West Coast EMT Block 2 Exam Questions and Answers (Latest 2023 – 2024) Complete Solutions, Exams of Health sciences

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West Coast EMT Block 2 Exam Questions and Answers

(Latest 2023 – 2024) Complete Solutions

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:

Select one:

A. start CPR and transport immediately.

B. begin CPR until an AED is available.

C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.

D. determine if he has a valid living will. - B. begin CPR until an AED is available.

Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:

Select one:

A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.

B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.

D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. - B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

Between each chest compression, you should __________.

Select one:

A. check for a pulse

B. allow full chest recoil

C. administer a breath

D. remove your hands from the chest - B. allow full chest recoil

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:

A. a fractured sternum.

B. gastric distention.

C. rib fractures.

D. liver laceration. - B. gastric distention.

CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?

Select one:

A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart.

B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse.

C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse.

D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness. - D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:

Select one:

A. occurs every 24 months.

B. is delivered by computer.

C. involves hands-on practice.

D. is self-paced and brief. - C. involves hands-on practice.

CPR should be initiated when:

Select one:

A. rigor mortis is obvious.

B. signs of putrefaction are present.

C. the carotid pulse is very weak.

D. a valid living will is unavailable. - D. a valid living will is unavailable.

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:

Select one:

A. supine.

B. prone.

C. horizontal.

D. on a firm surface. - B. prone.

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:

Select one:

a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.

b.

c. in patients who are intubated.

d. when the airway is completely obstructed.

e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. - e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________.

Select one:

A. leave it in place

B. continue chest compressions

C. remove it

D. place the patient on his or her side - C. remove it

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:

Select one:

A. a cardiac dysrhythmia.

B. severe chest trauma.

C. respiratory arrest.

D. a drug overdose. - C. respiratory arrest.

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should:

Select one:

A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.

B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.

C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck.

D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. - D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:

A. grasping the throat.

B. acute cyanosis.

C. inability to speak.

D. forceful coughing. - D. forceful coughing.

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression- decompression CPR by:

Select one:

A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.

C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart.

D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. - A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?

Select one:

A. 30:

B. 5:

C. 30:

D. 3:2 - A. 30:

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:

Select one:

A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.

B. with one or two hands.

C. until a radial pulse is felt.

D. 80 to 100 times per minute. - B. with one or two hands.

While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:

Select one:

A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.

B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.

C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.

D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. - D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.

Without practice, your CPR skills will __________.

Select one:

A. become part of your muscle memory

B. improve over time

C. come back automatically when needed

D. deteriorate over time - D. deteriorate over time

Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:

Select one:

A. place the patient supine.

B. encourage the patient to cough.

C. administer back blows.

D. perform abdominal thrusts. - B. encourage the patient to cough.

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should:

Select one:

A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads.

B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.

C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.

D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. - D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:

Select one:

A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.

B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.

C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. - C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

Select one:

A. contact medical control.

B. notify law enforcement.

C. quickly access the patient.

D. take standard precautions. - D. take standard precautions.

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:

Select one:

A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional.

B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.

C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

D. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. - C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________.

Select one:

A. nature of illness

B. field diagnosis

C. associated symptoms

D. medical history - A. nature of illness

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:

Select one:

A. is a more contagious type of disease.

B. has a greater ability to produce disease.

C. leads to chronic infection after exposure.

D. is less resistant to treatment. - B. has a greater ability to produce disease.

In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of:

Select one:

A. epidemics.

B. parasitic infection.

C. uncontrolled outbreaks.

D. pandemics. - D. pandemics.

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service?

Select one:

A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs

B. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration

C. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away

D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

• D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem.

Select one:

A. endocrine

B. respiratory

C. cardiac

D. neurologic - D. neurologic

Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________.

Select one:

A. a low blood glucose level

B. abdominal pain

C. seizures

D. a fever - D. a fever

Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________.

Select one:

A. reduce the need for transport to the hospital

B. confirm the patient's diagnosis

C. address the patient's symptoms

D. correct the patient's underlying problem - C. address the patient's symptoms

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:

Select one:

A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.

B. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad.

C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

D. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. - C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:

Select one:

A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.

B. after the primary assessment has been completed.

C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.

D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. - B. after the primary assessment has been completed.

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem?

Select one:

A. Baseline vital signs

B. Index of suspicion

C. Medical history

D. Primary assessment - C. Medical history

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:

Select one:

A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient.

B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.

C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. - C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that:

Select one:

A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms.

B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs.

C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. - C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?

Select one:

A. Alzheimer disease

B. Depression

C. Schizophrenia

D. Substance abuse - D. Substance abuse

Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses?

Select one:

A. Whooping cough

B. MRSA

C. H1N

D. Avian flu - B. MRSA

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus?

Select one:

A. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity

B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes

C. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm

D. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension - B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:

Select one:

A. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.

B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

C. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.

D. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. - B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no

other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a:

Select one:

A. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency.

B. medical emergency.

C. trauma emergency.

D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. - D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.

"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________.

Select one:

A. respiratory patients

B. seizure patients

C. stroke patients

D. cardiac patients - A. respiratory patients

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:

Select one:

A. epinephrine.

B. a beta-antagonist.

C. albuterol.

D. an antihistamine. - A. epinephrine.

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-

shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?

