IAHSS Exam With 100% Correct And Verified Answers 2024, Exams of Advanced Education

Download IAHSS Exam With 100% Correct And Verified Answers 2024 and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! IAHSS Exam With 100% Correct And Verified Answers 2024 Schedule I Substances - Correct Answer-LSD, Herion, and Methaqulone Schedule II Substances - Correct Answer-Morphine, Fentanyl, cocaine, methadone, and meperidine (Demerol) Schedule III Substances - Correct Answer-Anabolic Steroids, Codeine, combinations with Hydrocodone, or Oxycodone (the pain medications OxyContin, Percodan, Vicodin, and Percocet, Tussionex Suspension cough syrup, and paregoric. Schedule IV Substances - Correct Answer-Darvon, Valium, Xanax, and Phenobarbital. Schedule V Substances - Correct Answer-Cough medications with codeine, and diarrhea medications, combining diphenoxylate and atropine. Fire Triangle - Correct Answer-Fuel, Heat, Oxygen Seven Signs of Terrorism - Correct Answer-1. Surveillance 2. Suspicious questioning, 3. Test of Security, 4. Acquiring supplies and assets, 5. Suspicious people or activity, 6. Dry runs, 7. Deploying assets and getting into positions. Bomb Threat Plan: Basic Steps - Correct Answer-1. Take preventive measures, 2. Establish authority-via Incident Command, 3. Gather as much information as possible as the threat is received, 4. Search for the Bomb, 5. Evacuate, as appropriate, 6. Terminate response, 7. Document and debrief. Three main security preventive measures to deter those who would bring a bomb to your facility - Correct Answer-1. Control access by locking sensitive areas (e.g. computer rooms, air handlers, boiler rooms, telecommunication areas, and loading docks. 2. Use deterrents such as lighting, fences, cameras, and detection devices. 3. Identify suspicious individuals and their behaviors. Communication Do's and Don'ts during a bomb search - Correct Answer-1. Do use the existing telephone system or 2. runners, but not with cell phones or two way radios. Don't use Cell phones or two way radios because they can detonate the bomb. Questions on the Telephone Bomb Threat Checklist - Correct Answer-1. When is the bomb going to explode? 2. Where is the bomb? 3. What does it look like? 4. What kind of bomb is it? 5. What will cause it to explode? 6. Why was the bomb placed? 7. Where are you calling from? 8. What is your name? 9. What is your address? 10. Why are you calling me? 11. Why would you want to hurt innocent people Emergency Operations Plan serves what 3 purposes - Correct Answer-1. Provides a written plan to guide the facility's respose to the emergency. 2. Outlines the organizational structure for managing the response. 3. Outlines how the organization will deal with 6 critical areas identified by the Joint Commission. Emergency Plan's 6 critical areas. - Correct Answer-1. Communications 2. Resources and assets 3. security and safety 4. staff 5. Utilities 6. Patient Care The Joint Commission requirements on exercises to the emergency plan - Correct Answer-1. At least 2 exercises must be completed a year. 2. One exercise per year must provide for an influx of simulated patients. 3. One excercise per year must be participation in a community-wide exercise. 4. One exercise per year must be an escalating event in which the community is not able to support the healthcare facility. 5. An actual emergency response may be substitued for an exercise. Common Causes and Effects of Civil Disturbances - Correct Answer-Civil disturbance- also called civil disorder or civil unrest-is a general term used by law enforcement to describe disturbances of a group. Freedom of Assembly - Correct Answer-Freedom of assembly is the individual right to come together with other individuals to collectively express, promote, pursue, and defend common interests. Civil Disorder - Correct Answer-Civil Disorder is a public disturbance by three or more people involving acts of violence that cause immediate danger, damage, or injury to others or their property. Security's Role during Civil Disturbance - Correct Answer-1. To protect the perimeter of the facility. 2. To ensure clear access for emergency vehicles, employees, patients, visitors , and deliveries. Response Plan - Correct Answer-Needed to effectively manage and minimize the potential for negative outcomes and developing the framework needed to respond to a civil disturbance. Key Assumptions to Address in the Written Response Plan - Correct Answer-1. Disturbances will adversely effect facility operations. 2. Access to the facility will affected: patients and employees will have difficulty reaching the facility; delivery of supplies will be difficult. 3. Response by the police and fire to the facility may be delayed and will likely be under-resourced at first. 4. Availability or adequate staffing may be affected. 5. Facility-wide lockdown with restricted access will be implemented. 6. Media will be present and may need to be controlled and managed in a separate location. 