Field Craft 1 exam with 100% complete solutions, Exams of Nursing

Download Field Craft 1 exam with 100% complete solutions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Field Craft 1 exam with 100% complete solutions Three categories of hemorrhage and percent of occurance - CORRECT ANSWER - Extremity 13.5% Junctional 19.2% Truncal 67.3% Percent of combat fatalities survivable by early intervention and rapid evacuation - CORRECT ANSWER - 24% The majority of combat related wounds are due to what? - CORRECT ANSWER - Penetrating trauma What are the tactical indications for spinal immobilization? - CORRECT ANSWER - Motor vehicle crashes, Falls from greater than 15ft, and IED blast involving a MRAP vehicle. In a combat environment, CPR should be considered for what non-traumatic disorders? - CORRECT ANSWER - Hypothermia, near-drowning, or electrocution. This injury is caused by the blast overpressure (or wave) from an explosion. - CORRECT ANSWER - Primary Blast Injury This injury is caused by debris or shrapnel from an explosion. - CORRECT ANSWER - Secondary Blast Injury This injury is caused by a casualty being thrown into a solid object by an explosion. A form of blunt trauma. - CORRECT ANSWER - Tertiary Blast Injury Most significant obstacle to the Combat Medic's ability to provide care. - CORRECT ANSWER - Enemy Fire What are the Warrior Tasks? - CORRECT ANSWER - Open airway by positioning, insertion of an NPA, and hemorrhage control. Medications given to casualties in mild to moderate pain - CORRECT ANSWER - Tylenol and Meloxicam (Mobic) Medications and dosages given to casualties in moderate to severe pain who ARE NOT in, or at risk of developing, shock or respiratory distress - CORRECT ANSWER - Fentanyl 800-micrograms orally Morphine- 5mg IV/IO Medications administered for casualties in moderate to severe pain who are in or at risk of developing hemorrhagic shock, respiratory distress - CORRECT ANSWER - Ketamine- 50mg IM/IN or 20mg slow IV or IO This medication should always be available when using opioid analgesics - CORRECT ANSWER - Naloxone (Narcan) Medication given for nausea or vomiting - CORRECT ANSWER - Zofran (Ondansetron) These medications are recommended for all penetrating combat wounds - CORRECT ANSWER - Antobiotics In what situation would a burn causality receive antibiotics? - CORRECT ANSWER - If they also have penetrating trauma. TC3 goals - CORRECT ANSWER - Complete the mission, prevent additional casualties, and treat the casualty Phases of TC3 - CORRECT ANSWER - Care Under Fire, Tactical field care, and tactical evacuation care. Tactical Evacuation includes these types of evacuation - CORRECT ANSWER - CASEVAC and MEDIVAC These evacuations have no organic capabilities for defense - CORRECT ANSWER - MEDIVAC This is the system that links the Levels of Care - CORRECT ANSWER - MEDIVAC What are the Roles of Care? - CORRECT ANSWER - Role 1- the first medical care a soldier receives Role 2- organizations operated by the area support squad, medical treatment platoon of medical companies Role 3- casualty treated in a MTF Role 4- medical care is found in CONUS-based hospitals and other safe havens True or False: battlefield documentation is part of a soldiers official and permanent medical record - CORRECT ANSWER - True What is a DD Form 1380? - CORRECT ANSWER - TC3 Card Where is a DD form 1380 placed after being filled out? - CORRECT ANSWER - On the casualty Where on a soldier would one find a DD Form 1380? - CORRECT ANSWER - IFAK When does MEDEVAC begin and end? - CORRECT ANSWER - Begins when medical personnel receive the casualty and continue as far as the casualty's condition requires. Factors that affect blood clotting and hypothermia. - CORRECT ANSWER - Hypothermia, acidosis, hemodilution, medications, and blood pressure. What is a normal ph level. - CORRECT ANSWER - 7.35-7.45 How much blood can a casualty bleed into each side of the chest? - CORRECT ANSWER - 1500 mL How much blood can a casualty bleed into the abdomen? - CORRECT ANSWER - 10L of blood. What is ecchymosis? - CORRECT ANSWER - Bruising What is hemoptysis? - CORRECT ANSWER - Coughing up blood What is hematemesis? - CORRECT ANSWER - Bloody vomiting