hazwoper 8 hour refresher test questions and answers, Exams of Andragogy

Download hazwoper 8 hour refresher test questions and answers and more Exams Andragogy in PDF only on Docsity! hazwoper 8 hour refresher test questions and answers Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of a hazardous substance accident? A Broken or rusted pipes B Following standard operating procedures C Faulty valves or transfer hoses D Leaking tank - Answer - b What is a hazardous substance? A Any substance defined under section 101(14) of CERCLA B Any biological agent and other disease-causing agent that could cause death, disease, behavioral abnormalities, cancer, genetic mutation, physiological malfunctions (including malfunctions in reproduction), or physical deformations in exposed people or their offspring C Any substance listed by the U.S. Department of Transportation as a hazardous material under 49 CFR 172.101 and its appendices D Hazardous waste E All of the above - Answer - e All hazardous substances are hazardous wastes. A True B False - Answer - b The floodwaters of Hurricane Katrina were polluted with which of the following hazardous substances? A Petroleum B Dioxin C Mercury D Pesticides E All of the above - Answer - e The law that requires employers to provide a workplace that is "free from recognized hazards likely to cause death or serious physical harm" is known as: A OSH Act B RCRA C HSWA D SARA - Answer - a Which of the following acts was passed in 1976 to protect human health and the environment from the potential hazards of waste disposal? A HSWA B RCRA C OSH Act D CERCLA - Answer - b Which regulation deals with cleaning up inactive and abandoned hazardous waste sites? A Solid Waste Disposal Act B Clean Air Act C CERCLA D Clean Water Act - Answer - c The U.S. EPA enforces the HAZWOPER Standard. A True B False - Answer - b Which of the following standards does not usually apply to HAZWOPER situations? A Subpart O - Machinery and Machine Guarding B Subpart H - Hazardous Materials D All of the above - Answer - b Which training level describes individuals who assume control of the incident scene and implement the Incident Command System and emergency procedures? A First Responder Awareness Level B First Responder Operations Level C Hazardous Materials Specialist D On-Scene Incident Commander - Answer - d Commonly known as the Superfund program, ________ was enacted by Congress in 1980 in response to the Love Canal situation. A SARA B HSWA C CERCLA D RCRA - Answer - c Which law made OSHA responsible for setting standards to protect workers involved in cleaning up Superfund sites? - Answer - not CERCLA Which training level describes individuals who are likely to discover a hazardous substance release and are trained to notify the proper authorities? - Answer - not First Responder Operations Level A responder trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level can: - Answer - not Act as a liaison with federal, state or local authorities So how much waste must a facility generate to earn these classifications? - Answer - CESQG: Less than 100 kg hazardous waste per month SQG: 100 kg to 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month LQG: More than 1,000 kg hazardous waste per month Generators may accumulate up to _____ gallons of hazardous waste indefinitely at the point of generation. - Answer - 55 It is the responsibility of the generator to determine whether a waste is hazardous. - Answer - TRUE Discharges of industrial wastewater generally do not require a permit. - Answer - FALSE Stormwater pollution is caused by rain and snow melt picking up pollutants from: A) Outdoor equipment B) Processes C) Wastes D) Storage areas Knowledge Check: Stormwater E) ALL OF ABOVE - Answer - E Which of the following is a Best Management Practice for handling industrial waste? A Disposing of paint, solvents or oil directly onto the ground B Locating an industrial waste storage area adjacent to a storm drain or body of water C Cleaning up chemical spills at the end of every week D Taking measures to prevent or minimize soil erosion at the facility - Answer - d Which of the following are EPA-regulated areas? A Hazardous waste generation B Industrial wastewater discharges C Stormwater discharges D All of the above - Answer - d Hazardous waste is heavily regulated because it can damage the environment or threaten human health if it is not properly handled and disposed of. A True B False - Answer - a 4) If a potentially hazardous waste exhibits characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity or toxicity, it is considered a: A Characteristic waste B Listed waste C Waste stream D Non-categorized waste - Answer - a