WITS Nursing Practice Exam Questions with Complete Answers 100% 2023-2024, Exams of Nursing

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WITS Nursing Practice Exam Questions with

Complete Answers 100% 2023-

1. During the initial consultation with a client you discover they regularly smoke. This type of risk factor falls into which category? (p. 5) A) Inherited B) Environmental Behavioral D) Biological: Behavioral
2. When discussing the FITT principle, how often an activity is done refers to: (p. 6) A)Frequency B)Intensity C)Time D) Type: Frequency
3. The degree of effort required to expend energy and is influenced by cardiorespiratory fitness (CRF) or maximal aerobic power is: (p.6) A)Absolute intensity B)Relative intensity C)Moderate intensity D) Vigorous intensity: Relative intensity
4. You are establishing a strength training routine for your new client according to the ACSM/AHA guidelines. What would you recommend? (p. 10) A)Perform 3-4 exercises for the major muscle groups

B)Select a resistance that produces muscular fatigue after 5-7 repetitions C)4-5 sets are needed to be sufficient D) Participate in resistance training activities at least two non-consecutive days per week: Participate in resistance training activities at least two non-consecutive days per week

5. According to current ACSM/AHA physical activity guidelines when designing a program for your client you should encourage them to perform: (p.9) A)30 minutes of moderate-intensity activity 5 days per week B)30 minutes of vigorous activity 2 days per week C)20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity 4 days per week D) 10 minutes of vigorous activity 3 days per week: 30 minutes of moderate- intensity activity 5 days per week
6. Muscular strength and endurance, CRF, flexibility and body composition refers to: (p.6) A)Health related fitness B)Skill related fitness C)Physical fitness D) Exercise fitness: Health related fitness
7. What is the leading cause of death in the USA? (p. 5) A)Cancers B)Heart disease C)Strokes D) Accidents: Heart disease

8. Health, fitness, and performance are three distinct goals with separate activity recommendations. You are establishing goals for your client who falls into the performance category. How many days a week should they train? (p.4) A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7:9. Fitness programming that uses a variety of exercises to simulate routine tasks refers to: (p.13) A) Muscular fitness 7 B)Isometric training C)Functional fitness D) Functional capacity: Functional fitness
9. While there are many benefits of physical activity there is also a potential for adverse outcomes as well. Your client participates in a contact sport. This falls into which category of risk? (p.11) A)Environment B)Personal factors C)Equipment D) Type of activity: Type of activity
10. You are designing a strength-training workout for you client. How many exercises for the major muscle groups does ASCM/AHA recomment? A)8-10 exercises for the major muscle groups B)3-5 exercises for the major muscle groups C)2-4 exercises for the major muscle groups

D) 5-7 exercises for the major muscle groups: 8-10 exercises for the major muscle groups

12. ACSM/AHA recommends how many repetitions to maximize strength development when using resistance?

WITS Practice Exam A)4-6 repetitions B)8-12 repetitions C)13-15 repetitions D) 16-20 repetitions: 8-12 repetitions

13. Your client answers "Yes" to one of the seven questions on the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire for Everyone. What is the next step? A)They must be referred to a physician before participating in physical activity B)They are ready to be gin physical activity C)They must complete 10 additional questions D) They are ready to begin a moderate physical activity program: They must complete 10 additional questions
14. Your client is a 49- year-old female who quit smoking 5 months ago and has a waist measurement of 30 inches. Which factor puts her at risk for cardiovascular disease? A)Age B)Gender C)Waist measurement D) Quit smoking for 5 months: Quit smoking for 5 months
15. MR. PLEASE is an acronym used for the recommended health risk appraisal categories. The "S" in the acronym is when the personal fitness trainer: A)Sets up an exercise prescription B)Seeks the clients medical history C)Starts fitness tests D) Seeks medical clearance: Sets up an exercise prescription

16. Upon reviewing your potential clients health history you find the he has been taking medicine for high cholesterol but did not indicate he had high cholesterol. He states because of the medication he does not have high cholesterol. What is the next step? A) Ask him to obtain medical clearance B)Have him redo the HSQ C)Note that he has a risk factor of high cholesterol D) Have him redo the PAR-Q+: Note that he has a risk factor of high cholesterol
17. The HIPPA act of 1996 allows for which of the following? A)Ability to discuss private health information over the phone in a public area B)Ability to share clients information with other clients C)protection of trainers from lawsuits D) Protection of clients' privacy and rights: Protection of clients' privacy and rights
18. Your potential clients has indicated they are current regular exercisers and have signs indicative of renal disease. What is the next step? A)Require medical clearance B)Administer fitness assessments C)Setup exercise prescription D) Let them continue with their current exercise routine: Require medical clearance
19. According to the Risk Factor Stratification an asymptomatic female with e 2 risk factors falls into which category? A)No risk B)Low risk C)Moderate risk D) High risk: Moderate risk
20. The results of your clients fitness test should be compared with:

A)Normative data based on clients age and gender B)Normative data based on clients height and weight C)Normative data based on clients age and weight D) Normative data based on clients gender and height: Normative data based on clients age and gender

21. ACSM/AHA recommends preactivity screening of participants prior to exercise because it" A)Helps you decide if you want them as a client B)Provides a forum for building rapport and trust C)Allows the client to view what the gym has to offer D) Helps the client decide if they need an exercise routine: Provides a forum for building rapport and trust
22. Your potential client refuses to fill out the PAR-Q+ or the HSQ. What is your next course of action? A)Tell them you will be unable to be their trainer B)Inform them of the benefits of screening C)Offer them a modified exercise program they can do on their ownD) Seek out the advice of a lawyer: Inform them the benefits of screening
23. Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? A)Men e 35 B)Women d 55 C)BMI e 30 D) Hypertension e 130/80: BMI e 30
24. The first step in evaluating health status using MR. PLEASE is to determine if the individual is currently participating in regular exercise. What constitutes regular exercise? A)At least 30 minutes a day for 3 or more days a week

B)Intensity of 25-30% of VO2R C)Any type of exercise for the past 2 months D) Cardiovascular exercise for 20 minutes a day at least twice a week: At least 30 minutes a day for 3 or more days a week

25. Your exercise prescription for your client involves oblique twists. Which anatomical plane do these occur in? A)Frontal B)Transverse C)Sagittal D) Coronal: Transverse
26. How many bones are in the human body? A) 150 B) 200 C) 250 D) 300: 200
27. Your client has broken a short bone. Which bone have they broken? A) Ankle B)Vertebrae C)Scapulae D) Rib: Ankle
28. The periosteum is a fibrous membrane that covers the entire long bone. It serves as: A)Attachment for muscles B)Articulation with the other bones C)Provides strength for bones D) Provides smooth movement: Attachment for muscles

29. The replacement of cartilage by bones which occurs during growth and maturation is: A) Osteosarcoma B)Osteoporosis C)Osteocvte D) Ossification: Ossification
30. What is the shaft of a bone known as? A)Metaphysis B)Periosteum C)Diaphysis D) Epiphysis: Diaphysis
31. The end of a long bone is referred to as the: A)Metaphysis B)Periosteum C)Diaphysis D) Epiphysis: Epiphysis
32. The axis that is perpendicular to the transverse plane is the: A)Longitudinal B)Anteroposterior C)Mediolateral D) Sagittal: Longitudinal
33. Which terms refers to the movement of a bone around its longitudinal axis toward the midline of the body in the anatomical position? A)External rotation B)Flexion

C)Extension D) Internal rotation: Internal rotation

34. Your client is asked to get in the anatomical position for an exercise. Which of the following is correct? A)Stand with arms at sides and palms facing backwards B)Stand with arms at sides and palms facing forwards C)stand with arms crossed at chest height D) Stand with arms clasped behind the back: Stand with arms at sides and palms facing forward
35. Which type of joint has minimal sliding movement between the bones? A) Gliding B)Hinge C)Pivot D) Ball and socket: Gliding
36. Your client is performing a bicep curl. What joint movement are they performing? A)Extension B)Flexion C)Abduction D) Internal roatation: Flexion
37. The joint movement that requires the client to lift the inner edge of their foot with their big toe elevated is known as: A)Dorsiflexion B)Eversion C)Inversion D) Plantar flexion: Inversion

38. The action that requires the muscle to overcome the force of gravity is: A) Isotonic B)Concentric C)Eccentric D) Ballistic: Concentric
39. Your client is performing a stranding hamstring curl. Which muscle is the antagonist? A) Hamstring B)Gastrocnemius C)Quadriceps D) Soleus: Quadriceps
40. Which of the following terms refers to stimulation of one or more motor units to produce movement? A)Recruitment B)Torque C)Stability D) Motor neuron: Recruitment
41. Your client displays the ability to maintain a balanced position after a disruption of their equilibrium. This is called: A)Torque B)Rotational inertia C)Angular momentum D) Stability: Stability
42. To avoid straining the knee ligaments what is the maximum squat depth that is recommended? A)30° B)45°