Medications that helps the body prevent the breakdown of clots are known as what? - CORRECT ANSWER - Antifibrinolytics What is Tranexamic (TXA)Acid, how is it administered, and what are the dosages? - CORRECT ANSWER - An injectable hemostatic agent given through an IV. 1gm in 100cc of IV solution. When can Tranexamic Acid be administered? - CORRECT ANSWER - Within the first three hours of injury What medication cannot be administered with TXA? - CORRECT ANSWER - Hextend What are the 4 Ps of wound packing? - CORRECT ANSWER - Peel, push, pile, and pressure If a bandage becomes soaked with blood, what should you do? - CORRECT ANSWER - Remove all packing and start over again What makes up the upper airway? - CORRECT ANSWER - Nasal cavity and oral cavity What makes up the lower airway? - CORRECT ANSWER - Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and lungs Normal respiratory rates for adults, children, and infants - CORRECT ANSWER - Adults: 12-20 per minute Children: 15-30 per minute Infants: 25-50 per minute What could happen when suctioning if the vagus nerve is stimulated? - CORRECT ANSWER - Bradycardia and hypotension What are the indications for an NPA? - CORRECT ANSWER - Casualty is unconscious with spontaneous respirations and no respiratory distress, casualty is unconscious without airway obstruction, or altered casualty with intact gag reflex Contraindications for an NPA - CORRECT ANSWER - Broken nose, basilar skull fracture, maxillofacial trauma, exposed brain matter, CSF, and no respiratory distress What is the preferred advanced airway in a combat environment? - CORRECT ANSWER - Emergency Surgical Cricothyroidotomy Anesthetic used on a patient who is conscious or has an altered mental status who needs a surgical cric - CORRECT ANSWER - Lidocaine What is the minimum diameter of a tube used in a surgical cric? - CORRECT ANSWER - 6mm What is the membrane attached to the surface of the lung called? - CORRECT ANSWER - Visceral pleura What is the membrane attached to the surface of the chest wall called? - CORRECT ANSWER - Parietal pleura What is the lubricating fluid between the visceral and parietal pleura called? - CORRECT ANSWER - Pleural fluid What is the space between the visceral and parietal pleura called? - CORRECT ANSWER - Pleural space These are penetrating wounds to the heart or blood vessels - CORRECT ANSWER - Cardiac contusions At what point a a casualties assessment is their body armor removed for the first time? - CORRECT ANSWER - Breathing What is diaphoresis? - CORRECT ANSWER - The secretion of sweat What is pallor? - CORRECT ANSWER - The absence of color What might "bowel sounds" in the lung area be indicating? - CORRECT ANSWER - A ruptured diaphragm or diaphragmatic tear In a pneumothorax, where in the lungs is Air getting sucked into? - CORRECT ANSWER - Pleural space What is the minimum size of a sucking chest wound? - CORRECT ANSWER - 2/3 the size of the trachea A complete collapse of the lung is known as what? - CORRECT ANSWER - Tension pneumothorax How long should a catheter being used in a needle chest decompression be? - CORRECT ANSWER - 3.25 inches Types of distributive shock - CORRECT ANSWER - Septic, neurogenic, anaphylactic, and psychogenic This type of shock results in "pump failure" when the hearts pumping mechanism no longer functions correctly - CORRECT ANSWER - Cardiogenic shock What are the signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock? - CORRECT ANSWER - Chest pain, shortness of breath or progressive respiratory distress, weakness, cool, clammy, sweating skin, hypotension, tachycardia/tachypnea, anxiety and confusion, rales (crackles), and peripheral edema (swelling of legs) Which signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock result from Congestive heart failure? - CORRECT ANSWER - Rales (crackles) and peripheral edema How much blood lost is required for a person to go into hypovolemic shock? - CORRECT ANSWER - 20% or 1/5 Which tissues are considered the least important? - CORRECT ANSWER - Skin, muscles, and bones Which tissues are considered less important? - CORRECT ANSWER - Intestines, liver, stomach, and spleen Which tissues are considered to be the most