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WOBC-B EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS LATEST UPDATE 2024/2025 WITH 100% DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
Typology: Exams
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Describe Air Ground Operations. synchronized employment of ground forces with aviation maneuver and fires to seize, retain, and exploit the initiative. What are the Seven core Competencies of Army Aviation? Provide Accurate and Timely Information. Provide Reaction Time and maneuver Space. Destroy, defeat, disrupt, divert, or delay enemy forces. Air Assault ground maneuver forces. Air Movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies Evacuate wounded or recover isolated personnel Enable mission command over extended ranges and complex terrain. What is the difference between Air Movement and Air Assault? Air movement is (admin) conducted when no enemy present. Air Assault is when enemy is present Describe the 3 areas on Operational Frameworks Deep, always furthest from the commander AO Close, closer to the commander Your AO is the Support Area
Describe Operational Framework 332 Deep Operations Close Operations Security Operations Decisive Operations Shaping Operations Sustaining Operations Main Effort Support Effort Describe Deep Operations Prevent uncommitted enemy forces from being committed. Describe Close Operations Usually against enemy forces in immediate contact Describe Security operations Provides early and accurate warning, time and maneuver space to react to the enemy. Describe Decisive operations Focal point around which commanders design an entire operation Describe Shaping operations Sets the conditions for the decisive operations Describe Sustaining operations Friendly versus enemy forces Describe Main effort The unit whose mission at a given time is most critical for overall mission success. Weighted heavily with army aviation
Describe Supporting Effort Designated to a support unit What are the Six physical environments? Five Primary: Mountain, Desert, Jungle, Maritime, Urban Other: Pandemic Post Disaster CBRN Aviation Safety Officer Monitors and conducts hazard analysis of plans, training operations and unit functional areas to advise commanders on recommended corrective actions, policies, objectives, and priorities that improve performance Standardizations Officer Primary advisor to the commander for the aircrew training program. Monitors and provides assistance to the commander in the development and implementation of aircrew training programs Master Gunner Primary advisor to the commander for aircraft gunnery training programs, to include helicopter door gunnery and UAS gunnery. While deployed in theater, the master gunner manages helicopter gunnery training and sustainment as well as advises the commander and staff in the selection of weapons, and employment techniques during the mission planning process. Aviation Material Officer Commander's primary advisor on generating aviation combat power. The aviation materiel officer coordinates field and sustainment-level maintenance operations and works closely with the staff and ASB support operations officer (SPO) to sustain aviation operations. The aviation materiel officer monitors contract maintenance personnel and advises the commander on aircraft modifications and safety-of-use, safety-of flight, aviation safety action messages, and other sustainment related issues.
Flight Surgeon Flight Surgeon - Advises the command on all aviation medicine matters to include flight status qualification, support to aircrews, medical aspects of aircrew training, and monitoring the fit and use of aviation life support equipment. What is the difference between an Aviation Command Post and a Tactical command post? The Main Post prepares and publish's orders and plans The tactical post issues orders only What are the Five function Cell Groups? Movement Maneuver, Protection, Fires, Intelligence What are the differences between a Brigade Aviation Element and an Aviation Liaison Team? Brigade: Found with ground combat teams, organic to combat team Liaison: Organic to the aviation battalion Describe the mission of the ARB/ARS Provides accurate and timely information collection; reaction time and maneuver space; Destroys, defeats, delays, diverts, or disrupts enemy forces in support of the combined arms team. Integration of UAS at the troop level makes the ARS the best formation for conducting recon, secruity, and movement to contact as primary missions. What are the four tasks of the ARS when not task organized? Zone, Route, Area recon Screen Movement to contact Attack Difference between ARS and ARB
ARB has less overall recon capability than the ARS due to the lack of organic UAS at the company level. ARS has Shadow. Describe Offensive operations Offensive operations is the decisive form of war, while strategic, operational, or tactical considerations may require defending for a period of time, defeat of the enemy eventually requires shifting to the offensive. It capitalizes on accurate and timely intelligence and other relevant information regarding enemy forces, weather, terrain. The commander maneuvers forces to advantageous positions before contact. Four characteristics of offensive operations? Audacity Concentration Surprise Tempo Offensive Tasks? Movement to contact Attack Exploitation not doctrinally conducted by ARB/ARS Pursuit Not doctrinally conducted by ARB/ARS What is the difference between attack and movement to contact? Knowing at least a part of the enemy disposition. Attack Forms Deliberate and Hasty What determines which form of attack an Army Aviation unit will execute? The amount of planning time available. What is the Attack Planning Process (Plan Prepare execute, Assess?