7. Planning and coordination will be an ongoing activity based on the changing nature of the incident. 8. Coordination with local agencies will occur, including law enforcement and public safety agencies. Arrest - Correct Answer-As it relates to an arrest probable cause exists when there is sufficient evidence for a reasonable person to believe that a crime has been, or is being committed by the suspect. Search and Seizure - Correct Answer-As it relates to a search and seizure, probable cause is sufficient evidence for a reasonable person to believe that a certain contraband, evidence, or fruit of a crime may be found at a specific location. Reasonable Suspicion - Correct Answer-Reasonable Suspicion is the amount of evidence a sworn officer needs to make a "stop" or conduct a "frisk." The amount of evidence required is less than probable cause but more than a mere hunch. Ability to Detain or Arrest - Correct Answer-Your power to detain or arrest depends on 1. The illegal behavior of the suspect. 2. The amount of force of evidence available to you , and 3. whether you are acting as a private citizen or law enforcement officer. Non-sworn Security Officers ability to detain - Correct Answer-Non-sworn Security Officers have a citizen's power to detain others. In general they main detain an individual when a felony has "in fact" been committed in their presence. Non sworn Security Officers ability to detain for Assault - Correct Answer-In some states, a non sworn security officer may detain an individual for an assault committed in the officer's presence, a breach of the peace, or a crime involving theft or destruction of property. Reasonable and Necessary Force - Correct Answer-As a general rule, a security officer is entitled to that force that is reasonable and necessary to defend one's self or another from serious bodily harm. Authority to interview and interrogate; Interview - Correct Answer-To interview is to question a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect. Interrogate - Correct Answer-To interrogate is to question a party whom the officer suspects of criminal involvement. Custodial interrogation - Correct Answer-Custodial interrogation involves questioning a suspect under the circumstances wherein the suspect would feel under control of the officer. Sworn Officers dealing with Custodial Interrogation - Correct Answer-Sworn officers are bound by the US Constitution. They must advise suspects of their Miranda rights. This includes the right to counsel, the right to have a counsel appointed if the suspect cannot afford an attorney, the right to remain silent, and the notice that anything the suspect says can be use against the suspect latter in court. Non Sworn Officers dealing with Custodial Interrogation - Correct Answer-Except in a few states (those that have held that private security officers must abide by the Constitutional rights of suspects), non-sworn officers are not bound to provide suspects with the Miranda warnings. Abusive Techniques - Correct Answer-Abusive techniques may subject the officer to civil and possibly criminal liability. Examples of Abusive Techniques - Correct Answer-Excessive length; denial of restroom breaks; denial of the right to leave; verbal threats of arrest unless the suspect confesses; physical threats; other forms of intimidation to solicit a confession Employee Representatives - Correct Answer-When conducting an interviews with union employees, security officers need to be aware of the Weingarten rule announced by the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB). Under this rule, union members are entitled to have a union representative present for meetings that might result in disciplinary action. Sanctions for Constitutional, Civil Rights, and Criminal Violations The 3 main areas: - Correct Answer-1. Exclusion of evidence obtained unconstitutionally, 2. Civil and criminal liability for violation of a party's civil rights, 3. criminal prosecution for illegal acts. Civil (tort) Law Sanctions: 2 major categories - Correct Answer-Intentional Torts-A party purposefully commits an act that harms another Negligent Torts- A party has legal duty act reasonably and fails to do so; as a result; another is injured. Common intentional torts that security officers might commit when comforting suspicious persons. - Correct Answer-Assault, battery, false arrest, false imprisonment, invasion of privacy, malicious prosecution, defamation of character, intentional infliction of emotional distress, negligence. False Arrest - Correct Answer-False arrest may occur when one party, without probable cause, arrest another party. Battery - Correct Answer-Battery may occur when one party touches another party in a manner that is without consent and offensive to a reasonable person. False Imprisonment - Correct Answer-False Imprisonment may occur when a one party wrongfully denies another voluntary freedom of movement. Invasion of Privacy - Correct Answer-Invasion of privacy may occur when a party intrudes upon the reasonable expectation of privacy of another