C)60°

D) 90°: 90°

43. Abduction and adduction occur around which axis? A)Longitudinal B)Anteroposterior C)Mediolateral D) Transverse: Anteroposterior
44. Which term refers to immovable joints? A)Synarthrodial B)Amphiarthrodial C)Diarthrodial D) Syndesmosis: Synarthrodial
45. Which term refers to a band of tough inelastic fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone? A)Fascicles B)Epimysium C)Perimysium D) Tendon: Tendon
46. The anaerobic energy system: A)Is used to produce energy for short term and high intensity activities and requires oxygen B)Is fueled by proteins and fats C)Is used to produce energy for short term and high intensity activities and requires no oxygen

D) Is used as the predominant energy pathway in endurance activities: Is used to produce energy for short term and high intensity activities and requires no oxygen

47. Cells use which of the following as the primary energy source for biological work? A)Oxygen B)Adenosine triphosphate C)Lactic acid D) Adenosine diphosphate: Adenosine triphosphate
48. Which of the following refers to the fundamental units of muscle contraction? A)Muscle fiber B)Myofibrils C)MItochondria D) Sarcomere: Sarcomere
49. How long can phosphocreatine last for during all out activity? A)1-2 seconds B)3-5 seconds C)6-10 seconds D) 20 seconds: 3-5 seconds
50. According to the sliding filament theory which filaments are the ones that slide pulling the Z lines? A)Actin B)Myosin C)Myofibril D) Sarcomere: Actin
51. Type I fibers are:

A)Fast and resist fatigue B)Slow and resist fatigue C)Fast and easily fatigue D) Slow and easily fatigue: Slow and resist fatigue

52. Oxygen Consumption (V02) during exercise is measured by which of the following equations? A)VO2 = volume VCO2 exhaled - volume O2 inhaled B)VO2 = volume VCO2 inhaled - volume O2 exhaled C)VO2 = volume O2 exhaled - volume O2 inhaled D) VO2 = volume O2 inhaled - volume O2 exhaled: VO2 = volume O2 inhaled - volume O2 exhaled
53. The greatest amount of oxygen the body can take in and utilize during exercise is: A)VO2 max B)Stroke volume C)Cardiac output D) Cardio endurance: VO2 max
54. The body loses heat by four different processes. Which of the following term refers to the process where a person sits on a cold marble bench and loses body heat? A) Convection B)Conduction C)Radiation D) Evaporation: Conduction
55. Which of the following is true regarding systolic blood pressure? A)Stays constant during endurance exercise B)Decreases during endurance exercise

C)Initially goes up during endurance exercise but can have an effect of decreasing over time D) Initially goes down during endurance exercise but can have an effect of increasing over time: Initially goes up during endurance exercise but can have an effect of decreasing over time

56. Which types of exercises elicit high blood pressure responses in the body? A)Endurance and heavy resistance exercises B)Isometric and heavy resistance exercises C)Isometric and endurance exercises D) Endurance and isotonic exercises: Isometric and heavy resistance exercises
57. Which of the following is true regarding phosphocreatine? A)Forms the core of myosin B)Is the molecule to trigger contractions C)Is part of the reaction that forms actomyosin D) Reacts with ADP to form ATP: Reacts with ADP to form ATP
58. The Point during a GXT at which the blood lactate concentration suddenly increases is known as: A) Ventilatory threshold B)Aerobic threshold C)Lactate threshold D) Cardio threshold: Lactate threshold
59. Which of the following is true about a high carbohydrate diet? A)Maximizes muscle glycogen and extends the time to exhaustion B)Minimizes muscle glycogen and extends the time to exhaustion C)Maximizes muscle glycogen and decreases the time to exhaustion

D) Minimizes muscle glycogen and decreases the time to exhaustion: Maximizes muscle glycogen and extends the time to exhaustion