EA Development Route Planning Review&Refine Sustainment Rehersals What is essential for mission success? Communication What are the attack employment methods? Continuous (1 company)
Engagement Area - Area in which the commander intends to trap and destroy an enemy force with the massed fires of all available weapons and supporting systems. How are attack by fire positions selected? Attack by fire positions are selected to enable attack reconnaissance units to orient fires and maintain freedom of action while maintaining maximum standoff during the engagement. What is a holding area? Holding Area - The last covered and concealed position prior to the objective which allows for final reconnaissance and coordination of assets by the commander. It is normally located 2 to 5 kilometers behind the FLOT What is a battle position? Battle Position - (BP) is an area designated for attack helicopters, in which they can maneuver and fire into a designated EA. The BP is a restrictive control measure that depicts the location and general orientation of the attack unit. The commander selects positions based on the nature of the target, obstacles, range to target, multiple firing positions, and area to maneuver. What is an Attack by fire Position? Attack By Fire Position - The purpose of these positions is to mass the effects of direct fire systems from one or multiple locations toward the enemy. An attack by fire position is a non-restrictive control measure and does not indicate the specific site but a general location. What is a support by fire position? Support By Fire Position - The purpose of these positions is to increase the supported force's freedom of maneuver by placing direct fires on an objective that is going to be assaulted by a friendly force. What is a Fire Position? Fire Position - Attack helicopter pilots in command (PICs) select the actual firing positions (FPs) that provide standoff ranges and good fields of fire within their BP, ABF, or SBF.
What is a target reference point? Target Reference Point - (TRP) easily recognizable point on the ground (either natural or man-made) used to initiate, distribute, and control fires. TRPs can also designate the center of an area where the commander plans to distribute or converge the fires of all his weapons rapidly. What acronym is used to identify the criteria for selecting a BP/ABF/SBF? NORMA Nature of target Obstacles Range to target Multiple Firing Positions Area to Manuever What acronym is used to identify criteria for selecting fire positions? BRASSCRAF Background Range Target Altitude Sun or Full Moon Shadow Concealment Rotor Wash Maneuver Area Fields of Fire What are the techniques of weapon delivery? Hover Fire Running Fire Diving Fire
What are the Patterns of Attack? Circular/Wheel pattern Figure 8 pattern L attack Pattern Cloverleaf Attack Pattern Describe the circular/wheel pattern Utilized for reconnaissance of a point target or area of interest. Suitable for observation, target designation, and use of off axis weapons. Allows constant observation of target from multiple angles. Requires vertical separation between aircraft. Describe the Figure 8 Pattern Figure 8 Pattern Alternates the direction of attack and egress. Utilized when there is limited maneuver area. Suitable for targets that lack inbound attack direction. Describe the L-Attack Pattern L- Attack Pattern Utilized for targets that require a large volume of fire/short duration. Attacking linear targets masked by high terrain/obstacles. Timing between teams is critical to provide simultaneous fires. Describe the Cloverleaf attack Pattern Cloverleaf Attack Pattern Eliminates predictability. Engagement range and timing are flexible. Constantly changing direction. Requires stronger deconfliction with second aircraft. info during a check in brief composition, location, munitions available, night vision, etc
What is a TPMR Brief? Technique of weapons delivery. Technique, Pattern, Munition, and range brief. produces the most efficient results in the least amount of time with the least risk to all involved. What are the sevel fundamentals of reconnaissance? Gain and maintain enemy contact Orient on the objective Report all information rapidly and accurately Retain freedom to maneuver Develop the situation rapidly Do not keep recon assets in reserve Ensure continuous recon What are the four different types of recon? Zone Area Route Recon in Force Describe Area Recon Focused collection of detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity within a prescribed area. This area may include a town, a ridgeline, woods, an air head, or any other critical operational feature. The area may consist of a single point, such as a bridge or an installation. The primary difference between a zone and area reconnaissance is the nature (restrictive vs permissive) of the boundaries. Describe Route Recon Is a directed effort to obtain detailed information of a specified route and all terrain from which the enemy could influence movement along that route. The reconnaissance may be oriented on a road, air route, railway, mobility corridor, or general direction of an advance or attack within the time available. It provides new or updated information on route conditions, such as obstacles (natural and/or man-made) and bridge classifications, and enemy and civilian activity along the route.