Select one:

A. Spontaneous pneumothorax

B. Exacerbation of his COPD

C. Acute pulmonary embolism

D. Rupture of the diaphragm - A. Spontaneous pneumothorax

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:

Select one:

A. fluid accumulation outside the lung.

B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.

C. a unilaterally collapsed lung.

D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. - A. fluid accumulation outside the lung.

Asthma is caused by a response of the:

Select one:

A. immune system.

B. cardiovascular system.

C. endocrine system.

D. respiratory system. - A. immune system.

Crackles (rales) are caused by _________.

Select one:

A. severe bronchoconstriction

B. mucus in the larger airways

C. narrowing of the upper airways

D. air passing through fluid - D. air passing through fluid

His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

Select one:

A. pertussis.

B. epiglottitis.

C. croup.

D. bronchiolitis. - D. bronchiolitis.

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:

Select one:

A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.

B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.

C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

D. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. - C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

Select one:

A. Alveoli

B. Bronchi

C. Trachea

D. Capillaries - A. Alveoli

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?

Select one:

A. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety

B. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia

C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%

D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg - D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:

Select one:

A. abnormal breath sounds.

B. diminished breath sounds.

C. normal breath sounds.

D. an absence of breath sounds. - A. abnormal breath sounds.

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?

Select one:

A. Pleural effusion

B. Severe anxiety

C. Pulmonary edema

D. Narcotic overdose - B. Severe anxiety

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections?

Select one:

A. Multiple sclerosis

B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome

C. Cystic fibrosis

D. Celiac sprue - C. Cystic fibrosis

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?

Select one:

A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis

B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor

C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin - C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient?

Select one:

A. Orthostatic vital signs

B. Lung sounds

C. Blood glucose levels

D. Distal pulse, motor, sensation - B. Lung sounds

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?

Select one:

A. Aspiration pneumonia

B. Widespread atelectasis

C. Early pulmonary edema

D. Acute asthma attack - A. Aspiration pneumonia

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should:

Select one:

A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption.

B. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.

C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition. - C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from:

Select one:

A. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.

B. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

C. inflammation of the bronchioles.

D. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm. - B. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

Select one:

A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

B. tuberculosis.

C. pneumonia.

D. influenza Type A. - B. tuberculosis.

Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________.

Select one:

A. alternate drive

B. CO2 drive

C. hypoxic drive

D. COPD drive - C. hypoxic drive

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:

Select one:

A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.

B. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.

C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.

D. assess the adequacy of his respirations. - D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:

Select one:

A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.

B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.

D. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. - B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:

Select one:

A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.

B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.

C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. - C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should:

Select one:

A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate.

B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

C. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest.

D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place. - B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?

Select one:

A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm

B. Acute myocardial infarction

C. Uncontrolled hypertension

D. Obstructive lung disease - B. Acute myocardial infarction

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because:

Select one:

A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.

B. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.

C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

D. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. - C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should:

Select one:

A. transport the patient at once.

B. assess for a carotid pulse.

C. immediately resume CPR.

D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm. - C. immediately resume CPR.

Angina pectoris occurs when:

Select one:

A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.

C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.

D. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. - A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:

Select one:

A. left ventricle.

B. right atrium.

C. right ventricle.

D. left atrium. - B. right atrium.

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the:

Select one:

A. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.

B. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.

C. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver.

D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity. - D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients:

Select one:

A. who have taken up to two doses.

B. who have experienced a head injury.

C. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

D. with a history of an ischemic stroke. - B. who have experienced a head injury.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should:

Select one:

A. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.

B. contact medical control.

C. dry the chest if it is wet.

D. perform CPR for 30 seconds. - C. dry the chest if it is wet.

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include:

Select one:

A. family history.

B. lack of exercise.

C. hyperglycemia.

D. excess stress. - A. family history.

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who:

Select one:

A. are older than 40 years of age.

B. regularly take illegal drugs.

C. have chronic hypertension.

D. have had a stroke in the past. - C. have chronic hypertension.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:

Select one:

A. atrioventricular node.

B. bundle of His.

C. sinoatrial node.

D. coronary sinus. - C. sinoatrial node.

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if:

Select one:

A. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.

B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest.

C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

D. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. - C. pediatric pads and an energy- reducing device are available.

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed:

Select one:

A. anywhere on the arms.

B. on either side of the chest.

C. on the thighs or ankles.

D. on the lower abdomen. - C. on the thighs or ankles.

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?

Select one:

A. Generalized weakness

B. A rapid heart rate

C. Syncope or dizziness

D. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min - B. A rapid heart rate

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?

Select one:

A. Labored breathing

B. Dependent edema

C. Pulmonary edema

D. Flat jugular veins - B. Dependent edema

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should:

Select one:

A. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.

B. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders.

C. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. - D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:

Select one:

A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.

B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

C. apply pressure to the brachial artery.

D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages. - B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival?

Select one:

A. High-flow oxygen administration

B. Rapid transport to a trauma center

C. Full immobilization of her spine

D. Intravenous fluid administration - B. Rapid transport to a trauma center

As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be?

Select one:

A. Check for a pulse.

B. Control the bleeding.