60. Which of the following are considered to be the primary fuels for exercise? A)Carbohydrate and fat B)Protein and Carbohydrate C)Fat and protein D) Carbohydrate, fat, and protein: Carbohydrate and fat
61. Which of the following refers to the volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat? A)End- diastolic volume B)Stroke volume C)Ejection fraction D) Ventilatory threshold: Stroke volume
62. Which is the primary heat loss mechanism during exercise? A)Evaporation B)Conduction C)Convection D) Radiation: Evaporation
63. When discussing macro nutrients with your client what percentage should you suggest for carbohydrate intake? A)20-35% B)10-35% C)45-65% D) 30-45%: 45-65%
64. Which macronutrient contributes to the formation of cell membranes? A) Protein

B)Carbohydrate C)Water D) Fat: Fat

65. This type of fat comes primarily from animal sources? A)Trans fat B)Saturated fat C)Polyunsaturated fat D) Monounsaturated fat: Saturated fat
66. Which macro nutrient is composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen? A)Fat B)Carbohydrate C)Protein D) Iron: Protein
67. Your client is an endurance athlete how much protein intake should you suggest? A)1.2 -1.4g per kg of body weight B)1.5 - 2.0g per kg of body weight C)1.0 -1.2g per kg of body weight D) 2.0 - 2.5g per kg of body weight: 1.2 -1.4g per kg of body weight
68. Which mineral if under consumed can lead to anemia? A)Sodium B)Iron C)Calcium D) Folic acid: Iron
69. Which term refers to athlete maximizing glycogen storage before a competition?

A)Carbohydrate loading B)Athlete Triad C)Ergogenic aiding D) Fluid replacement: Carbohydrate loading

70. Your client is a 34 year old female. She has been working with you for over a year and swims competitively. You suspect she may be suffering from the female athlete triad. What does this consist of? A) Over training, lack of sleep and amenorrhea B) Lack of menstrual period, anemic, and binge eating C)Osteoporosis, lack of sleeping and over training. D) Osteoporosis, disordered eating and amenorrhea: Osteoporosis, disordered eating, and amenorrhea
71. Which term is used in nutrition to indicate that the nutrient cannot be manufactured by the body and must be ingested daily? A)Complete B)Essential C)Necessary D) Whole: Essential
72. Carbohydrates can be divided into which three categories? A)Monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides B)Lactose, sucrose and fructose C)Disaccarides, monosaccharides and triglycerides D) Glucose, fructose and surcrose: Monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides
73. When discussing the dietary guidelines with your clients what should you recommend in terms of sodium intake per day?

A)Less than 1200 mg per day B)Less than 1500 mg per day C)Less than 2000 mg per day D) Less than 2300 mg per day: Less than 2300 mg per day

74. The intake of which type of fatty acid should be as low as possible due to their link with negative health outcomes? A)Monounsaturated B)Trans fat C)Polyunsaturated D) Saturated: Trans fat
75. Which of the following groups of vitamins are fat- soluble? A) A, C, E and, K B) A, B, and K C)A, D, E, and K D) B and C: A, D, E, and K
76. Water makes up what percentage of body weight? A)20% B)40% C)60% D) 80%: 60%
77. What does the body use calcium for? A)Make hemoglobin B)Regulate body temperature C)Catalyze reactions D) Cardiac and skeletal muscle function: Cardiac and skeletal muscle function

78. Which term refers to the primary storage form of fat in the body? A)Triglycerides B)Phospholipids C)Lipoproteins D) Trans fat: Triglycerides
79. How many grams of carbohydrates should an athlete who trains heavily consume? A)5-7 g per kilogram of body weight B)6-10 g per kilogram of body weight C)12-15 g per kilogram of body weight D) 20-25 g per kilogram of body weight: 6-10 g per kilogram of body weight
80. Your client is a competitive athlete. What is your recommendation for hydration prior to competition? A)At least 4 hours B)At least 6 hours C)At least 2 hours D) At least 3 hours: At least 4 hours
81. The number of calories expended to maintain the body during resting conditions is known as: A) Thermic effect B)Daily caloric need C)Resting metabolic rate D) Negative calorie balance: Resting metabolic rate
82. Your client believes in a false theory known as spot reduction. You know this because she: A)Only exercises using free weights

B)Only exercises her inner thighs hoping to lose fat faster there than the rest of her body C)Only uses the treadmill D) Only takes a yoga class: Only exercises her inner thighs hoping to lose fat faster there than the rest of her body