Describe Zone recon A directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a zone defined by boundaries. The boundaries are restrictive, unlike those of an area reconnaissance. Appropriate when the enemy situation is vague, existing knowledge of the terrain is limited, or combat operations have altered the terrain. Describe Recon in force Deliberate combat operation designed to discover or test the enemy's strength, disposition, and reactions or to obtain other information. Company/Troop size force usually conducts a RIF. Utilized when Commander cannot obtain adequate intelligence by any other means. Utilized when restrictive terrain favors likely enemy ambush of a smaller reconnaissance force. Normally conducted only to gain information about the enemy and not terrain. Describe Security Operations Security operations are typically defensive in nature and provide the combined arms team early accurate warning of enemy activities, reaction time, and maneuver space to prevent surprise, and the ability to rapidly develop the situation upon gaining enemy contact. What are the five fundamentals of Security? MOPPP Maintain Enemy contact Orient on the protected force Provide reaction time and maneuver space Perform continuous recon Provide early and accurate warning Describe a Screen Security task that primarily provides early warning to the protected force. The aviation security element destroys, defeats, or disrupts all enemy reconnaissance elements, within its capabilities and according to engagement criteria, with organic and supporting fires without becoming decisively engaged. The screen
provides the protected force with the least protection of any security mission. Typically defensive in nature Describe Guard Security task to protect the main body by fighting to gain time while also observing and reporting information and preventing enemy observation and direct fire against the main body. Units conducting a guard cannot operate independently because they rely on fires and functional and multifunctional support assets of the main body. (ADRP 3- 9 0) A guard differs from a screen in that it is a more robust force with increased firepower and is expected to engage the enemy force, while a screen is primarily a defensive force tasked with providing early warning, and is expected to avoid decisive engagement. Guard operations protect the main body from observation, direct fire, and surprise attacks, while providing early warning, reaction time, maneuver space, and disruption of the threat's forced deployment and guides main body reaction forces for the counterattack. The attack recon element cannot perform a guard mission interdependently without augmentation from ground forces Covering force missions are typically executed at the brigade and higher level Describe cover Security task to protect the main body by fighting to gain time while also observing and reporting information and preventing enemy observation and direct fire against the main body (ADRP 3-90). Unlike screening or guard force operations, a covering force is tactically self-contained and capable of operating independently of the main body. A covering force operates apart from the main body to develop the situation early and deceives, disorganizes, and destroys threat forces. Aviation task force cannot serve as the covering force headquarters Describe area security Security task conducted to protect friendly forces, installations, routes, and actions within a specific area (ADRP 3-90). Area security operations include security of designated personnel, equipment, facilities and airfields, base camps, main supply routes, convoys and key terrain. The focus of area security is on
preventing threats and protecting the force. Mission occurs extensively during stability operations and in non-contiguous areas of operation. Assigned around an airhead or a lodgment area following an airborne, air assault, or joint forced entry operation. Describe Aerial Security Aerial security is a type of area security, flown to protect helicopters conducting assaults and air movement missions. Escorted formations may vary from a single aircraft to a large air assault formation. The purpose of this mission is for the attack reconnaissance element to protect the escorted formation by locating the enemy before they can affect the flight or deter any hostile fire. Describe Convoy Security Convoy security is a type of area security and a variation of route security that is performed when conducting security for the entire route is not feasible. The purpose of this mission is to safeguard convoys by locating enemy forces before they can attack the convoy. Describe Route Security Form of area security performed to prevent a threat from attacking, destroying, seizing, containing, impeding or harassing convoys or the traffic along a specified route. The focus of a route security mission is to prevent enemy forces from interdicting traffic by emplacing obstacles on or destroying portions of the route. Describe Local Security Form of area security performed to prevents or interdicts enemy efforts to observe or attack friendly forces vicinity FARPs, assembly, staging, and holding areas. Local security is an enduring priority of work and prevents units from being surprised. Describe the roles of the AATFC