Who is responsible for determining whether any wastes generated are hazardous? A The generator of the waste B The EPA C The local municipality D Your EMS administrator - Answer - a If the monthly generation threshold is exceeded for classification, the classification status will only be changed for the duration of the exceeded threshold. A True B False - Answer - b CESQGs are exempt from many of the requirements pertaining to the other generator classifications. A True B False - Answer - a How often must small or large quantity generators conduct inspections of their storage areas? A Daily B Weekly C Monthly D Yearly - Answer - b Generators may accumulate up to ___ gallons of hazardous waste indefinitely at the point of generation. A 45 B 55 C Donate it D Recycle it - Answer - b Which classification describes a facility that generates less than 100 kg of hazardous waste per month? A Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generator (CESQG) B Small Quantity Generator (SQG) C Large Quantity Generator (LQG) - Answer - a What is the PRIMARY purpose of the HazCom Standard? Making sure that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are identified and documented Making sure the government knows what chemicals are being brought into the country Reducing the number of lawsuits involving employee exposure to hazardous substances Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals - Answer - Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals Phosphoric acid: Extremely corrosive to some metals, and can severely irritate and burn the skin and eyes. Breathing its vapors can make the lungs ache. Health Physical Both - Answer - both Acetone: Can irritate the skin and eyes. Repeated exposure can affect a person's central nervous system. It is also very flammable in liquid or vapor form. Health Physical Both - Answer - both What is the primary purpose of the Hazard Communication Standard? A Making sure that all hazardous chemicals in the workplace are identified and documented B Making sure the government knows what chemicals are being brought into the country C Reducing the number of lawsuits involving employee exposure to hazardous substances D Reducing workplace injuries and illnesses due to hazardous chemicals - Answer - d The HazCom Standard covers construction and longshoring workers, as well as employees in other industries who may be exposed to chemical hazards. A True B False - Answer - a Which are the four major areas covered by the standard? Hazard classification, written program, SDSs and labels, and: A Engineering controls B Monitoring C Training D PPE - Answer - not b, not d The purpose of the GHS is to: A Establish the United States' standards worldwide B Improve reading comprehension among workers C Protect employers from worker lawsuits D Reduce confusion and worker injury and illness - Answer - d The GHS standardizes an international approach to the HazCom Standard. A True B False - Answer - a The hazard statement on Chemical A's label says it can cause skin irritation and respiratory problems. What type of hazard is presented by this chemical? A Ambiguous hazard B Health hazard C Physical hazard D Retroactive hazard - Answer - c Chemical B is pyrophoric. What type of hazard is presented by this chemical? A Health hazard B Layered hazard C Physical hazard D Physical and health hazards - Answer - c Who must provide labels when they ship chemicals? A Manufacturers B Importers C Distributors D All of the above - Answer - d When performing a hazardous chemical inventory, employers must consider chemicals in liquid or gas form only. A True B False - Answer - b In chemical inventories, employers must identify chemicals in: A Chewing tobacco B Clothes detergent C Pipes D Soft drinks - Answer - c At a multi-employer worksite, employers must include details in their ________ about how they will share information with the other employers. A Inspection reports B The season changes C They start work every day D They go on vacation and then return - Answer - a An unplanned event or series of events resulting in death, injury, occupational illness, damage to or loss of equipment or property, or damage to the environment, is referred to as: A A hazard B A mishap C A risk - Answer - b Risk is the likelihood that a ___ will cause a ____. A Hazard, mishap B Mishap, hazard C Loss, injury D Injury, loss - Answer - a A hazard related to the composition, structure and properties of substances is called a: A Mechanical hazard B Physical hazard C Chemical hazard D Biological hazard - Answer - c Toxicity can be measured by: A Threshold Limit Value (TLV) B Lethal Concentration (LC) C Lethal Dose (LD) D All of the above - Answer - d Acids and alkaline caustic liquids are examples of: A Corrosives B Flammables and explosives C Oxidizers D Pyrophoric materials - Answer - a Which physical property affects the ease with which a fuel can be ignited? A Flashpoint B Ignition temperature C Flammable limits D Specific gravity E Boiling point F All of the above - Answer - f Organic peroxides are very stable chemicals. A True B False - Answer - b Which of the following is a pyrophoric material? A Phosphorus B Nitric acid C Formaldehyde D Sulfur - Answer - a Oxidizers should never be stored near fuels. A True B False - Answer - a Substances that restrict or prevent the oxygenation of the blood are called: A Oxidizers B Oxygenators C Asphyxiants D Reactors - Answer - c Which of the following is NOT a source of radiation? A Gamma rays B X-rays C Radio waves D Neutrons - Answer - c A hazardous waste is a waste with a chemical composition or other properties that make it capable of causing illness, death or some other harm to humans and other life forms when mismanaged or released into the environment. A True B False - Answer - a Relying on your senses will always alert you to the presence of a hazard. A True B False - Answer - b Concentrated D Permissible - Answer - a The airborne concentration of a substance to which workers can be exposed day after day without adverse effect is referred to as: A Lethal Concentration B Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH) C Threshold Limit Value (TLV) D Lethal Dose - Answer - c The study of the poisonous properties of substances is known as: A Exposure B Toxicology C Threshold Limit Value D Permissible Exposure Limits - Answer - b An IDLH atmosphere is one that: A Poses an immediate threat to life B Would cause irreversible adverse health effects C Would impair an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere D Has a 50% probability of causing death E All of the above F A, B, C only - Answer - f Which of the following is NOT a route of entry for toxic substances? A Inhalation B Ingestion C Absorption D Injection E Inspiration - Answer - e Taking care not to eat, drink, smoke or apply cosmetics in a contaminated area will help prevent exposure via which route of entry? A Inhalation B Ingestion C Absorption D Injection - Answer - b Which of the following are symptoms of acute exposure? A Irritation to the skin, eyes or lungs B Bad smell C Chest pain D Dizziness E All of the above F B and D only - Answer - e Which of the following effects may be caused by chronic exposure to chemicals? A Skin irritation B Central nervous system effects C Liver, kidney or other organ damage D Cancer E Asbestosis F All of the above - Answer - f Skin irritation from UV radiation is an example of: A Local effects B Systemic effects - Answer - a Nephrotoxins produce liver damage. A True B False - Answer - b DNA and gene changes resulting in birth defects in infants is an example of what type of toxic effect? A Biochemical B Carcinogenic C Mutagenic D Teratogenic - Answer - c Exposure to cotton dust is most likely to affect which body part? A Reproductive system B Chest and lungs C Bones and joints D Stomach and intestines - Answer - b Which of the following factors influence reactions to chemical exposure? A Solubility of toxic agent A True B False - Answer - b Gases, liquids and solids can contaminate air. A True B False - Answer - a How is monitoring data used? A To detect potential hazards B To measure concentrations C To identify substances D To assist in the selection of protective clothing E All of the above - Answer - e Which of the following CANNOT be detected by air monitoring? A Toxic chemicals B Fire and explosion hazards C Mechanical hazards D Oxygen deficiency or enrichment - Answer - c Protective clothing and respirators that protect the responder from toxic hazards provide adequate protection against fire or explosions. A True B False - Answer - b An oxygen-enriched atmosphere is defined as one containing more than what percentage of oxygen? A 19.5% B 21% C 23.5% D 10% - Answer - c Fiber concentrations are usually measured in: A ppm B mg/m3 C psi D f/cc - Answer - d The exposure level to which workers should never be exposed, even for a short time, is known as the: A STEL B TWA C Ceiling D TLV - Answer - c You are exposed to acetone at a concentration of 80 ppm for 6 hours and 20 ppm for 2 hours. What is the TWA? A 8 ppm B 20 ppm C 100 ppm D 65 ppm - Answer - d The minimum concentration of a substance in the air that is required for ignition is called the: A Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) B Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) C Explosive range D Time-Weighted Average (TWA) - Answer - a Placing a monitoring device in an area where people may work is an example of: A Personal monitoring B Area monitoring C Real-time monitoring D Sample analysis - Answer - b In what order should monitoring be conducted? A Explosives, oxygen, toxic substances B Toxic substances, explosives, oxygen C Explosives, toxic substances, oxygen D Oxygen, explosives, toxic substances - Answer - d At which of the following is medical surveillance required? A Cleanup operations involving hazardous substances B Uncontrolled hazardous waste sites C State and national priority sites and sites recommended for national listing D Initial investigations at government-identified sites E Air-purifying respirators function by either mechanical filtration or chemical sorption. A True B False - Answer - a When maintaining respirators, which of the following actions should be avoided? A Clean and disinfect respirators used exclusively by one employee as often as necessary B Clean respirators monthly if they are worn by more than one employee C After using a respirator kept for emergency use, clean it immediately D Store respirators away from sunlight and excessive moisture - Answer - b When the identity and concentration of atmospheric hazards are not known, it is best to use this type of respirator: A PAPR B SAR C APR D SCBA - Answer - d Only respirators approved by ________ should be used. A NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) B OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) C CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) D EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) - Answer - a Which of the following are considerations when selecting a respirator for emergency response? A Is there enough oxygen in the atmosphere? B What are the hazardous substances a worker may be exposed to? C Is the atmosphere immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH)? D What is the concentration of the substance in the air? E What is the maximum permissible exposure limit for the substance? F All of the above - Answer - f In which type of seal check would you place your hands over the cartridge intakes and inhale gently? A Positive-pressure test B Negative-pressure test - Answer - b PPE will protect you from all hazardous exposures. A True B False - Answer - b Which of the following must be considered in PPE selection? A Identification of hazards B Routes of entry for hazards C Performance of the PPE D Cost of PPE materials E A, B, C only - Answer - e If you cannot find PPE materials that will provide continuous protection from a particular hazardous substance, the breakthrough time of the protective material should exceed the duration of your work. A True B False - Answer - a The effects of PPE in relation to heat stress and task duration are a factor in selecting and using PPE. A True B False - Answer - a Which agency designates levels of protection for PPE? A CDC B IDLH C EPA D DOT - Answer - c Level A personal protective equipment requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes and the respiratory system. A True B False - Answer - a Which level of protection is needed when you are working with a substance with a high degree of hazard to the skin? A Level A B Level B C Level C D Level D - Answer - a Which level of protection is needed when working in atmospheres with IDLH concentrations of a specific substance that present a severe inhalation hazard but do not represent a severe skin hazard? A Level A B Level B C Level C B DANGER - PERMIT-REQUIRED CONFINED SPACE - DO NOT ENTER C DEATH ZONE D HAZARD CONTROLS IN PLACE AT THIS SITE - KEEP OUT - Answer - b For a space to be considered a permit-required confined space, it must contain enough serious hazards that at least one person has been injured or killed in the space. A True B False - Answer - b If you believe you are in danger because you observe signs and symptoms of a hazard in the space, you should: A Stay in the confined space to see what will happen B Tell your co-workers C Call your supervisor D Evacuate - Answer - d In the event that an entrant becomes unconscious, attendants must NOT attempt to enter the space to perform rescue. A True B False - Answer - a If engineering controls or work practices don't eliminate or control atmospheric hazards, then: A PPE must be worn B The confined space cannot be entered C Two attendants are required D Emergency personnel should be contacted - Answer - a Ventilation is one of the most common examples of: A Work practice controls B Personal protective controls C Engineering controls D Administrative controls - Answer - c Work practice controls reduce or eliminate hazards by making changes such as: A