83. You find out that your client has been consuming large amounts of food followed by purging. This is know as: A)Bulimia Nervosa B)Anorexia Nervosa C)Binge-eating D) Amenorrhea: Bulimia Nervosa
84. Your client has a goal of gaining weight. What is your recommendation? A)Increase caloric intake by 1500-2000 kcal/day B)No increase in calories however increase resistance training C)Increase caloric intake by 200-1000 kcal/day D) Decrease in caloric intake and increase resistance training: Increase caloric intake by 200-1000 kcal/day
85. Your client has a goal of losing weight. What should your recommendation be? A) Target loss of 1-2 lbs per week and limit fat intake to less than 30% of total calories B) Target loss of 1-2 lbs per week and limit fat intake to less than 20% of total calories C) Target loss of 3-5 lbs per week and limit fat intake to less than 30% of total calories D) Target loss of 3-5 lbs per week and limit fat intake to less than 20% of total calories: Target loss of 1-2 lbs per week and limit fat intake to less than 30% of total calories
86. Which of the following is a successful strategy for weight loss? A)Wraps

B)Electrical muscle stimulators C)Saunas D) Food logs: Food logs

87. Which term refers to the energy needed to digest, absorb, transport and store food that is eaten? A) Thermic Effect B)Daily caloric need C)Resting metabolic rate D) Negative calorie balance: Thermic effect
88. The gradual accumulation of fat is known as: A)BMI B)Creeping obesity C)Obesity D) Over weight: Creeping obesity
89. Which statement is true of resting metabolic rate (RMR)? A)RMR increases with age B)RMR is 20-30% of the daily caloric need C)RMR is not sex specific D) RMR is proportional to body size: RMR is proportional to body size
90. What is the percentage of adults classified as obese in the US? A)15.4% B)26.8% C)34.9% D) 45.9%: 34.9%
91. Which term refers to when less energy is consumed than expended?

A)Negative caloric balance B)Thermic effect C)Daily caloric need D) Resting metabolic rate: Negative caloric balance

92. Which term refers to how much of an effect results from a change in dose? A)Slope B)Maximal effect C)Potency D) Variability: Slope
93. Your client notices that after working out with you their gains are made continuously over time. This is known as a/an: A)Acute response B)Rapid response C)Linear response D) Delayed response: Linear response
94. Target heart rate relates to which part of the FITT principle? A) Intensity B)Type C)Time D) Frequency: Intensity
95. Aerobic versus Anaerobic relates to which part of the FITT principle? A) Time B)Type C)Frequency D) Intensity: Type

96. A variety of physiological responses occur when an individual begins an exercise program. Which two physiological responses are most immediate? A)Blood pressure and insulin sensitivity B)VO2 max and resting heart rate C)Serum lipid changes and increases in HDL D) Resting heart rate and decreases in HDL: Blood pressure and insulin sensitivity
97. How is the percentage of heart rate reserve (HRR) calculated? A)Add resting HR to maximal HR B)Subtract THR from maximal HR C)Add THR to maximal HR D) Subtract resting HR from maximal HR: Subtract resting HR from maximal HR
98. When determining your clients target heart rate. Which is considered the most direct method? A)HRR method B)% HR max method C)Maximal GXT method D) Rate of perceived exertion method: Maximal GXT method
99. Your client is a 46 year old typical healthy male. What is the optimal intensity threshold? A) 75-90% of HR Max B)60-80% of HR Max C)75-90% of VO2 Max D) 60-80% of RHR: 75-90% of HR Max
100. What can the rate of perceived exertion (RPE) can be as? A)Indicator of duration B)Indicator of intensity

C)Indicator of type D) Indicator of frequency: Indicator of intensity

101. The Tanaka formula for maximal heart rate (MHR) is: A)HR = 220 - Age B)HR = 208 x 8 C)HR = 207 - (0.8 x Age) D) HR = 208 - (0.7 x Age): HR = 208 - (0.7 x Age)
102. Your client is travelling and has to spend 2 weeks training in a high altitude location. In order for them to stay within their THR range what is your recommendation? A)They decrease the intensity of their exercise B)They increase the intensity of their exercise C)They increase the frequency of their exercise D) They decrease the frequency of their exercise: They decrease the intensity of their exercise
103. Exercising for 7-14 days in the heat to increase the capacity to sweat is known as: A)Assimilation B)Acclimatization C)Adaptation D) Conditioning: Acclimatization
104. Your client had to stop their weight training routine due to an injury. During that time his muscles decreased in size. What is this known as? A)Atrophy B)Hypertrophy C)Amortization D) Hypertriton: Atrophy