Overall Commander of AATF & ensures continuity of command throughout the operation. Base on mission variables, the AATFC may be airborne in a mission command helicopter during the air movement stage. Normally the maneuver brigade or battalion commander. Higher level commander may designate an Aviation Commander as the AATFC Resource and synchronize war fighting functions in support of the Air Assault. Approves/disapproves, modifies components of the Air Assault plan. Plan and Synchronize the Air Assault timeline. Describe the role of the Ground Tactical Commander (GTC) Develop the ground tactical plan. Develop the loading plan. Develop the staging plan. Describe the role of the ATFC serves as the AMC and commands all aviation forces through all phases of the air assault and follow on ground tactical plan. Describe the role of the AMC ensures the mission is completed within the commanders intent Describe the role of the Flight lead Responsible in assisting and advising planners on the following products. Flight routes (Primary & Alternate) Route card data LZ selection (Primary and Alternate)
During mission, navigates the flight routes and ensures air assault times are met according to air movement table. Describe an AHB Air assaults maneuver forces; positions personnel, supplies and equipment; CASEVAC; conducts PR: and enable mission command in support of combined arms team. What is the reverse planning sequence? 5 stages Ground Tactical Plan Landing Plan Air Movement Plan Loading Plan Staging Plan Describe the ground tactical plan. Focal point of planning and foundation for successful air assault Task Org, Fires, Scheme of manuever, commanders intent, use of recon assets, Laager sites, Medevac, Casevac Describe the landing Plan ****ing Landing Describe the Air movement Plan Its a ****ing air movement, figure it out. Describe the Loading Plan establish PZ operations and Air Loading Ground Tactical Commanders responsiblity Describe the staging plan prescribes arrival times and order of aircraft, ground personnel and equipment movement to the PZ Describe an Initial Planning Conference
First meeting between AATF staff, fires and supporting aviation unit. The output of the IPC results int he Warno for the Aviation task force Air Mission Coordination Meeting Meeting between the AATF and Supporting aviation unit COA is approved for maneuver At the AMCM the AATFC Approves the FINALIZED air movement and the landing plans. Air Mission Brief Confirmation brief to the air assault task force commander Output is the written product and actual briefing Air Movement Table commo Card LZ/PZ Diagrams Operational Sketch Route Card Execution Checklist Aircrew Brief Ensures flight crews fully understand the mission to execute the air assault successfully. The Air crew brief is conducted at the aviation battalion level Air assault task force rehearsal Gets everyone on the same ****in page Aviation Task Force Rehearsal Emphasis is on the aviation scheme of the maneuver and contingencies What are the 3 abort criteria options? Delay Divert Abort
Air Movement Operations Air Transport of equipment (Two Types) Non-Tactical (Admin) Tactical Explain the MEDEVAC process a. Battle Captain usually has a "Heads up" b. WARNO to MEDEVAC c. 9-Line generation d. Assignment e. Launch approval f. Considerations: g. Patient care requirement h. Enemy presence i. ROE j. Wx k. Fighter Management l. Escort Requirement m. Crew mix n. The Commander should establish pre-briefed and pre-approved MEDEVAC launch criteria and single ship operations. 9 Line explain the roles and responsibilities of the different companies in the ASB. Ground vehicle and aviation maintenance and recovery operations b. Signal and NS to the CAB for mission command c. Aviation and ground sustainment operations for the aviation brigade d. Role 1 Army health service support for the aviation brigade e. Distribution management operations within the aviation brigade FARP planning process.