Assuming the local fire department will quickly rescue all entrants in confined space emergencies B Removing warning systems C Allowing more unauthorized people into a confined space D Rotating workers - Answer - d It doesn't matter if emergency responders remain on-site or off-site, as long as they are able to meet your needs in the event of an emergency. A True B False - Answer - a What is the correct order for atmospheric testing? A Oxygen, flammable gases, toxic gases B Flammable gases, oxygen, toxic gases C Toxic gases, oxygen, flammable gases D Flammable gases, toxic gases, nitrogen - Answer - a Equipment for testing, ventilation, communications and rescue should be ________ during confined-space entry. A Hidden B Available C Sold D Deactivated - Answer - b The ________ must know the conditions or work practices that may produce a hazard in a confined space and must be trained to enter a specific space. A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Employer - Answer - a The ________ has a responsibility to verify that all tests have been conducted and all procedures and equipment are in place. A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Guard - Answer - c The ________ is responsible for controlling entry to the confined space and maintaining an accurate count of people in the space. A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Employer - Answer - b Implementing a written permit space program, identifying all potential hazards, and providing training to affected employees are all responsibilities of the: A Authorized entrant B Attendant C Entry supervisor D Employer - Answer - d Which spill control agents prevent vigorous reactions when added to a spill? C Overpacking D Flaring - Answer - d Which leak and spill control method uses controlled combustion to render a container's escaping materials less hazardous? A Vent and burn B Solidification C Polymerization D Gelation - Answer - a Prevention is the key to avoiding spills, leaks and other releases of hazardous materials. - Answer - true If unlabeled drums and containers are found, you should assume that they contain ________ and handle them accordingly. - Answer - c Hazardous substances Which of the following should be kept available and used in areas where spills, leaks or ruptures may occur? A DOT-specified salvage drums B Sawdust C Proper absorbent D Newspapers E All of the above f A and C only - Answer - A and C only If drums and containers appear to be under pressure, which action should be taken? A Do not move them until the cause of the pressure is determined B Implement appropriate containment procedures C Vent the drums to release pressure D Overpack the drums E All of the above F A and B only - Answer - A and B only Drums and containers must be identified and classified after being packaged for shipment. A True B False - Answer - false What is the purpose of site control? A Reduce the spread of hazardous substances from contaminated areas to clean areas B Identify and isolate contaminated areas of the site C Facilitate emergency evacuation and medical care D Prevent unauthorized entry to the site E Deter vandalism and theft F All of the above - Answer - f Which of the following is NOT used in site control? A Engineering controls B Work practices C Personal protective equipment D Medical surveillance - Answer - d Which of the following are elements of the site control plan? A Site map B Site work zones C Decontamination procedures D Toxicology E All of the above F A, B, C only - Answer - f A site map identifies: A Work zones for dealing with contamination B Hazard zones C Access routes D Wind direction E All of the above - Answer - e In the event of an emergency involving hazardous materials, the 3 work zones are: A Clear Zone, Pressurized Zone, Buddy Zone B Exclusion Zone, Contamination Reduction Zone, Support Zone C Primary Zone, Secondary Zone, Tertiary Zone D Red Zone, Orange Zone, Green Zone - Answer - b In which work zone is contamination the highest? A Exclusion Zone B Contamination Reduction Zone C Support Zone D None of the above - Answer - a C Buddy system D Site mapping E All of the above F A and B only - Answer - f The presence of an unwanted or hazardous substance or material on or in protective equipment, is known as: A Contamination B Decontamination C Hazard zones - Answer - a Contamination occurs most commonly from: A Vapor B Dust C Mist D Liquid chemical contact E Gaseous contact - Answer - d Which of the following activities is NOT likely to result in contamination? A Contacting air containing vapors, gases, mists, dusts, fumes and smoke B Walking through puddles of liquids or on a contaminated surface C Showering after