important? - CORRECT ANSWER - Bain, heart, lungs, and kidneys How much blood is required to be lost in order for a person to go into decompressed shock? - CORRECT ANSWER - 1500 mL What are the non-hemorrhagic causes of hypovolemic shock? - CORRECT ANSWER - Dehydration due to sweating and not consuming adequate fluids, dehydration due to vomiting and diarrhea, and burns greater than 20% of ones body surface area What is the solution of choice for burn and dehydrated casualties? - CORRECT ANSWER - Lacerated Ringers These raise blood pressure and contain a high molecular weight - CORRECT ANSWER - Colloids 1st choice in hemorrhagic shock. It is a blood volume expander. - CORRECT ANSWER - Hextend 1 hour - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the timeframe for a Urgent/Urgent Surgical casualty 4 hours - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the timeframe for a Priority casualty? Classifying casualties worse than they are; pulls medical assets that could be used else where - CORRECT ANSWER - What is over classification and what is the impact on the mission? 6 and 9 - CORRECT ANSWER - What are the lines of the 9line MEDEVAC for wartime and peace time? "I have a MEDEVAC request" - CORRECT ANSWER - How do you request a 9 line MEDEVAC 25 seconds - CORRECT ANSWER - How long do you have to transmit a 9 line MEDEVAC Open field, no hindrances to removing casualty - CORRECT ANSWER - What is a Simple rescue? Vertical casualty movement, vehicle extrication, tactical search and rescue - CORRECT ANSWER - What makes up a complex rescue? The point of wounding - CORRECT ANSWER - Define the term "x"? know your capabilities, use large leg muscles, slide or roll rather than lift - CORRECT ANSWER - Describe the proper body mechanics of casualty movement? 4 litter or 8 ambulatory or 2 litter and 4 ambulatory - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the load capacity of a M997 4 litter or 10 ambulatory or a combination - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the load capacity of a M113 3 litter or 6 ambulatory - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the load capacity of a Haga Sked, Jungle penetrator, stokes basket - CORRECT ANSWER - What are the 3 most common devices used in hoist operations? Extremity hemorrhage - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the leading cause of preventable death on the battlefield? provides a fluid environment for the other components and warmth for the body - CORRECT ANSWER - Plasma Carry oxygen to the tissue - CORRECT ANSWER - Erythrocytes (RBCs) Fight infection and consume dead tissue - CORRECT ANSWER - Leukocytes (WBCs) Specialized cells that form clots - CORRECT ANSWER - Thrombocytes Hypothermia, Acidosis, Hemodilution, High BP, Medication - CORRECT ANSWER - What are the 5 factors that affect blood clotting? Direct pressure can control the hemorrhage - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the difference between Compressible hemorrhage and non-compressible hemorrhage Bruising, hemoptysis, rectal bleeding, hematemesis - CORRECT ANSWER - What are some S/S of Non-compressible hemorrhage 10 liters - CORRECT ANSWER - How many liters of fluid can the average adult hold in the abdomen? 1 liter - CORRECT ANSWER - How many liters of fluid can the average adult hold in 1 thigh? 1500 mL - CORRECT ANSWER - How much fluid can be held on one side of the chest? 100 mL per minute - CORRECT ANSWER - How fast can the intercostals muscles bleed? Hasty Tourniquets - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the only medical treatment done in the Care under fire phase? Directly to the skin; 2-3 inches above the wound; not over a joint; tightened till bleeding stopped or distal pulse absent - CORRECT ANSWER - Describe a delibrate tourniquet? Peel, Push, Pile, Pressure - CORRECT ANSWER - What are the 4 P's of packing? If casualty will arrive at surgical facility less than 2 hours; TQ has been place for longer than 6 hours; Amputations; Casualties in profound shock - CORRECT ANSWER - When should you not loosen a tourniquet? Treat significant non-pulsating hemorrhage with packing and pressure - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the 