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Wound Certification Exam 159 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT, Exams of Nursing

Wound Certification Exam 159 Questions with Verified Answers What is the name of the organization that developed the pressure ulcer staging? - CORRECT ANSWER NPUAP (national pressure ulcer advisory panel) pathological effect of excessive pressure on soft tissue can be attributed by 3 factors? what are they? - CORRECT ANSWER tissue tolerance, duration of pressure, and intensity of pressure what are the extrinsic factors that impact pressure ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER increase in moisture, friction and shearing how does friction play a role in shearing which eventually leads to pressure ulcer? - CORRECT ANSWER friction alone causes only superfical abrasion, but with gravity it plays a synergistic effect leading to shearing. When gravity pushes down on the body and resistance (friction) between the patient and surface is exerted, shearing occurs. because skin does not freely move, primary effect of shearing occurs at the deeper fascial level.

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2023/2024

Available from 11/19/2024

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Wound Certification Exam 159 Questions with Verified

Answers

What are 6 risk factor components of Braden Scale for pressure ulcer? - CORRECT ANSWER sensory perception, moisture, mobility, activity, nutrition, and shear/friction What is the name of the organization that developed the pressure ulcer staging? - CORRECT ANSWER NPUAP (national pressure ulcer advisory panel) pathological effect of excessive pressure on soft tissue can be attributed by 3 factors? what are they? - CORRECT ANSWER tissue tolerance, duration of pressure, and intensity of pressure what are the extrinsic factors that impact pressure ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER increase in moisture, friction and shearing how does friction play a role in shearing which eventually leads to pressure ulcer?

  • CORRECT ANSWER friction alone causes only superfical abrasion, but with gravity it plays a synergistic effect leading to shearing. When gravity pushes down on the body and resistance (friction) between the patient and surface is exerted, shearing occurs. because skin does not freely move, primary effect of shearing occurs at the deeper fascial level. what are the intrisinc factors of pressur ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER nutritional debilitation, advanced age, low BP, stress, smoking, elevated body temperature Aging skin undergoes what elements affecting risk for pressure ulcer? - CORRECT ANSWER dermoepidermal junction flattens, less nutrient exchange occurs, less resistance to shearing, changes in sensory perception, loss of dermal thickness, increased vascular fragility; ability of soft tisuse to distribute mechanical load w/out comprosing blood flow is impaired

What does nonblanching erythema indicate in the skin r/t PU? - CORRECT ANSWER when pressure is applied to the erythematic area skin becomes white (blanched), but once relieved, erythema returns -indicating blood flow; however in nonblanching erythema, skin does not blanche-indicating impaired blood flow- suggesting tissue destructon why does sitting in a chair pose more of a risk in skin break down than lying? - CORRECT ANSWER deep tissue injury or PU is likely to occur sooner sitting down because tissue offloading over boney prominences is higher Describe what you will see in deep tissue injury? - CORRECT ANSWER purple or maroon localized area of discolored intact skin skinor blood filled blister; may be preceded by painful, firm, mushy, or boggy; skin may be warmer to cooler in adjacent tissue. In dark skin, thin blister or eschar over a dark wound bed may bee seen Describe stage I pressure ulcer? - CORRECT ANSWER Intact skin with nonblanchable redness of localized area. Will not see blanching in dark skin, but changes in skin tissue consistency (firm vs boggy when palpated), sensation (pain), and warmer or cooler temperature may differ from surrounding area Describe stage II pressure ulcer? - CORRECT ANSWER partial-thickness wound where epidermis and tip of dermis is lost with red-pink wound bed w/out slough. may also present as intact or open/ruptured serum -filled blister Describe stage III pressure ulcer? - CORRECT ANSWER full-thickness wound where both epidermis and dermis is lost and subcutaneous tissue may be visible, but deeper structures such as muscle, bone, and tendon are not exposed; slough my be present but it doesn't obscure depth and tunneling and undermining may be present Describe stage IV pressure ulcer? - CORRECT ANSWER full-thickness wound with exposed bone,tendon, and muscle; slough or eschar may be seen in some parts of the wound bed. you will often see tunneling and undermining. Osteomyelitis may be dxed at this stage, since bone is palpable

Describe unstageble ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER full-thickness wound where base of the ulcer is covered by slough and/or eschar, obscuring depth When should eschars not be removed? - CORRECT ANSWER when it's stable with dry, adherent, and intact w/out erythema on the heel; this serves as the body's natural cover and should not be removed. Therapeutic function of pressure distribution is accomplised by what 2 factors? - CORRECT ANSWER immersion and envelopement Define immersion? - CORRECT ANSWER depth of penetration or skining into surgace allowing pressure to be spread out over surrounding area rather than directly over boney prominence Define envelopement? - CORRECT ANSWER is the ability of support surface to conform to irregularities without causing substantial increase in pressure what is bottoming out? - CORRECT ANSWER this occurs when depth of penetration or sinking is excessive, allowing increased pressure to concentrate over boney prominences what factors contribute to bottoming out? - CORRECT ANSWER weight, disproportion of weight and size such as amputation, tendency to keep HOB > degrees, inappropriate support surface settings When should you consider reactive support surface with features and components such as low air loss, alternating pressure, viscous or air fluids? - CORRECT ANSWER for patients who cannot effectively position off their wound, have PUs in multiple turning surfaces, or have PUs that fail to improve despite optimal comprehensive management When should active support surface be considered? - CORRECT ANSWER when effective positioning is determined by an MD to be medically contraindicated What is the difference between an active and reactive support surfaces/ - CORRECT ANSWER active support surface is a powered mattress or overlay that changes it's load- distribution with or without applied load; pressure is

redistributed across the body by inflating and deflating the cells of alternating zones. conversely a reactive support surface moves or changes load-distribution properties only in response to applied load, such as the patient's body. When are active support surfaces appropriate? - CORRECT ANSWER when manual frequent repositioning is not possible when are reactive support surfaces appropriate? - CORRECT ANSWER for pressure ulcer prevention what is a benefit in low air loss feature and when is it contraindicated? - CORRECT ANSWER low air loss assists in managing mositure. It is contraindicated in patients with unstable spine and it puts patients at risk for entrapment when is an air fluidized feature integrated in bed systems appropriate? - CORRECT ANSWER for patients with multiple stage III or Iv pressure ulcers, burns, myocutaneous skin flap for what kind of patients are traditional air-fluidized bed not recommended? - CORRECT ANSWER pulmonary diseases or unstable spine patients what are some general guidelines for caring for patients on a support surface? - CORRECT ANSWER support surfaces alone doe snot prevent or heal PUs, fuctions best with minimal linens and pads under patients, must be able to assume variety of positions to prevent bottoming out, patients should be turned regardless of support surfaces, patients who sit with a risk for PU should have a sitting plan- duration, position, and posture what type of patient is a lateral rotation feature in a supportive surface beneficial? - CORRECT ANSWER for patients with acute respiratory conditions- requiring pulmonary hygience what are the 3 essential physical properties for normal venous function? - CORRECT ANSWER competent valves, venous wall, and calf muscle pump what are the classical characteristic traits seen in venous ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER shallow, irregular wound eges, with moderate to heavy exudate, dark

red or "ruddy" wound base or thin layer of yellow slough, macerated periwound, crusting, scaling and /or hemosiderin staining Define hemosiderin staining? - CORRECT ANSWER leakage of RBCs which have been broken down appears as a purple to brown staining Define lipodermatosclerosis? - CORRECT ANSWER hardening of soft tissue where hemosiderin staining evolves into lipodermatosclerosis- found on gaiter and sock areas and has appearance of inverted champagne bottle Define atrophie blanche? - CORRECT ANSWER smooth, white plaques of think speckled atrophic tissue with tortous vessels on ankle or foot with hemosiderin pigmented border Define venous dermatitis? - CORRECT ANSWER characterized by scaling, crusting, weeping, erythema, erosions, and intense itching. Differentiate dermatitis from cellulitis? - CORRECT ANSWER In cellulitis, patients will often exhibit pain, fever, tenderness, one or few bullae, no relevent history, no crusting, blood cxs usually negative, no lesions anywhere else other than localized area, and high WBC count What factors impede healing in venous ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER DM, tobacco, malnutrition, umplanned weight loss, and meds (corticosteroids) What is the most effective managment of CVI? - CORRECT ANSWER therapeutic compressions (30-40mmHg) What should you do before deciding to tx with compressions? - CORRECT ANSWER rule out LEAD, by obtaing an ABI What are the interpretations of ABI? - CORRECT ANSWER ABI of 1.0 is pure LEVD ABI of 0.9 or less is LEAD ABI of 0.5 or less is ischemia

When should you obtain an TBI? - CORRECT ANSWER when ABI is >1.3 indicating calcification of vessels which in turn reflects invalid data. A TBI of < 0.7 indicates LEAD What is the gold standard for evaluating valve failure and extent of reflux? - CORRECT ANSWER duplex ultra sound What are some methods for manaing venous ulcers and CVI - CORRECT ANSWER limb elevation- >heart level for 1-2 hours/daily and during sleep, calf pump exercises or referral to PT for shuffling gait, weight control, medications (diuretics, topical corticosteroids, Pentoxifylline (Trental), and compression therapy How does Pentoxifylline work and when is it appropriate? - CORRECT ANSWER reduces aggregation of platelets and WBC, reducing capillary plugging and enhances blood flow. ordered when standard therapy is not effective When are elastic or inelastic compressions indicated? - CORRECT ANSWER elastic for patients who are sedenatary vs. inelastic for patients who are amublatory When are high pressure compressions (30-40mmgHg) indicated, when assessing ABI? - CORRECT ANSWER ABI>0.8 can use high compressions when are compressions contraindicated? - CORRECT ANSWER venous thrombosis in LE w/ulcers and uncompensated heart failure when is sustained (continuous) compression contraindicated? - CORRECT ANSWER in the presene of PVD with an ABI that is < or =0.6 or when ABI is >0. but <0.8 is more appropriate when is IPC (intermittent pneumatic compression)-dynamic compression indicated? - CORRECT ANSWER for patients with venous insufficiency and ABI< or =0.5, for those who cannot tolerate sustained compression, as an adjunct therapy to sustained therapy, those who are immobile when is modified or lower compressions appropriate (23-30mmHg)? - CORRECT ANSWER when coexisting arterial disease is present

all patients with leg uclers should be screened for arterial disease using what, initially? - CORRECT ANSWER doppler which measures ABI; takes BP in the arm and ankle and compares ratio What are the attributes of short-stretch compression? - CORRECT ANSWER it's inelastic, sustained compression and provides a modified to therapeutic level of pressure-reusable What are the attributes of long-stretch compression? - CORRECT ANSWER same as short stretch except it's elastic (ex. Surepress) what are the attributes of multi-layer compression? - CORRECT ANSWER sustained, elastic, disposable, and provides therapeutic to modified pressure (ex. 3M w/coban) what are the attributes of paste compression and problems associated with it? - CORRECT ANSWER sustained, inelastic, disposable, and provides modified level of pressure;lacks absorptive property so skin has tendency to macerate, patients are sensitive to calamine paste, slippage, poor fit, and inablity to bathe. When are compression stockings indicated? - CORRECT ANSWER only when venous insufficiency is stable and used as maintenace therapy, since compressions are for "life" to prevent venous ulcers what are the goals in treating LEAD? - CORRECT ANSWER maximizing perfusion, minimizing risk of infection, using evidence-based wound care, and ongoing assessment and managment of ischemic pain What is the gold standard for revascularization of sapenous veins? - CORRECT ANSWER bypass graft what are the 6 P's in assessing for acute limb ischemia? - CORRECT ANSWER pulse, pallor, polar (cool), pain, paresthesia(burning and tingling sensation), and paralysis What is the general appearance of LEAD? - CORRECT ANSWER thin, shiny epidermis, loss of hair growth, thickened nails, edema is variable depending on

positioning and coexisting disease; pale or ischemic (purpura and petechiae secondary to blood thinners) What vacular symptoms or perfusion status will you see in LEAD during assessment? - CORRECT ANSWER diminished ABI and TBI; dimished or absent pulse; delayed capillary refill time; abnormal turbulence of blood flow (aka bruit), depedent rubor or elevational pallor, cool skin What kinds of pain will the patient with LEAD experience and what is the interpretation? - CORRECT ANSWER patient experiences intermittent claudication with moderate-heavy activity which is relieved by 10 minutes of rest=50% vessel occlusion; experiences nocturnal pain during sleep which is caused by leg elevation and decreased cardiac output- this is relieved by placing limb in dependent position; rest pain occurs in the absence of activity and with legs in dependent position=90% occlusion What are modifiable risk factors for LEAD? what are the lab goals for managing them? - CORRECT ANSWER tobacco: stop smoking diabetes: HbA1c <7.0 and if possible for high risk patients, <6. dyslipidemia (elevation of cholesterol and triglycerides): HDL >40, LDL<100, TG < HTN: <140/90 (for DM, <130/80) In presence of arterial occlusion, refill time will be longer than what? in seconds? - CORRECT ANSWER will take > 2-3 seconds. what are the ABI values and its indicator? - CORRECT ANSWER >1.3=invalid 1.0-1.3=normal range 0.9 or less=LEAD 0.8-0.6=borderline 0.5 or less=severe ischemia and revascularization needed When should you obtain TcPO2 (transcutaneous partial pressure of O2)? - CORRECT ANSWER when ABI or TBI cannot be performed d/t calcification or amputation of ankles or toes

What are the values of TcPO2 and its interpretation? - CORRECT ANSWER 40 mmHg or greater=normal <40mmHg=hypoxia w/impaired wound healing When do you use SLP (segmental leg pressure)? - CORRECT ANSWER used to determine location of occlusion for surgical intervention. a 30mmHg decrease in pressure between two adjacent levels indicate occlusion when should you not use TBI? - CORRECT ANSWER when toes are amputated or toes are col that it's not reliable What conditions cause vasoconstrictive properties which worsens LEAD? - CORRECT ANSWER smoking, pain, dehydration, cold temperature, lack of exercise, constrictive clothing when is pulsve volume recordings (PVR) and doppler waveform studies indicated?

  • CORRECT ANSWER it is recommended when ABI >1.3; the wave forms reflect severity of occlusion what tests give you an anatomic roadmap, prior to revascularization? - CORRECT ANSWER MRA, angiography, duplex angiography, or computed tomographic angiography when is HBO indicated in arterial ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER patients w/significant ischemia who are not candidates for revascularization and wound healing is impaired Describe the characteristics of a neuropathic wound and periwound? - CORRECT ANSWER wounds are usually found on the planatar, dorsum of metatarsal, and lateral sides of foot; wounds are usually red , if no ischemia not present; wound edges are well defined; exudate is moderate to large; callus periwound Describe the grading system and its corresponding symptoms of Wagner Ulcer Classification system? - CORRECT ANSWER there are 5 grading categories: 0: intact w/some callus formation, deformities, and redness over pressure point 1: superficial ulcer w/out depth into SQ tissue with or w/out cellulitis 2: full-thickness ulcer exposing tendon and joint w/out abcess or osteomyelitis
  1. osteomyelitis, absecess, necrotizing fasciitis
  2. gangrene toes, forefoot, and heel
  3. amputation, gangrene-unsalvageable what is a traditional tx of Charcot foot? - CORRECT ANSWER cast mobilization Why is debridement of callus an important maintenance therapy? - CORRECT ANSWER better distributes pressure and reveals possible ulerations and undermining of tissues what are the priorities in managment of neuropathic wounds? - CORRECT ANSWER relieve pressure by offloading, aggressively treating infection, revascularization, and improve wound condition what are the 3 kinds of neuropathy? - CORRECT ANSWER motor, sensory, and autonomic neuropathy what happens in motor neuropathy and what do you typically observe? - CORRECT ANSWER foot muscles atrophy resulting in deformities of toes and foot structure which leads to eneven weight distribution and pressure points ( hammer and claw toes, charcot foot) what happens in sensory neuropathy and what do you typically observe? - CORRECT ANSWER protective sensation is lost and patients lack awareness of pain and temperature which leads to injury and infection what happens in autonomic neuropathy and what do you typically observe? - CORRECT ANSWER an involuntary nervous system resulting in loss of sweating and oil production causing skin to be dry. Xerosis leads to fissures, cracks, callus, and ulceration Under the foot risk classification system, what signs connote low risk diabetes and how should you manage the condition to prevent neuropathic ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER intact sensation(neuropathy), intact pulse (vasularity), no foot deformities (motor fx). management includes: education r/t disease control, daily inspection of foot, proper shoe wear, early report of foot injuries; annual foot exam and callus removal and nail care prn