exposure to hazardous materials D Using a contaminated instrument or contaminated equipment - Answer - c Decontamination consists of either physically removing the contaminants or changing them to harmless substances. A True B False - Answer - a How can contamination be minimized? A Use remote handling techniques B Protect monitoring and sampling equipment C Use disposable outer garments D Encase the source of the contaminants E All of the above F A and B only - Answer - e Which of the following is NOT required in the Decontamination Plan? A List of equipment needed for possible hazards B Safe disposal methods for clothing and equipment that are not completely decontaminated C Appropriate PPE D Worker vacation schedules - Answer - d 7. The three main decontamination methods are pysical removal, inactivation and chemical removal. A True B False - Answer - a Which of the following are examples of physical removal? A Water from either a pressurized or a gravity flow system being used to rinse off the contaminant B Evaporating or vaporizing a contaminant from fabric C Flame-treating contaminated clothing D All of the above E A and B only - Answer - e Which of the following is NOT an example of inactivation? A Oxidation B Neutralization C Solidification D Washing with detergent - Answer - d Chemical removal of contaminants may be accomplished with surfactants or solvents. A True B False - Answer - a Decontamination stations can be arranged in any order. A True B False - Answer - b Decontamination equipment must be purchased from specialized vendors who are authorized to sell it. A True B False - Answer - b Which of the following should be disposed of in drums and properly labeled? A Clothing B First Responder Operations Level - Answer - c What allows possible sources or methods of releases to be identified? A Site map B Facility survey C Critique of response and follow-up D Site control - Answer - b Where are decontamination procedures described? A Site map B Fire department website C Off-site ERP D Site safety and security plan - Answer - d The ERP must include a diagram of the facility showing routes of escape and assembly areas, along with a procedure to determine which route to use. A True B False - Answer - a Critique of response and follow-up should include which of the following questions? A Who was there? B What went right? C What day did it happen? D How long did the incident last? - Answer - b Flammable and combustible materials are classified by their: A Flash points B Toxicity C Evaporation rates D Volumes - Answer - a Which of the following is NOT a basic component of fire? A Oxygen B Fuel C Heat D Electricity - Answer - D Bonding and grounding only work if you have a continuous ________ connection A Metal-to-air B Metal-to-metal C Air-to-metal D Air-to-air - Answer - B Storage rooms for flammable and combustible liquids should have ventilation systems that completely re-supply the air at least ____ times an hour. A 2 B 4 C 6 D 16 - Answer - NOT A NOT B You should maintain an aisle at least ________ wide in a storage room. A 1 foot (0.3 meters) B 2 feet (0.6 meters) C 3 feet (0.9 meters) D 5 feet (1.5 meters) - Answer - C Cabinets storing flammable and combustible liquids should be: A Bomb-proof B Conspicuously labeled C Located underground D Registered with local police - Answer - B How much highly flammable liquid can you have outside a storage room or cabinet in a given building or fire area? A 25 gallons (95 liters) B 50 gallons (190 liters) C 100 gallons (379 liters) D 200 gallons (757 liters) - Answer - A Containers that house flammable and combustible liquids should always be: A Stored outside buildings and away from power lines B Painted red and yellow and labeled correctly C Designed and certified by appropriate safety organizations D Stacked as high as possible within storage areas - Answer - C After cleaning a spill of flammable liquids, what should you immediately do? A Place the rags you used in an appropriate covered container B Leave the rags you used out in the open so they can quickly dry C Put the rags you used in an uncovered wood container D Throw out the rags you used in tied-off plastic bags or recycle them - Answer - NOT D, NOT B Appropriate ________ should be available where flammable and combustible liquids are stored. A Video surveillance equipment B Pen and paper C Extinguishers and hoses D All of the above - Answer - C A continuously discharged portable fire extinguisher can run out of extinguishing agent in: A Seconds B Thirty minutes C Hours D Days - Answer - a Which of the following is a question you should ask yourself when deciding to fight or flee a fire? A Am I getting paid to do this? B How