1st step in the assessment for circulation? As CO2 increases; respiratory rate increases - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the respiratory response to increased CO2 production 12-20 - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult 15-30 - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the normal respiratory rate for a child 25-50 - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the normal respiratory rate for an infant Will cause hypoxemia, cardiac dysrhythmia, vagus nerve stimulation - CORRECT ANSWER - What are the complications of suctioning Positioning, manual maneuvers, suctioning, NPA - CORRECT ANSWER - What are the essential Airway skills Endotracheal intubation - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the "Gold Standard" in Advanced airway management? Emergency Cricothryoidotomy - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the perferred advanced airway in the combat environment? Thyroid Cartilage; Cricothyroid membrane, cricoid cartilage - CORRECT ANSWER - What are the landmarks for an emergency cric? Severe maxillofacial trauma, airway obstruction, structural deformities, inhalation burns, unconscious and unable to secure own airway - CORRECT ANSWER - What are the indications for a Cric? A musculofibrous partition separating the thoracic abdominal cavities - CORRECT ANSWER - Define diagphram? Visceral attached to lung, parietal attached to chest wall - CORRECT ANSWER - what is the difference between visceral and parietal pleura diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract; lungs expand, intrathoracic pressure decreases - CORRECT ANSWER - Describe inhalation diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax; intrathoracic pressure increases - CORRECT ANSWER - Describe exhalation Penetrating wound below the 4th intercostals space - CORRECT ANSWER - What type of wound is considered both an ABD and a thoracic injury Air within the pleural space - CORRECT ANSWER - Describe a pneumothorax Air builds up pressure and prevents the heart from filling/ pumping and compresses the other lung - CORRECT ANSWER - Describe a tension pneumothorax Tachypnea, bradypnea, labored breathing, retractions, hemoptysis, one or two word sentences, agitation or air hunger - CORRECT ANSWER - What are the S/S of respiratory distress? An open wound that is 2/3 the size of the trachea - CORRECT ANSWER - Describe a sucking chest wound? 2nd ICS, mid-clavicular line, over the 3rd rib - CORRECT ANSWER - Describe the placement of a Needle Chest decompression Pneumothorax - CORRECT ANSWER - Caused by an accumulation of air within the potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura Secondary blast injury - CORRECT ANSWER - Caused by debris or shrapnel from the explosion Primary blast injury - CORRECT ANSWER - Caused by the blast overpressure or wave from an explosion Tertiary blast injury - CORRECT ANSWER - Caused when the casualty is blown into a solid object like a wall or vehicle and suffers blunt trauma Mediastinum - CORRECT ANSWER - The cavity between the lungs that contains the heart and great vessels The thyroid and cricoids cartilage - CORRECT ANSWER - The cricothyroid membrane is located between Circulatory overload - CORRECT ANSWER - Elevated BP, JVD, tachypnea, shortness of breath, tachycardia, and fluid intake much greater than urinary output are indications of? Positioning, manual maneuvers, suction and NPA - CORRECT ANSWER - Essential airway skills M997 - CORRECT ANSWER - Evacuation vehicle that lacks armor and should be used within an operating base to move casualties between the MTF and the flight line Hypothermia, acidosis, hemodilution, medications and blood pressure - CORRECT ANSWER - Factors that disrupt the process of clotting and promote coagulopathy (difficult clotting) White blood cells (leukocytes) - CORRECT ANSWER - These fight infection and consume dead tissue as well as producing antibodies that help the body resist infection Pack wounds not treatable with a tourniquet with combat gauze and hold pressure for 3 minutes, then apply a pressure bandage - CORRECT ANSWER - What is the first step of circulation? Lactated ringers - CORRECT ANSWER - Fluid