a. When planning the necessary number of rearm and refuel points for a FARP, the leaders and staffs should always b. consider the following.: i. Operational FARP points and FARP manning ii. Number and type of operational aircraft iii. ATS requirements iv. Maintenance planning v. Maintenance equipment Explain an Active Farp The main function of an active FARP is to provide rapid & simultaneous refueling & rearming of combat aircraft to facilitate continuous aviation operations to support the ground maneuver commander. Provides support in the Aviation unit's main area of operations. Explain a Silent Farp Units may deploy multiple FARPs for long duration missions. Certain FARPs will serve as active while the rest remain silent until activated. Activation occurs at predetermined times or decision points. Any silent FARP will have the same equipment and personnel necessary to assume the role of the active FARP. Silent FARPs may require additional planning considerations to reduce the probability of detection prior to going active. Explain a Jump Farp For missions when scope, assets, and time is limited, a jump FARP can be used. A jump FARP may be composed of any number of systems and configurations to provide expeditionary refueling capabilities and ammunition (when mission dictates). can be transported by ground or air assets as dictated by time or geographical constraints and the type of configuration used. Describe AAFARS a. Advanced Aviation Forward Area Refueling System (AAFARS) Used to simultaneously refuel four helicopters in tactical locations. AAFARS setup is a four point refuel system separated by 100 feet, capable of providing a minimum of 55 GPM simultaneously to all points by center point refueling (D- 1 nozzle), closed circuit refueling (CCR), and open-port nozzles.
Describe HEMTT b. Heavy Expanded Mobile Tactical Truck (HEMTT) The 2500-gallon HEMTT tanker aviation refueling system kit expands the HEMTT tankers capability to hot refuel up to four helicopters simultaneously using the on-board fuel-servicing pump. The equipment is lightweight, transported in the storage box of the HEMTT, and can be used in forward areas. Describe Wet/Fat Hawk similar refueling method using the ERFS that is carried inside the aircraft while fuel is extracted from the external or internal fuel tanks. A Fat Hawk is a UH-60 helicopter providing fuel and ammunition, and a Wet Hawk provides fuel only. The crashworthy external fuel system (CEFS) allows the UH- 60 to carry either 230- or 450-gallon external fuel tanks. Describe Wet/Fat Cow Wet/Fat Cow - extended range fuel system (ERFS) II, is a modular interconnectable system that can be configured with up to three 800-gallon tanks. ERFS II supplies up to 2,400 gallons of fuel to two refueling points 200 feet from the helicopter and is known as Wet Cow. When the aircraft transports fuel and ammunition it is called Fat Cow. The system provides a safe and convenient method of increasing the range and endurance of the CH-47. What are the 3 types of aircraft recovery? Self Immediate Delayed Recovery Describe Self Recovery Action required for the aircraft to fly from the current position under its own power to rejoin the mission Describe Immediate Recovery someone in flight can fix it, not to rejoin mission Describe Delayed Recovery is performed by a DART not in the flight. Delayed recoveries are categorized as deliberate and hasty.
Explain P4T Problem, people, parts, plan, Time, tools, training Describe Dedicated Recovery Hard break/can't fix lifted or hauled out. Explain the responsibilities of the Battlaion/Squadron in regards to DART The owning downed aircraft battalion or squadron is responsible for immediately notifying the aviation brigade CP, and coordinating the initial planning process for recovery with the battalion/squadron AMC/AMT. Explain the responsibilities of the Maintenace company/Troop in regards to DART The preferred method of aircraft recovery within the AMC/AMT is self-recovery and BDAR. Dedicated d. aircraft recovery serves as a contingency operation. The AMC commander ensures the DART is properly resourced, trained, and rehearsed to facilitate a shared understanding of the operation. Explain the responsibilities of the Support Company in regards to DART The ASC is staffed and equipped to conduct ground recovery operations of CAB airframes. Additionally, the ASC can perform self-recovery and conduct BDAR procedures as part of a DART mission. If necessary, personnel and equipment may be provided to augment the AMC/AMT. explain the roles and responsibilities of the DART a. The DART is initially formed from aviation brigade or aviation task force assets and is comprised of preselected personnel. The DART may respond to an aircraft recovery mission from within the unit, a supported adjacent unit, or an aircraft platform within the operational area. Explain Battle Damage Assessment and Repair (BDAR) a. The use of specialized aircraft damage assessment criteria, repair kits, and trained personnel to assess damage, conduct repairs, and facilitate maintenance evacuation of damaged aircraft. What is the difference between the Attack by Fire Position and Support by Fire Position? a. Attack By Fire Position - non restrictive control measure and does not indicate the specific site but a general location
