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WEST COAST EMT BLOCK II ACTUAL EXAM 2024/2025 NEWEST EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED AWEST COAST EMT BLOCK II ACTUAL EXAM 2024/2025 NEWEST EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED AWEST COAST EMT BLOCK II ACTUAL EXAM 2024/2025 NEWEST EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED AWEST COAST EMT BLOCK II ACTUAL EXAM 2024/2025 NEWEST EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED AWEST COAST EMT BLOCK II ACTUAL EXAM 2024/2025 NEWEST EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A
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A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the __________forearm. Select one: A. superior B. distal C. proximal D. dorsal B. distal A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: Select one: A. is excessively thirsty. B. is unable to swallow. C. urinates frequently. D. has low blood sugar. A. is excessively thirsty. A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: Select one: A. distal forearm fracture. B. proximal elbow fracture. C. proximal humerus fracture. D. distal humerus fracture. D. distal humerus fracture. A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: Select one:
A. medial. B. proximal. C. bilateral. D. unilateral. C. bilateral. A patient in a semi-reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the _______ position. Select one: A. recovery B. supine C. prone D. Fowler D. Fowler A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that: Select one: A. only one side of his chest rises when he inhales. B. both of his lungs are expanding when he inhales. C. his chest and his abdomen are moving in opposite directions. D. both sides of his chest are moving minimally. A. only one side of his chest rises when he inhales. A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that: Select one: A. her unborn baby is very large. B. her respiratory rate is rapid. C. she has excessive vomiting. D. she has frequent urination. C. she has excessive vomiting. A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury?
Select one: A. Palmar B. Dorsal C. Ventral D. Plantar D. Plantar After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hemolysis. B. hemostasis. C. hemiplegia. D. hematemesis. B. hemostasis. An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? Select one: A. Recumbent B. Dorsal C. Prone D. Supine C. Prone Enlargement of the liver is called: Select one: A. hydrocephalus. B. hepatomegaly. C. pneumonitis. D. nephritis. B. hepatomegaly.
In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. inferior. B. ventral. C. anterior. D. posterior. D. posterior. In relation to the wrist, the elbow is: Select one: A. medial. B. lateral. C. distal. D. proximal. D. proximal Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called: Select one: A. flexion. B. adduction. C. extension. D. abduction. D. abduction. The______of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles. Select one: A. base B. septum C. dorsum D. apex D. apex
The term "pericardiocentesis" means: Select one: A. surgical repair of the sac around the heart. B. the removal of fluid from around the heart. C. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart. D. a surgical opening made in the heart. B. the removal of fluid from around the heart. The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means: Select one: A. a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. B. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. C. a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. D. a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. B. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: Select one: A. medial. B. midclavicular. C. lateral. D. midaxillary. A. medial. The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is: Select one: A. superior. B. internal. C. inferior. D. dorsal. C. inferior.
Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"? Select one: A. Palmar B. Anterior C. Medial D. Posterior D. Posterior All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain? Select one: A. Gray matter B. Brainstem C. Cerebellum D. Cerebrum B. Brainstem As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: Select one: A. bronchi. B. capillaries. C. pleura. D. alveoli. D. alveoli. Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that: Select one: A. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange. B. receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide. C. includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli. D. must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place. A. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange.
Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: Select one: A. acetylcholine and insulin. B. norepinephrine and acetylcholine. C. epinephrine and norepinephrine. D. glucagon and noradrenaline. C. epinephrine and norepinephrine. Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: Select one: A. osmosis. B. breathing. C. ventilation. D. diffusion. D. diffusion. Skeletal muscle is also called: Select one: A. smooth muscle. B. involuntary muscle. C. voluntary muscle. D. autonomic muscle. C. voluntary muscle. The axial skeleton is composed of the: Select one: A. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column. B. arms, legs, and pelvis. C. lower part of the torso and the legs. D. bones that constitute the pelvic girdle. A. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column.