and the intrusion is one that would be highly offensive to a reasonable person. Malicious Prosecution - Correct Answer-Malicious prosecution may occur when one party, without probable cause and for a malicious purpose, initiates or continues criminal charges against another and there is a decision in the criminal proceedings in favor of the accused. Defamation of Character - Correct Answer-Defamation of character may occur when one party makes an untruthful statement about another party that is harmful to the named party's reputation, to a third "dis-interested" party. Privileged Communication - Correct Answer-A privileged communication may be either absolute or conditional. In general, comments made in judicial proceedings are absolutely privileged. Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress - Correct Answer-Intentional infliction of emotional distress may occur when a party's malicious or outrageous manner leads to severe emotional distress in another. Negligence - Correct Answer-Negligence may occur when a party has a legal duty to act reasonably, the party fails to do so, and this failure is the proximate cause of injury to another. Compensatory Damages - Correct Answer-Compensatory damages are awarded by a court to compensate the plaintiff for actual losses. Punitive Damages - Correct Answer-Punitive damages mat be awarded if the court finds the defendant acted maliciously or outrageously. Respondeat Superior - Correct Answer-Respondeat superior, a principal (the institution) is vicariously liable for the acts of its agent (the security officer) that are committed within the scope of employment. Some facts on private security - Correct Answer-There are no federal laws regulating private security; 10 states have absolutely no regulations for security guards; 29 states do not require any training; 16 states do not require criminal background checks; virtually no states have standards or regulations for proprietary or in-house security officers, yet there are approximately 400, 000 security officers nation-wide. Healthcare Security's four broad categories - Correct Answer-"Private" police: Contracted security: Proprietary security: Conservator of the peace "Private" Police - Correct Answer-Many healthcare facilities are associated with a governmental agency or authority. These facilities may have their security provided by sworn law enforcement officers. The employer must provide training, Material Safety Data Sheets (MDSD) and procedures necessary for safe handling in the event of an exposure, the employer must provide prompt medical treatment and appropriate medical monitoring to minimize the effects of the exposure. What is on the MSDS? - Correct Answer-Chemical name, manufacturer's name and address, physical characteristics, health hazards, fire and explosion data, personal protective equipment recommened, medical treatment if exposed. What do security officers need to know when respoding to a chemical emergency? - Correct Answer-Proper training, know the location of the MSDS, know the hazard before entering the area, and be protected from it, know the the appropriate clean-up procedures, know the access allowed during an incident. Blood-borne Pathogens - Correct Answer-Being exposed to blood or body fluids of another person presents a potential biological hazard. How can security offiers be exposed to blood and bodily fluids while on duty? - Correct Answer-When you are assisting in the emergency department, when you are responding to nedical emergencies, when you are restraining combative patient, when you are handling biohazardous material. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Codes - Correct Answer-NFPA 101: the Life Safety Code; NFPA 1: the Uniform Fire Code; NFPA 13: The standard for the installation of sprinkler systems; NFPA 72: the National Fire Alarm Code: NFPA 70: the National Electrical Code- the most widely used code in the world. NFPA and compliance for funding - Correct Answer-The US Department of Health and Human Services (HSS) requires all healthcare facilities that receive Medicare and Medicaid funds to meet the 2000 edition of the NFPA 101, the Life safety Code. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) To assure the safety and health of America's workers the EPA has been given these responsibilities. - Correct Answer-To set and enforce standards To provide training, outreach, and education To encourgage continual improvement in workplace safety. Common interactions between Security and Police - Correct Answer-Weapons, gangs activity, and violence, in the emergency department; Reminders of facilty policies and procedures; Prisoner patients; Relase of property, and personal effects; requests to locate employess. Joint Commission' 4 FStandards for prisoner patients - Correct Answer-1. How to interact with patients, 2. Procedures for responding to unusual clinical events and incidents, 3. The hospital's channels of clinical, security, and administrative communication, 4. The ddistinctions between