Under the foot risk classification system, what signs connote moderate risk diabetes and how should you manage the condition to prevent neuropathic ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER intact sensation(neuropathy), intact pulse (vasularity), foot deformities present (motor fx). management includes: education r/t disease control, daily inspection of foot, proper shoe wear, early report of foot injuries; depth in-lay footwear, foot exam every 6 months; referral to foot/ankle specialist if deformity is causing pressure and conservative measures failed Under the foot risk classification system, what signs connote high risk diabetes and how should you manage the condition to prevent neuropathic ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER absent sensation(neuropathy), absent pulse (vasularity), foot deformities present (motor fx). management includes: education r/t disease control, daily inspection of foot, proper shoe wear, early report of foot injuries; custom footwear, foot exam every 3months; callus maintenance; referral to foot/ankle specialist if deformity is causing pressure and conservative measures failed what are some key things to remember when caring for diabetic foot? - CORRECT ANSWER daily inspections of foot and shoes, don't soak in water for prolonged period to avoid maceration, avoid nylon socks bc they don't breathe, avoid chemicals for removing corns, never use razor blades, change shoes often to reduce hotspots, see a professional for trimming nails Describe SSSS (staphylococcal scaled skin syndrome)? - CORRECT ANSWER infectious wound caused by toxins from staph and usually affects healthy children 6 yrs or younger. primary lesion: superficial bullae secondary lesion: superficial scales looks like a burn; avoid adhesive dressings Describe necrotizing fasciitis (aka flesh eating infection)? - CORRECT ANSWER rapidly progressive and fatal infection of the SQ tissue and fascia accompanied by pain, erythema, crepitous, and sysemic toxicity (bullae, sloughing, gangrene aslo noted). Aggressive surgical debridement and IV abx is required

Describe pyoderma granulosum? - CORRECT ANSWER inflammatory condition of the skin characterized by painful necrosis, ulceration, and vasculitis. Associated with RA and IBS (Crohn's disease) and often occurs on the LE or trunk of the body. wound edges are violaceous w/ undermining and surrounding wound is erythematous and indurated. Tx includes topical steroid ointment, systemic corticosteroids, and Ciclosporin (immunosuppressant); mainstay of tx is immunosuppression; may start out as a pimple and progress to crater Describe phemphigus vulgaris? - CORRECT ANSWER painful autoimmune disorder that causes blisters on the skin and mucous membranes. blistera are flaccid and ruptures.Mainstay tx is systemic corticosteroids Describe fungating neoplastic wound? - CORRECT ANSWER mass of malignant cells which have infiltrated the epithelium and surrounding blood vessels and lymph vessels-ulcerating necrois and slough. most frequently reported symptoms are malodour, exudate, bleeding and pain. Tx is usually palliative and may require catuerization w/silver nitrate d/t bleeding or use of charcoal dressing, Chloromycetion solution or metronidazole to control odor. surgical or sharp debridement is not recommended bc of excessive bleeding; instead autolytic or enzymatic debridement is preferred. avoid adhesive dressings and cont to keep wound moist. Describe Calciphylaxis? - CORRECT ANSWER Painful, burning, and sometimes itchy lesion that's indurated, necrotic w/violacious discoloration. The skin cells die because of lack of blood supply (dry gangrene). This causes deep and often extensive ulcers. Occurs w/ESRD patients with hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperparathydroidism. A distinct finding w/calciphylaxis is intact peripheral pulses bc bloo flow distal to or deeper than necrosis remains intact. Txed with normalization of calcium and phosphorous. IV Sodium thiosulfate has shown to be beneficial. What acronym is used to evaluate surgical infections, post-op for 5 days? What does each letter stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER ASPSIS: A: abx S: serous discharge E: erythema P: purulent drainage

S: separation of tissue I: isolation of bacteria S: stay as inpatient prolonger >14 days How are surgical wounds usually closed? - CORRECT ANSWER by primary or secondary intention what solution is usually used in traumatic wounds to decrease contamination? - CORRECT ANSWER Dakin's solution or sodium hypochlorite; should have limited use bc it also kills healthy cells when is TCC contraindicated in treating neuropathic ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER patient with acute deep infection, sepsis, or gangrene. may not be indicated for those who are noncompliant, would be unstable to stand or walk, exessive edema, fragile skin and who have ulcers that have depth >size of width what is used as an adjunct therapy to surgical shoe, healing shoe, or walking splint and when TCC is not warranted? - CORRECT ANSWER foam felt dressing (FFD) what surgical procedure is used for those with peripheral neuropathy and equinus contractures? - CORRECT ANSWER tedon-achilles lengthening (TAL) what are the clinical manifestations of incontinence associated dermatitis (IAD)? - CORRECT ANSWER areas of body where incontinence will be spread to is observed; risk factors are associated w/urinary or bowel incontinence (abx, carthartics, hypoalbumina, fecal impaction, IBS, infection, radiation, fat malabsorption); blistering, shallow irregular patches that's red and denuded and/or macerated; painful what are the clinical manifestations of Candidiasis? - CORRECT ANSWER occurs in skin folds where moisture is bountiful (intertrigo, pendulous breasts, groin, perineum, inner thighs -like IAD); associated w/moisture and immunosuppresion; confluent patchy rash or erythematous papules (raised discoloration) with cheesy-white exudate; pustules and satellite lesions also seen; itchy, burning discomfort; Potassium hydroxide preparation scraping (KOH) done for testing

What are the clinical manifestations of Herpes Simplex? - CORRECT ANSWER viral condition affecting the genitalia areas (perianal, buttocks, genitals); isolated vesicles rupture and crusts over Differentiate IAD, Cutaneous Candidiasis, and Herpes Simplex from pressure ulcer? - CORRECT ANSWER types of lesions, medical hx and location of the conditions assist in diagnosing. Whereas IAD and Cadidiasis occurs in skin fold areas, Herpes is found in genitalia while PUs occur over boney prominences. IAD is incontinence related, Candidiasis is associated with moisture issues and Herpes is a STD. Uniqueness of lesions also depicts type of condition. IAD is irregular, denuded, blistering; Candidiasis is confluent, patchy, papular, pustular, cheesy- like exudate; Herpes is isolated blister which eventually ruptures into crust; PUs in stage II may be confused with the alluded conditions in that it's superficial, partial thickness wound that's red w/serous blister whys is albumin and prealbumin an important lab value to know in wound management and healing? - CORRECT ANSWER lab values indicate potential risk for malnutrition. Protein is needed in growth factors to promote healing. Becasue albumin has a long half life, it foretells muscle wasting/malnourishement which has been chronic. Albumin level <3.5 is malnourished (normal is 3.5-5). Conversely, prealbumin has a short half life of 2 days and indicates acute stage. <19.5 is malnourished (19.5-35.8 normal). What does transferrin lab value a good indicator of? - CORRECT ANSWER iron deficiency Are the the interpretations of BMI for underweight, normal, overweight, and obesity? - CORRECT ANSWER > 18.5kg =underweight 18.5-24.9=normal 25-29.9=overweight 30 and > is obesity What % of body weight is considered significant weight loss? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 % or greater w/in 30 days (1 month) or 10% or greater w/in 180 days (6 months)