The carpal bones form the: Select one: A. foot. B. wrist. C. ankle. D. hand. B. wrist. The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. brain and sensory nerves. B. spinal cord and sensory nerves. C. brain and spinal cord. D. motor and sensory nerves. C. brain and spinal cord. The elbow is an example of a______ joint. Select one: A. gliding B. hinge C. saddle D. ball-and-socket B. hinge The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: Select one: A. Purkinje fibers. B. atrioventricular node. C. bundle of His. D. sinoatrial node. D. sinoatrial node.
The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: Select one: A. venules. B. arterioles. C. arteries. D. capillaries. D. capillaries. The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: Select one: A. pulmonary arteries. B. inferior venae cavae. C. pulmonary veins. D. superior venae cavae. C. pulmonary veins. The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A. sacrum. В. соссух. C. ilium. D. ischium. В. соссух. The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: Select one: A. myocardium. B. epicardium. C. pericardium. D. endocardium. A. myocardium.
The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ______ anatomic structures. Select one: A. midaxillary B. superior C. proximal D. midline D. midline Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? Select one: A. Thyroid B. Pituitary C. Adrenal D. Parathyroid B. Pituitary Which of the following is not a facial bone? Select one: A. Mandible B. Mastoid C. Maxilla D. Zygoma B. Mastoid Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Ascending aorta B. Gallbladder C. Kidneys D. Spleen C. Kidneys
White blood cells, which are also called leukocytes, function by: Select one: A. producing the body's erythrocytes. B. producing blood-clotting factors. C. protecting the body from infection. D. carrying oxygen and other nutrients. C. protecting the body from infection. A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. C. wrap the towel with pressure bandages. D. apply pressure to the brachial artery. B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: Select one: A. pump failure. B. septic shock. C. decompensated shock. D. a local infection. B. septic shock. All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT: Select one: A. ischemic stroke. B. anaphylaxis. C. severe infection. D. spinal injury.
A. ischemic stroke. Capillary sphincters are: Select one: A. under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous system. B. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries. C. responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell perfusion. D. capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body organs. B. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. increased afterload. B. increased preload. C. poor contractility. D. heart attack. B. increased preload Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. restlessness or anxiety. B. absent peripheral pulses. C. cool and clammy skin. D. rapid, shallow breathing. B. absent peripheral pulses. Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: A. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. B. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. C. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. red blood cells. B. platelets. C. whole blood. D. plasma. D. plasma. In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: Select one: A. diaphoresis. B. tachycardia. C. hypovolemia. D. hypothermia. D. hypothermia. Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. B. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. C. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. D. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is: Select one: A. carbon monoxide. B. carbon dioxide. C. lactic acid. D. pyruvic acid. B. carbon dioxide.
Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: Select one: A. anaphylactic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. septic shock. D. neurogenic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. Shock is the result of: Select one: A. temporary dysfunction of a major organ. B. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. D. widespread constriction of the blood vessels. C. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: Select one: A. the brain. B. the heart. C. the lungs. D. the skin. D. the skin. Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? Select one: A. Pallor B. Dizziness C. Wheezing D. Hypotension C. Wheezing
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Spinal cord injury C. Liver laceration D. Simple pneumothorax A. Cardiac tamponade Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: A. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask B. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids C. Early administration of high-flow oxygen D. Decompression of the injured side of the chest D. Decompression of the injured side of the chest Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? Select one: A. A 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia B. A 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg C. A 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations D. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils D. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? Select one: A. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. B. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. C. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. D. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. D. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.
Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock? Select one: A. Excessive sweating B. Repeated diarrhea C. Liver laceration D. Severe vomiting C. Liver laceration A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. B. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand. D. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by: Select one: A. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle. B. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature. C. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate. D. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting. A. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: A. left ventricle. B. right atrium. C. right ventricle. D. left atrium. B. right atrium. In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: Select one: A. causes an increase in the heart rate. B. slows the heart and respiratory rates. C. prepares the body to handle stress. D. dilates the blood vessels in the muscles. B. slows the heart and respiratory rates. Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to_______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS. Select one: A. three B. two C. five D. four A. three Narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by a buildup of fatty deposits is called: Select one: A. angina pectoris. B. atherosclerosis. C. arteriosclerosis. D. acute ischemia. B. atherosclerosis.
Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. dry the chest if it is wet. B. perform CPR for 30 seconds. C. contact medical control. D. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds. A. dry the chest if it is wet. The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because: Select one: A. its use does not require the presence of advanced life support personnel. B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation. C. it is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT who is using it. D. it delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy. B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation. The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: A. bundle of His. B. sinoatrial node. C. atrioventricular node. D. coronary sinus. B. sinoatrial node. The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the: Select one: A. anterior tibial arteries. B. femoral arteries. C. posterior tibial arteries. D. peroneal arteries. B. femoral arteries.
The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: Select one: A. are in denial. B. cannot afford it. C. are elderly. D. do not trust EMTs. A. are in denial. The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: Select one: A. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. B. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium. C. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. D. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle. C. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. assess the scene for potential hazards. B. determine if you need additional help. C. gain immediate access to the patient. D. request a paramedic unit for assistance. A. assess the scene for potential hazards. When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should: Select one: A. document his or her own perception. B. underline the patient's quotes. C. use medical terminology. D. use the patient's own words. D. use the patient's own words.
When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the LL and RL electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. on either side of the chest. B. on the lower abdomen. C. on the thighs or ankles. D. anywhere on the arms. C. on the thighs or ankles. Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood? Select one: A. Pulmonary arteries B. Superior vena cava C. Pulmonary veins D. Inferior vena cava C. Pulmonary veins Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger? Select one: A. Furosemide (Lasix) B. Oxygen C. Metoprolol (Toprol) D. Aspirin D. Aspirin Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: A. Labored breathing B. Flat jugular veins C. Pulmonary edema D. Dependent edema D. Dependent edema
Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? Select one: A. A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient. B. Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum. C. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes. D. The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light. C. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes. Age-related changes in the renal system result in: Select one: A. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body. B. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%. C. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function. D. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. D. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: Select one: A. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. B. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse. C. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. D. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. C. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? Select one: A. 10 to 18 months B. 24 to 36 months
C. 18 to 24 months D. 6 to 8 months A. 10 to 18 months Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the: Select one: A. overall size of the airway decreases. B. surface area of the alveoli increases. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge. D. elasticity of the lungs decreases. D. elasticity of the lungs decreases. Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except: Select one: A. decreased residual volume. B. a loss of respiratory muscle mass. C. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage. D. increased surface area available for air exchange. D. increased surface area available for air exchange. In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child: Select one: A. reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net. B. clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted. C. becomes acutely anxious in the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings. D. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection. D. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection. In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child: Select one: A. reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net. B. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.
C. becomes acutely anxious in the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings. D. clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted. B. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection. In preconventional reasoning, children: Select one: A. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children. B. look for approval from their peers and society. C. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. D. make decisions based on their conscience. C. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 40 years of age is typically: Select one: A. 70 beats/min. B. 90 beats/min. C. 80 beats/min. D. 60 beats/min. A. 70 beats/min. The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 19 and 25 years. B. 18 and 22 years. C. 21 and 30 years. D. 25 and 35 years. A. 19 and 25 years. The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately: Select one: A. 70 to 120 beats/min. B. 100 to 150 beats/min.
C. 60 to 100 beats/min. D. 90 to 140 beats/min. A. 70 to 120 beats/min. Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? Select one: A. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions B. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up C. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance D. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently B. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults? Select one: A. An infant's head accounts for less body weight than an adult's head. B. An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's tongue. C. The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult's trachea. D. The rib cage of an infant is less flexible than an adult's rib cage. B. An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's tongue. Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? Select one: A. Overall health B. Increased weight C. Medications D. Medical conditions B. Increased weight Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct? Select one: •A. The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly. B. Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of
neurons. C. Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age. D. Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person's level of B. Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons. Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? Select one: A. An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min. B. By six months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg. C. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's normal body temperature. D. An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month. C. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's normal body temperature. Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct? Select one: