rate of 10mg/kg/hr. Calculate the amount of calcium gluconate to be delivered per minute: a. 4 mg/min b. 6.7 mg/min c. 67 mg/min d. 400 mg/min - ANS-B: 6.7 mg/min The female must receive 10 mg/kg/hour. She weighs 40kg. Thus she needs 400 mg calcium gluconate per hour. (10 mg x 40 kg = 400 mg/hour) or 6.7 mg per minute. ( mg/hour / 60 min/hour = 6.67 mg/min). What is true about testing for viral infection?

a. positive viral serology proves active infection. b. to prove active infection, viral serology must be performed twice, two weeks apart, and shows a rising viral titer. c. positive serology that shows a viral antigen load of at least 1:128 is consistent with active infection. d. negative viral serology proves that the animal has not been exposed to, and is not infected with, the virus. - ANS-B: To prove active infection, viral serology must be performed twice, two weeks apart, and shows a rising viral titer. Viral serology tests for the presence of antibodies specific to a given virus. A positive value, the presence of serum antibody to a virus, indicates an animal's exposure to a virus. A single positive value, no matter the quantity of antibody, does not necessarily indicate active infection. To prove active infection, current and convalescent blood samples must be taken and viral serology performed on both. A rising titer of viral antibody confirms active infection. Generally, samples are taken two weeks apart. Negative viral serology does not prove an animal has not been exposed to a virus or is not infected with a virus. The test will be negative in the days prior to the body mounting an antibody response, when the animal is unable to generate a response (usually because of significant immune disease or immunosuppressive medications), or when the animal was exposed to the virus a considerable time ago and no measurable antibodies remain in the serum. A common test to establish the presence of ringworm infection is: a. response to antibiotics b. fecal floatation c. culture on dermatophyte medium d. culture on blood agar - ANS-C: Culture on dermatophyte medium Ringworm is a contagious fungal skin infection. The type of fungi that causes ringworm are dermatophyte, specifically Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton, with Microsporum canis particularly common. Affected animals experience pruritus and alopecia. Crusting, scaling, redness, and hyperpigmentation may exist. A Wood's lamp may be used to check for fluorescent of suspected infected hairs. Fluorescent suggests ringworm infection, but neither the presence nor absence of fluorescent is diagnostic. Definitive diagnosis of ringworm depends on culturing the fungus from plucked hairs. Hairs are placed on dermatophyte test medium and gently pressed into the medium. Results are often seen within days, but up to two weeks are allowed for growth and color change of the medium. The FELINE dental formula - permanent is: a. 2 (3, 1, 3, 1) (3, 1, 2, 1) b. 2 (3, 1, 3) (3, 1, 2) c. 2 (3, 1, 4, 2) (3, 1, 4, 2) d. 2 (3, 1, 4, 3) (3, 1, 4, 3) - ANS-A: 2 (3, 1, 3, 1) (3, 1, 2, 1)

Response B is the FELINE deciduous dental formula. Response C is the CANINE permanent dental formula. Response D is the porcine permanent dental formula. The owner of two cats calls to report that she often finds feces outside the litter box. Which of the following would you recommend? a. allowing cats to go outside. b. medicating the cats for anxiety. c. confining the cast to the bathroom with the litter pans. d. a second litter pan and more frequent cleaning the litter pans. - ANS-D: A second litter pan and more frequent cleaning of the litter pans. When two or more cats are present in the household, the litter pan must be cleaned at least once a day fastidious, and even less fastidious cats, may find the shared litter pan too dirty to use. In this case, one or more of the cats may defecate outside the litter pan, often in close proximity. More frequent cleaning of the litter pan, sometimes more than once a day, or offering multiple litter pans -- at least one per cat -- should solve the problem. The frequencies used for veterinary ultrasound range is: a. 10 - 2 0 MHz b. 25 - 40 MHz c. 0.1 - 2.0 MHz d. 2.25 - 10 MHz - ANS-D: 2.25 to 10 MHz *Veterinary ultrasound frequencies of 2.25 to 10 MHz do not penetrate bone or hair, which reflect waves in this frequency range. Lower frequency sound waves penetrate farther than higher frequency sound waves and are used for deeper structures. Different frequencies are also used for different animals; for example, dogs are usually evaluated with 5.0 to 7.5 MHz. Horse tendons are likely to be elevated to 7.5 MHz. Electrical activity that simulates a heartbeat begins at the: a. bundle of His b. purkinje fibers c. sinoatrial node d. atrioventricular node - ANS-C: Sinoatrial Node

• The sinoatrial node or SA node is the natural pacemaker of the heart with cells that initiate the electrical activity that will spread through the heart. From the SA node, the electrical impulse spreads across the atria to the atrioventricular or AV node. From the AV node, the electrical signal passes to the His bundle, through the R and L bundle branches, to the Purkinje fibers.* SOAP stands for: a. Standard Operating and Assessment Procedure b. Subjective Objective Assessment Plan c. Slim Overweight Anorexic Postanorexic

d. Species Order Animalia Plantae - ANS-B: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan SOAP is an organization plan for patient record keeping. Notes under (S) Subjective includes history and observations. (O) Objective includes factual information including vital statistics, examination notes and laboratory and radiographic data. (A) Assessment includes conclusions based on the Subjective and Objective information as well as differential diagnoses. The (P) Plan includes client education, proposed and planned diagnostic procedures and surgery, and therapies. Which of the following conditions are potential complications of a bovine cesarean section?