Which nutritional element is needed for angeogenesis, collagen synthesis/remodeling, immune fx and serves as precursor to nitric oxide and wound contraction? - CORRECT ANSWER protein How much protein is necessary per kg, for wound healing? - CORRECT ANSWER 1.25-1.5kg/body weight which vitamin assists in angiogenesis and epithealization? - CORRECT ANSWER Vitamin A; this also helps with collagen synthesis which vitamin assists in collagen synthesis, immune function, fibroblast function, and enchances activation of leukocytes and macrophages and essential in cell wall integrity? - CORRECT ANSWER Vitamin C which mineral is needed for protein synthesis? - CORRECT ANSWER zinc how many calories are needed per kg for sufficiency? - CORRECT ANSWER 30- 35kcal/body weight what lab values help identify patients who are malnourished and need nutritional support for wound healing? - CORRECT ANSWER weight(<18.5 is underweight, need 30-35kcal/weight, significant weight loss =5% w/in 30 days or 10% w/in 180 days); prealbumin (<19.5=malnourished and 19.5-35.8=normal), and albumin(<3. =malnourished and 3.5-5=normal) What the the acroynm TIME used for? - CORRECT ANSWER used as principle for wound bed preparation What does TIME stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER tissue, nonviable; infection/inflammation; moisture balance; edge of wound Explain the pathophysiology of moisture balance? - CORRECT ANSWER dessication slows epithelial cell migration, excessive fluid causes maceration of wound margins; application of moisture-balance dressing, compressions; edema is controlled, epithelial cell migration is restored, maceration avoided

Explain the pathophysiology of nonviable tissue on a wound bed? - CORRECT ANSWER defective matrix and cell debris impairs healing. Debridement restores functional extracellular matrix proteins; viable wound base restored Explain the pathophysiology of infection/inflammatory process? - CORRECT ANSWER high bacterial counts prolong inflammation, increases inflammatory cytokines, increases protease activity, and decreases growth factors; implementing topical/systemic antimicrobials and protease inhibitors; bacterial bioburden is diminished Explain the pathophysiology of impaired wound edges? - CORRECT ANSWER nonmigrating keratinocytes, nonresponsive wounds cells, and abnormalities in extracellular matrix or abnormal protease activity; debridement, skin graft, biologic agents, adjunctive therapies; wound edges advance What are the clinical signs of local infection? - CORRECT ANSWER increased erythema, increased exudate and change in consistency of exudate, odor, increased local warmth, edema, pain, tenderness What are the systemic signs of infection? - CORRECT ANSWER fever, chills, increase in WBC what lab value indicates infection? - CORRECT ANSWER WBC count of >10 to the 5th what are the 3 principles of wound management? - CORRECT ANSWER address the wound etiology, support the host, and maintain a physiologic local wound environment List the 7 objectives of local wound managment? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. prevent/manage infection

  1. cleanse the wound
  2. remove nonviable tissue (debride)
  3. maintain a moist environment
  4. eliminate dead space
  5. control odor
  6. elminate/minimize pain
  1. protect the wound and periwound skin Semiocclusive dressings have a benefit of what? - CORRECT ANSWER they are occlusive to liquids but transmit moisture vaport and gases; impermeable to bacteria which debridement method is nonselective - CORRECT ANSWER surgical, hydrotherapy, wet-to-gauze, surgical sharp Which debridement methods are selective? - CORRECT ANSWER autolysis, enzymatic (collagenase, Dakins, silver nitrate), conservative sharp debridement, biosurgical, and ultrasonic mist what is the difference between selective and nonselective debridement? - CORRECT ANSWER in selective, only necrotic tissue is removed what are some things to consider when using Dakin's solution? - CORRECT ANSWER It is used for cleaning, debriding, and controling odor; but it should be used short-term; stop use when infection and odor is under control; viable tissue exposed; used 2x/day; use barrier ointment over periwound what caution should you take in considering conservative sharp or surgical sharp wound debridement? - CORRECT ANSWER there is potential for transient bacteremia after debridement, particularly wounds that are infected; risk for bleeding, pain what are the 3 general parameter guides for selecting appropriate wound debridement? - CORRECT ANSWER overall condition and goal of patient; status of wound and urgency in need of debridment; skill level of care provider what product is used for tx of very dry, scaly skin? - CORRECT ANSWER hyaluronic acid cream when should petrolatum jelly-based products not be used? - CORRECT ANSWER for prevention or treatment of radiation dermatitis