much money is the fire damage going to cost? C Is there a safe evacuation route? D Will this go on my performance review? - Answer - c You see a fire. It looks small, but smoke is filling the room rapidly. What should you do? A Find the source of the smoke B Fight the fire while wearing a respirator C Flee the area immediately D Wait for instructions from firefighters - Answer - c There is a small fire in your work area that involves a puddle of liquid leaking from a large drum of a flammable chemical. Should you fight or flee? A Fight B Flee - Answer - b You are fighting a fire. You look back toward your evacuation route and notice that flames are getting close to the door you planned to use. What should you do? A Evacuate immediately B Get another fire extinguisher C Lie on the floor, below the smoke D Stay and fight the fire - Answer - a Fire extinguishers work by removing one or more of these elements of fire: ________, oxygen and fuel. A Argon C Stand next to it until your supervisor arrives D Wait until the end of your shift and notify your site's environment, health, safety and radiological control personnel - Answer - a Hydrogen sulfide is a toxic, potentially deadly gas that is formed in nature when organic materials decay, and also: A As a by-product of some industrial and chemical processes B In certain chemical cleaning solutions C In home appliances, such as stoves and refrigerators D When wood or lumber burns - Answer - a Hydrogen sulfide smells like ________. A Burnt popcorn B Curdled milk C Fermented grains D Rotten eggs - Answer - d What is the SAFEST type of respiratory protection to use when you work in atmospheres that contain hydrogen sulfide? A Air-purifying respirator B Disposable particulate mask C Escape-only air pack D Supplied-air respirator - Answer - d If a co-worker passes out after being exposed to hydrogen sulfide, what is your FIRST AND MOST IMPORTANT task? A Calling for help B Ensuring your own safety C Moving your co-worker to a safe area D Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation - Answer - b Which of the following is a health effect of hydrogen sulfide? A Heightened sense of smell B Labored breathing C Rapid weight gain D Internal bleeding - Answer - b Eyewashes and emergency showers can be substitutes for: A Good work practices B Reading Safety Data Sheets C Safety precautions D None of the above - Answer - d The longer chemicals stay on the skin or eyes, the deeper they can penetrate, and the: A Less likely you are to have permanent injury B Less likely you are to need medical assistance C More effective an eyewash or emergency shower is D More harm they can cause - Answer - d Permanent scarring and other long-term effects can occur just seconds after chemical exposure. A True B False - Answer - a When you have been exposed to a chemical, immediately flushing the exposed area typically: A Cures any damage B Increases damage C Prevents any damage D Reduces damage - Answer - d Signs of neglected eyewashes and emergency showers include: A Adequate water pressure B Dust covers on nozzles C Low fluid levels in self-contained eyewashes D Operable activating valves - Answer - c The area underneath an emergency shower should be: A Covered with a tarp or cloth B Filled with boxes C Free from obstructions D Impassable - Answer - c The water flow through an eyewash or emergency shower should be: A Blue B Clear C Cloudy D Slightly colored - Answer - b Eyewash water pressure should be strong enough that the water streams: A Do not touch each other B Meet in the middle but do not overshoot the bowl C Shoot straight into the air D Shoot past each other and overshoot the bowl - Answer - b For most exposures, the recommended flushing time is ________ or longer. A 15 seconds B 5 minutes C 15 minutes D 60 minutes - Answer - c Ideally, the water coming out of an eyewash or emergency shower should be: A Cold B Hot C Steamy D Tepid - Answer - d How often should you drain and refill portable eyewash units with refillable reservoirs? A Daily B As frequently as the manufacturer recommends C Yearly D Never - Answer - b The best time to learn where eyewashes and emergency showers are and how to use them is: A Before an emergency B During an emergency C After an emergency D Never - Answer - a While you are using an eyewash, your eyes should be: A Closed B Crossed C Open D Shielded - Answer - c What is the best way to find the flushing time for a given chemical? A Perform an Internet search for best practices B Look in your Human Resources policy manual C Read the Safety Data Sheet D There is no need to investigate, because the time is always 15 minutes - Answer - c If your clothes have absorbed a