1. Retained placenta
2. Dehydration
3. Mastitis
4. Incision complications a. 1, 4 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 2, 3, 4 d. 4 - ANS-C: 1, 2, 3, 4

• A large incision must be made for a bovine cesarean section. Complications at the incision site are not common. Cows should be deliver their placenta within 24 hours. A retained placenta will not pass in that time frame. Bacterial infection of the skin, uterus, and mammaries (mastitis) are risks. Dehydration may occur secondary to fluid loss or inadequate intake.* Under OSHA regulations, a practice's written safety and health program for employees involved in hazardous waste operations must include: a. the safety and health training program, names of all employees, and work schedules. b. name of all employees involved in hazardous waste operations, a medical surveillance program, and contractors who share hazardous waste operations. c. the safety and health training program, a medical surveillance program, and the practice's standard operating procedures for safety and health. d. a comprehensive work plan, employee phone list, and work schedules. - ANS-C: The safety and health training program, medical surveillance program, and the practice's standard operating procedures for safety and health. Personal protective equipment (PPE) for protection against radiation is made from: a. steel b. lead c. bonded flexible plastic d. rubber - ANS-B: Lead

Lead effectively blocks the passage of x-rays and is used to shield bodies during radiographic exposure. PPE for taking radiographs includes lead gloves, lead apron, lead thyroid shield, lead gonad shield, and lead glasses. In regards to radiographic personal protective equipment, veterinary technicians should do all of the following EXCEPT: a. fill lead gloves with water to check for leaks that allow radiation through. b. hang safety equipment. c. wear their own dosimeter whenever taking or assisting with radiographs. d. radiograph PPE to evaluate cracks. - ANS-A: Fill lead gloves with water to check for leaks that allow radiation through. PPE used to ward against radiograph exposure must be worn properly cared for to maintain its protective value. Lead-containing safety equipment should never be folded. Aprons and shields should be hung-up; gloves should be places on a glove rack. Equipment should be examined for damage and periodically radiographed to look for cracks or breaks. One of the most important pieces of protective equipment is not a shield, but a measurement devise - the dosimeter that measures radiation exposure. A personal dosimeter must be worn whenever taking, or assisting with, radiographs. Whenever possible, only the radiographic subjective should be in the radiology room. Patient files are often color- coded to a. identify the age of the patient b. establish the year a patient came to the practice c. prevent visual washout d. make filing errors easily visible - ANS-D: Make filing errors easily visible Patient files are often marked with two or three colored letter labels identifying the first letters or the last name of the client. The colored labels are placed on the outside edge of the file so they are visible when the files is filed away. In this manner, record keepers can visually scan all files and see any file out of place. In some practices, names are replaced with numbers generated by the practice and color-coded numbers are placed on files. Color can be used in other ways in files to provide easily detected visual information. For example, a blue or pink patient information sheet may be used to identify the sex of the patient or a red sticker may be clearly placed on the file to indicate an aggressive animal. Procaine penicillin should NEVER be given in which of the following ways? a. IV b. IM c. SQ d. none of the above - ANS-A: IV Procaine penicillin is a long-acting formulation. Like benzathine-penicillin it may be used in IM or SQ, but NEVER IV.

Canine body temperature exceeding 104F is common with toxic exposure to: a. lilies b. metaldehyde c. foxglove d. rodenticide - ANS-B: Metaldehyde Slug and snail control products, and rat control products, may contain metaldehyde. When ingested, metaldehyde is absorbed in the stomach and intestines and decreases serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA. Neurological signs appear including ataxia and muscle tremors. After ingesting metaldehyde, a dog likely experiences hyperthermia and tachycardia. Symptoms progress to convulsions. Diazepam may be used to reduce excitement and convulsions. Reconstitution vaccines must be used within: a. 1 hour b. 1 day c. 12 hours d. 2 hours - ANS- An animal is prescribed prednisone on the following schedule: "Take 20 mg every morning for 3 days. Take 10 mg every morning for 7 days. Take 5 mg every morning for 7 days. Take 5 mg every other morning for 2 weeks". How many tablets should be dispensed? a. 20 tablets (5 mg) b. 30 tablets (5 mg) c. 20 tablets (10 mg) d. 25 tablets (10 mg) - ANS- A refractometer should be calibrated to 0 every week using: a. control solution b. refract fluid c. deionizing water d. distilled water - ANS- "Walking dandruff" is: a. demodex, diagnosed with a tape preparation b. demodex, diagnosed by skin scraping c. cheyletiella, diagnosed with a tape preparation d. cheyletiella, diagnosed by skin scraping - ANS-