what are some ways to manage radiation dermatitis? - CORRECT ANSWER use lanolin-free hydrophillic moisturizer, normal saline soaks to provide cooling sensation and loosen crusting, nonadherent dressings What are the characteristic manifestation of Herpes Zoster? - CORRECT ANSWER begins w/buring pain, followed by erythema that evolves into a grouped unilateral vesicular rash along one or two dermatomes. Pustules form, rupture, and then becomes crusty. Of note, dermatomes are specific skin surface areas innervated by a single spinal nerve group what kind of lesion is an important diagnostic feature in Candidiasis? - CORRECT ANSWER satellite lesion what are the 2 mechanims for wound healing? - CORRECT ANSWER regeneration (replacement of damaged or lost tissue with more of the same) or scar formation (replacement of damaged or lost tissue by connective tissue that lacks some fx of original tissue wounds that are confined to epidermal and superficial dermal layers heal by what mechanism and why? - CORRECT ANSWER regeneration; epithelial, endothelial, and connective tissue can be reproduced wounds that occur deep in the dermal structures, SQ tissue, muscle, tendon, ligaments, and bone heal by what mechanism and why? - CORRECT ANSWER scar formation; these layers lack capacity to regenerate and therefore loss of these structures are permanent Explain wound healing by primary intention and give an example? - CORRECT ANSWER In primary intention, wound edges are well approximated and heals by epithealization and connective tissue deposition. surgical incision secured w/staples, surtures, or adhesive tape explain wound healing by secondary intention and give and example? - CORRECT ANSWER wound edges are not approximated and healing occurs by granulation tissue formation, contraction of wound edges, and epithelialization. chronic wounds such as PU and dehisced incisions

explain wound healing by tertiary intentions and give examples? - CORRECT ANSWER aka delayed primary intention. wound is kept open for several days. superficial wound eges then are approximated, and center of wound heals by granulation tissue formation. abdominla incision complicated by significant infection (deep tissue is healing by graulation and superficial layer of skin is sutured) "red islets" represent what part of the skin layer? - CORRECT ANSWER basement membrance of the epidermis, which projects deep into the dermis to line the epidermal appendages. Each islets serves as a source of new epithelium why is migration in wound healing delayed when wound is covered w/ a scab? - CORRECT ANSWER in order to create a moist envinroment, epithelial cells secrete enzymes knwon as MMP (metallproteinases) to lift the scab what are the major components of partial-thickness repair include? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. inflammatory response to injury

  1. epithelial proliferation and migration (resurfacing)
  2. differentiation of the epidermal layers to restore barrier fx of skin what happens in wound healing, if wound involves dermal loss - CORRECT ANSWER granulation formation or connective tissue repair will precede concurrently with reepithealization when do you know complete healing has occured in epithelial resurfacing or healing by regeneration? - CORRECT ANSWER when skin pigmenation matches the individual's normal skin tone what must be restored in partial dermal loss in wound healing? - CORRECT ANSWER rete ridges/dermal papillae what are the key components of proliferative phase? - CORRECT ANSWER epithealization, neoangiogenesis, and matrix deposition/collagen synthesis what are the 4 major phases in full-thickness repair? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. hemostasis (platelets degranulate and release growth factors)
  3. inflammatory (leakage of neutrophils, macrophages )
  1. proliferative/rebuilding (cont recruitment of growth factors, granulation formation, contraction of wound edges, epithelial resurfacing)
  2. maturation/remodeling (collagen synthesis) granulation tissue is often referred to as - CORRECT ANSWER extracellular matrix (ECM) in full-thickness wounds, why is the new epidermis slightly thinner than original epidermis? - CORRECT ANSWER ret pegs that normall dip into dermis is lacking In chronic wounds where wound is healing by secondary intention, why is healing delayed? - CORRECT ANSWER hemostasis is absent, presence of excess of proinflammartory cells where wound bed is bioburdened, prolonged proliferative phase where granulation and wound contraction must take place before epithealization what are the characteristics of a chronic wound? - CORRECT ANSWER prolonged inflammatory phase, cellular senescene, deficiency of growth factor receptor sites, absence of hemostasis phase which triggers fibrin production and growth factor release, and high level of proteases how does diabetes effect repair process? - CORRECT ANSWER prolongs inflammation, reduces collagen synthesis, decreases tensile strength, impairs epithelial migration, compromises vasculature how does advance age affect wound healing? - CORRECT ANSWER dimished proliferation of cells critical to repair, increased number of senescent cells, diminished production of growth factors, hormonal changes, multiple co-existing comorbidities why is nutrition critical in wound healing? - CORRECT ANSWER it's important in collagen synthesis, tensile strength, immune fx