b. Support By Fire Position - increase the support forces freedom to maneuver by placing direct fires on an objective that is going to be assaulted by a friendly force. What information is communicated during a Check-in Brief? The check-in brief gives the ground commander information on the air reconnaissance team's restrictions or limitations Name and describe the four different Forms of Security. Route - prevent a threat from attacking convoys, Local - Security around FOBS or FARPS Aerial - Flown to protect helicopters conducting assaults Convoy - To safeguard conveys What are the eight different battalion and squadron level organizations of Army Aviation? Attack Reconnaissance Squadron (ARS) Attack Reconnaissance Battalion (ARB) Assault Helicopter Battalion (AHB) General Support Aviation Battalion (GSAB) Aviation Support Battalion (ASB) Security & Support Battalion (SSB) Airfield Operations Battalion (AOB) Theatre Fixed Wing Battalion (FWB) What are the ten mission tasks of the Combat Aviation Brigade (CAB)? Movement to contact Attack Reconnaissance Security Air Assault Air Movement Aerial Mission Command Aeromedical Evacuation CASEVAC Personal Recovery
What types of aircraft, and how many of each , reside in each battalion in a standard Combat Aviation Brigade? ARS: 24 AH-64s, 12 Shadows ARB: 24 AH-64s, 12 Grey Eagles ASLT: 30 UH-60s SPT: 8 UH-60s, 12 CH-47, 15 HH-60s What is the purpose of a Brigade Aviation Element (BAE)? The BAE is a planning and coordination cell organic to all BCTs whose purpose is to incorporate aviation into the ground maneuver commander's scheme of maneuver. The BAE focuses on providing employment advice and initial planning for aviation missions, UAS, airspace planning and coordination, and synchronization with the tactical air control party and the fires cell. What is the difference between a BAE and a Aviation Liaison Team? a BAE is found with ground combat teams, and is organic to combat teams An ALT is organic to the aviation battalion. What does the acronym FARP stand for? Forward arming and refueling point. 3) _________ FARP is utilized for missions when scope, assets, and time are limited. Jump Farp How many fuel points can an AAFAR Support? 4 A wet/fat cow can transport how many gallons of fuel? 2400 gallons of fuel What is the preferred method of aircraft recovery? Self What are the six tasks of the AHB?
Air Assault Air Movement CASEVAC Aerial Mission Command Personnel Recovery Reconnaissance Who is the overall Commander of the AATF and ensures continuity of command throughout the operation? Normally the maneuver brigade or battalion commander. Which step in Air Assault planning is the focal point of planning and foundation for a successful air assault? The Ground Tactical Plan The scheme of maneuver and Ground Tactical Plan directly influence what three things? Selection of HLZ, Landing Formations, amount of combat power entering hlz. The _________ refers to both the written product and the actual briefing. Air Mission Brief _________________ are important considerations when a change of one or more conditions in the objective area or HLZ seriously threatens mission success. Abort Criteria What are the different types of Air Movements? Tactical and Non-Tactical What are the five tasks of the ASB? Ground vehicle and aviation maintenance and recovery operations signal and NS to the CAB Aviation and ground sustainment operations for the aviation brigade
Role 1 army health service support for the aviation brigade Distribution management operations within the aviation brigade GSAB is the only wire diagram with what symbol? ATC Symbol What are the eight tasks of the GSAB? Air movement Aerial Farp Support Air Assault Personnel Recovery Aerial Mission command Aeromedical Evacuation CASEVAC ATS MEDEVAC Enroute medical care for Urgent/Urgent Surgical, how many minutes 60 minutes Charlie Med how many hours of operations and what is it organic to? 24 hours, Organic to the GSAB MIST Mechanism of injury Injury or Illness Signs and Symptoms Treatment Given In most cases the _____ person requests medical evacuation and assigns the appropriate medical precedence. Senior Medical Person