adminstrative and clincal seclusion and restraint. Regulatory and Governmental Agencies- These agencies have jurisdiction over the manner in which a healthcare facility operates. Among these agencies are the following: - Correct Answer-Staee and fire marshals; state and local health departments, building inspectors, EPA, OSHA, The joint commission. Healthcare organizations-Financial terms - Correct Answer-For Profit, Not for Profit, Government-run or government-supported. Healthcare locations and the comminties they serve. Three most basic categories: - Correct Answer-Urban Facility-within a city. Suburban Facility-just outside a city. Rural Facility-not near a large city or town. Specialized Facilty - Correct Answer-Some healthcare facilities focus on a particular medical speciality or patient population. Children's Hospital (also know as a pediatric facilty) Surgery center; Physchiatric facility; Rehabilitation hospital; Long term care; Transitional care facilty Business Plan - Correct Answer-Every Healthcare organization follows a business plan. The puropse of this plan is to provide consistent management and direction for the healthcare orfanization. Organizational Structure - Correct Answer-The basic structure of a typical healthcare organizaition is a pyramid-shaped structure. Four different types of employees in a typical healthcare organization - Correct Answer- Physicians, Employees, Volunteers, Contractors. Physicians - Correct Answer-Doctors, sometimes called providers. Healthcare Employees - Correct Answer-Employees in a healthcare operation can include nurses, technicians, laboratory specialists, housekeeping employees, maintenance personnel, nutritionist and food service workers, nursing assistants, business office personnel, admitting assistants, pharamacists, and security officers. Managed Care - Correct Answer-Manged Care is a type of health insurance coverage. In a managed care plan, primary care physicians, nurse managers, or other gatekeepers oversee and help control how healthcare is delivered to patients. Managed Care and the difernt types of manged care - Correct Answer-Preferred Provider Organization, Point-of-service; Health Maintenance Organization. Perferred Provider Organization (PPO) - Correct Answer-Members have the option of receiving services from healthcare providers who are not part of the perferred network. Point-of-service (POS) - Correct Answer-Members freely choose their physicians and hospitals. If the provider is not part of the network, the member has a higher co-pay. Health Maintencance Orgaization (HMO) - Correct Answer-This is a health plan that receives a discount from hospitals, physicians, and other providers based on volume of patients. Patient's Visitors - Correct Answer-Patient's visitors should be thought of in two distinct groups: family and non-family. Patient and Family-centered care - Correct Answer-Patient and family centered care is an innovative approach to planning, delivery, and evaluation of health care that is grounded in mutually beneficial partnerships among health care patients, families and providers. In this care model family members do not typically have visiting hours. Vendors - Correct Answer-Vendors can also be visitors coming into the facility. Vendors typically have access to some very sensitive areas and infrastructure of the facility. Yet the healthcare system their working in typically has little or no knowledge of the backgrounds of vendor personnel. Required Skills - Correct Answer-Modern healthcare security professionals must be of good character and socially adept. You need superior communication and people skills. Evaluation Surveys - Correct Answer-Security Departments often use questionnaires to measure their effectiveness. Accurate unbiased results are the most useful. Benchmarking - Correct Answer-Benchmarking involves finding other healthcare security organizations of similar size and style and performing a detailed comparison between the facilities. Comparisons are made on cost-effectiveness and the level of services offered. Almost every operational aspect of the involved department is compared and studied. What should the most primary overriding concern of any security department be? - Correct Answer-The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. Three facets of healthcare customer relations - Correct Answer-Public Relations; Employee Relations; Labor Relations. Public Relations - Correct Answer-A public relations program consists of strategies and tactics that accomplish the following: Communicate key messages; Respond to positive responding personnel? - Correct Answer-How long they are expected to maintain their function Medical identity theft, in which a criminal uses another's identity to receive treatment, can result in what? - Correct Answer-Medical costs charged to the identity theft victim, who did not receive the treatment Potential insurance issues for the person whose personal information was used A potentially dangerous situation by creation of a "stealth" patient with conflicting information Which agency governs radio transmissions? - Correct Answer-Federal Communications Commission (FCC) Which of the following is the traditional style of uniform? - Correct Answer-Military or police What is the most important piece of equipment a security officer carries? - Correct Answer-Two-way radio Which of the following is NOT a common type of physical barrier? - Correct Answer- Lighting Which of the following is NOT an important risk measurement tool? - Correct Answer- Irregular patrols by untrained personnel Employees of which department are found all over the facility and often unlock all the doors to the department they are working in at the time? - Correct Answer- Housekeeping Theft of film for its silver content is a risk for which department? - Correct Answer- Radiology A security threat to the facility usually involves which sources? - Correct Answer-Internal and External Which of the following is NOT a function security provides for the business office/ financial services area? - Correct Answer-Refunding payment True or False: Escorts for valuables and cash should be at the same time each day and should follow the same route through the facility. - Correct Answer-False The act of a patient using someone else's information to fraudulently obtain medical services is called what? - Correct Answer-Medical identity theft Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the business office? - Correct Answer-Environmental Services When placing a person in handcuffs: - Correct Answer-Place hands behind the back Which of the following should be protected by bollards? - Correct Answer-Hydrants Access to patient information is limited to those who "need to know" by which of the following? - Correct Answer-Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Which of the following are examples of schedule V substances? - Correct Answer- Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine) Which of the following are examples of schedule IV substances? - Correct Answer- Darvon, Valium, Xanax Which of the following are examples of schedule III substances? - Correct Answer- Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances? - Correct Answer- Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone Which of the following are examples of schedule I substances? - Correct Answer- Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance? - Correct Answer-Step up to the person(s) Which of the following describes the inner zone in the theory of protection? - Correct Answer-Inside the structure that is being protected Which of the following describes the middle zone in the theory of protection? - Correct Answer-Footprint of the actual structure Which of the following greatly improves the effectiveness of an access control system? - Correct Answer-Signage Which of the following describes the basic functions of lock sets? - Correct Answer- Office, Classroom, Storage, Privacy, Passage Which of the following describes the outer zone in the theory of protection? - Correct Answer-Generally, the boundary of the property What is the number one factor in determining if the security force should be armed with firearms? - Correct Answer-A needs assessment What is the best way to deter identity theft? - Correct Answer-Preventative education Which of the following describes when the criminal uses the victim's personal information to create or open new financial accounts in the victim's name? - Correct Answer-Account hijacking Which of the following is NOT a common type of identity theft? - Correct Answer-False identity Which of the following is NOT a basic feature of the Incident Command System? - Correct Answer-Rigid, fixed use of personnel In an Incident Command System, which Command Staff position is the conduit for information to internal and external stakeholders, including the media, or other organizations seeking information directly from the incident or event? - Correct Answer- Information Officer In an Incident Command System, which General Staff position conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization, and directs all tactical resources? - Correct Answer-Operations Which position is the only one always staffed in Incident Command System applications? - Correct Answer-Incident Commander Depending on the type and size of the incident or event, the Incident Commander may need to designate personnel to provide information, safety, and liaison services for the entire organization. What are these personnel called? - Correct Answer-Command staff When incidents expand, authority for performance of these functions may need to be delegated: Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration. What are the personnel who perform these four management functions called? - Correct Answer- General staff Identify the object of the Safety Management Program. - Correct Answer-To improve organizational performance To minimize accidents and injuries To reduce or control costs for Workers' Compensation To assist