given to a dehydration casualty in a combat environment Lactated ringers - CORRECT ANSWER - Fluid of choice for civilian trauma resuscitation Dextrose and water (D5W) - CORRECT ANSWER - Fluid used for calorie replacement or when glucose is needed for hypoglycemic patient Normal Saline (NS) - CORRECT ANSWER - Fluid used in blood transfusions and restoring loss of body fluids Complete the mission, prevent additional casualties, and treat the casualty - CORRECT ANSWER - The goals of TC3 14 gauge 3.25 inches - CORRECT ANSWER - Gauge and length of the needle used for a NCD (Needle Chest Decompression) Bloody vomiting - CORRECT ANSWER - Hematemesis is what? Coughing up blood - CORRECT ANSWER - Hemoptysis is what? Head toward the cabin - CORRECT ANSWER - How casualties should be positioned on a Blackhawk carousel after it is rotated At least 2 inches beyond all edges of the wound - CORRECT ANSWER - How far should the tape extend on the improvised occlusive dressing? 2/3 the size of the trachea - CORRECT ANSWER - How large a wound must be to be considered a sucking chest wound 12 pairs, 10 attached to sternum and 2 connected to sternum cartilage (24 total) - CORRECT ANSWER - How many ribs does the human body have? Four - CORRECT ANSWER - How many sides of an improvised occlusive dressing are taped down Unconscious casualty with no respiratory distress or airway obstruction, an altered casualty with intact gag reflex - CORRECT ANSWER - Indications for a NPA There is trauma to the extremities, for small children and after two unsuccessful IV attempts on a combat casualty with altered mental status and absent radial pulses - CORRECT ANSWER - Intraosseus is indicated when? Dehydration casualties that have had two unsuccessful IV attempts - CORRECT ANSWER - Intraosseus is not indicated for? Hemorrhage to the extremities - CORRECT ANSWER - The leading cause of death on the battlefield is? Level 5 - CORRECT ANSWER - Level of care of a CONUS DOD Hospital or VA Hospital. Provides restorative and rehabilitative care Level 4 - CORRECT ANSWER - Level of care with definitive hospital care capabilities outside of the combat zone COBUS of OCONUS. Provides convalescent, restorative, and rehabilitative care Level 1 - CORRECT ANSWER - Level of care with first responder capability like a medical platoon or battalion aid station. Provides immediate front line clinical care Level 2 - CORRECT ANSWER - Level of care with forward resuscitative care like a medical company or a forward surgical team. Is close to the point of injury and can perform stability surgery. Level 3 - CORRECT ANSWER - Level of care with theater hospitalization capabilities like a combat support hospital. Provides in theater medical/surgical care. Lines 6 and 9 - CORRECT ANSWER - Lines of a 9-line medevac that change during peace time Upper right, low right, upper left, lower left - CORRECT ANSWER - Loading sequence for 4 litter casualties Penetrating - CORRECT ANSWER - The majority of combat related wounds are due to this type of trauma 1000 ml - CORRECT ANSWER - The maximum amount of Hextend that should be given to a casualty pre-hospital Parietal pleura - CORRECT ANSWER - Membrane attached to the surface of the chest wall Visceral pleura - CORRECT ANSWER - Membrane attached to the surface of the lung The superficial femoral artery (SFA) - CORRECT ANSWER - The most commonly injured artery injured in combat The second intercostal space on the mid-clavicular line. DIRECTLY OVER THE TOP OF THE THIRD RIB - CORRECT ANSWER - Needle for the NCD (needle chest decompression) is inserted where? As soon as possible - CORRECT ANSWER - On a 9-line medevac, lines 6 through 9 should be transmitted when? "I have a 9 line request" - CORRECT ANSWER - Opening statement of a 9 line medevac Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and the lungs - CORRECT ANSWER - Parts of the lower airway Nasal and oral cavity - CORRECT ANSWER - Parts of the upper airway Deliberate tourniquet - CORRECT ANSWER - Placed 2-3 inches above the wound on the skin and never on a joint The cardiac box - CORRECT ANSWER - Placement for the NCD should not be medial to the nipple line to ensure the needle does not end up where?