chemical, you may need to: A Incinerate them B Stand still until the chemical dries C Remove them D Avoid using the emergency shower - Answer - c Experience gives us an advantage because it: A May prepare us to react B Prevents all mistakes C Replaces any procedures that are in place D Takes the place of safety equipment - Answer - a You can rely on personal protective equipment and machine safety devices to protect you from incidental contact with dangerous equipment. A True B False - Answer - b Increased body temperature and physical discomfort promote irritability, anger and other emotional states, which may cause workers to: A Overlook safety procedures B Focus carefully on hazardous tasks C Work quickly and more efficiently D Remain mentally alert - Answer - a Juan has been working in the hot sun all day. He begins acting delirious. His temperature is extremely hot and his skin is dry and red. What might he be suffering from? A Heat rash B Heat cramps C Heat exhaustion D Heat stroke - Answer - d Jaime is working in a hot, humid environment. She complains about uncomfortable, itchy spots on her arm. What might she be suffering from? A Heat rash B Heat cramps C Heat exhaustion D Heat stroke - Answer - a ________ exposure to heat helps the body become accustomed to higher environmental temperatures. A Extreme B Immediate C Minimal D Gradual - Answer - d Heat disorders in general are LESS likely to occur among workers who are: A Required to work without time to adjust to the heat B Able to acclimate to the heat C Away from hot environments for a while D Accustomed to lower temperatures - Answer - b Even when safety precautions are taken and policies are followed, heat stress and related illnesses can occur. Therefore: A Workers must watch out for each other, because a co-worker may need help without realizing it B Employees should work alone in isolated areas C A supervisor is the only person permitted to request aid for the symptoms of heat stress D Water should be reserved for people who perform the most strenuous work - Answer - a During heat waves and when temperatures soar above 90 °F (32 °C), it is recommended that: A People work as quickly as possible B Shaded rest areas be replaced by water coolers C A supervisor remains on-site to observe employees or a "buddy system" is implemented to ensure no one works alone D Providing aid to workers is not considered until an emergency occurs - Answer - not b Which of the following can help you maintain a high level of heat tolerance? A Consuming caffeine on hot days B Getting sufficient sleep C Working double shifts D Wearing dark-colored clothing - Answer - b Which of the following is a good way to warm yourself when it is cold outside? A Drink alcoholic beverages to make your body temperature closer to the outside temperature B Keep an electric heater plugged in and on at all times C Stay as still as possible while in your house D Wear warm clothing, such as sweaters, to maintain body heat - Answer - d If your skin and tissue is frozen, your body part may feel: A Itchy B Sweaty C Numb D Sticky - Answer - c If someone has been exposed to cold and is ________, call for medical help immediately. A confused B fidgeting C shivering D talkative - Answer - a You are walking along a sidewalk when you accidentally step in a puddle of icy water. Your shoes and socks are soaked. What should you do as soon as possible? A Call for emergency help B Change into dry clothing C Jump around D No action is needed - Answer - b If your fingers are numb and discolored after you've been in the cold, you should hold them close to a fireplace or radiator to quickly warm them up. A True B False - Answer - b A pre-job briefing informs workers of: A Activities that are going on around the entire site B Controls that are absent C Safety issues to keep in mind while working D The cost of the work to be performed - Answer - c When should a pre-job briefing take place? Before the job begins and: A At the end of the job B Whenever there is a significant change in working conditions C At the beginning of the month D Every morning - Answer - not d A pre-job briefing could cover electrical, mechanical and environmental conditions; obstructions in the area; and: A Brands of equipment B Project budget C Worker qualifications D Working space constraints - Answer - d Who should conduct a pre-job briefing? A The supervisor or lead worker B The site or facility owner C Any worker who has a safety concern D A local government representative - Answer - a Document the pre-job briefing to include: A Anticipated rest break times B The address where the briefing took place C Names of attendees D Phone numbers of attendees - Answer - c