in compliance documentation There are several external organizations that healthcare institutions collaborate with to maintain a safe environment. What is the common mission among them? - Correct Answer-Continuously promote, improve, and assure health and safety A class D fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire? - Correct Answer- Flammable metals fire Which of the following do NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities? - Correct Answer-International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) The areas with the highest potential for hostage taking are: - Correct Answer- Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics, Pharmacy The security department is considered which type of department? - Correct Answer- Support Which of the following defines vulnerability? - Correct Answer-Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage Which is the most common source of identity theft from healthcare facilities? - Correct Answer-Unattended purses and wallets The four phases in Emergency Management are: - Correct Answer-Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery The fourth stage of a fire - after the incipient stage, smoldering stage, and the flame stage - is what? - Correct Answer-Heat stage Which of the following is NOT one of the seven signs of terrorism? - Correct Answer- Communication How many room sweeps are suggested to properly conduct a bomb search? - Correct Answer-4 What are the two key elements in civil disturbance planning? - Correct Answer-Planning and Preparation Hostage situations have which of the following characteristics? - Correct Answer-Events with no predictable chronology; People being held against their will; Release contingent upon demands Which of the following is the definition of an interview? - Correct Answer-Questioning a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect The Joint Commission Environment of Care Standards addresses how many areas? - Correct Answer-Seven Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff? - Correct Answer-The Joint Commission (TJC) According to statistics published by the National Association of Security Companies, how many states have NO regulations for security officers? - Correct Answer-Ten Which of the following is NOT a misdemeanor? - Correct Answer-Burglary The measurable indications that workplace violence programs should include are: - Correct Answer-Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers The Joint Commission (TJC) requires how many disaster drills each year? - Correct Answer-Two Which is the best method to control a bomb threat? - Correct Answer-Prepare before the threat is received Standard precautions are a set of precautions that the CDC had called for in order to minimize the risk of infection. Which of the following is NOT covered under standard precautions? - Correct Answer-Sweat Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic purposes of the Incident Command System? - Correct Answer-Assuring constant communication between agencies What two things should be used regardless of the type of vehicle patrol used? - Correct Answer-Preventative maintenance programs and sift-by-shift inspections What three components make up the Access Control Triad? - Correct Answer- Identification systems, staff education & training, physical security safeguards Which of the following defines property risk: - Correct Answer-Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment, and supplies Which of the following is a security issue for employees of support or ancillary services? - Correct Answer-Isolated at night Business offices are often measured by: - Correct Answer-Accounts receivable days (A/R days) What are the two types of criminal acts? - Correct Answer-Misdemeanors and Felonies According to IAHSS Hospital Crime Survey, assaults have - Correct Answer-Increased Which accreditation body provides standards to address Environment of Care, Emergency Management, and Life Safety in the healthcare environment? - Correct Answer-The Joint Commission (TJC) The most primary overriding concern of any security department should be - Correct Answer-The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility The basic structure of a typical healthcare organization resembles a - Correct Answer- Pyramid Good working relationships are based on which of the following? - Correct Answer- Mutual respect and an. Understanding of each agency's basic function. Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff? - Correct Answer-The Joint Commission. Which of the following is NOT an example of a way law enforcement can help healthcare security personnel? - Correct Answer-Taking over the. Situation when not asked. Which of the following is NOT a recommended method of building a good relationship with law enforcement? - Correct Answer-Allowing entry into a crime scene. Which agency publishes the Life Safety Code? - Correct Answer-National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). An MSDS is what? - Correct Answer-A Material Safety Data Sheet. Which standard of the Occupational Safety and Healthcare Administration (OSHA) directly affects healthcare? - Correct Answer-Hazard communication. Which of the following is a physical environment consideration, as defined by the joint Commission? - Correct Answer-Life safety. Why it is important that a medical record be kept secure and confidential. - Correct Answer-If released, it may influence a person's ability to obtain credit, gain admission to educational institutions, and gain employment. Why is it important for security and clinical staff to understand the typical profile of an abductor? - Correct Answer-To design the facility's security to make it as hard as possible for the typical abductor to kidnap a child. Why are departments and units that provide care for infant and pediatric patients of special concern to security officers? - Correct Answer-In addition to the heartbreak the family experiences, an abduction brings a swarm of reporters, bad publicity, and law enforcement agencies to the facility. Who needs to be trained about the facility's system for protecting children from abduction? - Correct Answer-Mothers, husbands, significant others, and family; Nursing on affected units; Security; All facility employees Which statement best describes the ways to secure the medical records department? - Correct Answer-Use one of the following access control systems: Lock and key, combination locks, badge readers with access cards, bio-metrics. Which of the following is in a medical record? - Correct Answer-Information about physical health. Information about family relationships. Information about sexual behavior. Information about substance abuse. A good report writer has a balanced blend of which of these? - Correct Answer-Attitude, skills, knowledge. Which of the following is an example of a tort committed by a security officer that may result in civil litigation and liability? - Correct Answer-Excessive use of force; False arrest; Malicious prosecution. Which of the following is NOT a reason that management would close an investigation? - Correct Answer-The situation was corrected. Which of the following is a role of the National Center for Missing children and Exploited Children? - Correct Answer-Provide things that healthcare organizations can do to "harden the target". Develop a profile of the typical kidnapper. Provide suggested training for nursing, security, and other personal. Which governing body's legal statute governs whether an interview may be tape- recorded? - Correct Answer-State. Which of the following types of questions should NOT be used in an interview? - Correct Answer-Leading. Which of the following is NOT one of the security officer's cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview? - Correct Answer-Impatience. All investigations seek answers to how many fundamental questions? - Correct Answer- Six. Which of the following does NOT describe how security can staff the emergency department or a behavioral patient care unit? - Correct Answer-Security has no role in these areas. What is the overall goal in using any physical intervention? - Correct Answer-To pursue, seek compliance, or impede a subject. What is the force continuum? - Correct Answer-The force applied by an officer to a subject to meet the continuing escalation of force. Which of the following do the initials CPTED stand for? - Correct Answer-Crime prevention through environmental design. What is your primary goal on using tactical evaluation? - Correct Answer-To determine the level of threat. During a contact, what is the general recommended distance between you and the individual. - Correct Answer-4 to 6 feet. What is the key factor in tactical deployment? - Correct Answer-Control of distance. When speaking with a patient, visitor or staff member, you should always be mindful of what characteristics of your speech? - Correct Answer-Tone, variation, and cadence. Which of the following is NOT an IAHSS course. - Correct Answer-Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Which organization developed a code of ethics for healthcare security? - Correct Answer-International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety. (IAHSS) Non-verbal communication accounts for what percentage of communication? - Correct Answer-94 percent. The self-disciplined officer does NOT do which of the following? - Correct Answer-Call a routine duty a waste of time. Which of the following is a professional attribute? - Correct Answer-Image, Posture, Attitude, Initiative. Which of the following does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person? - Correct Answer-Must be able to inflict pain. Which factor can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient? - Correct Answer-Food selection. Which of the following items is NOT security equipment? - Correct Answer-CPR pocket mask. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest? - Correct Answer- Avoiding or minimizing injury. Generally, a security officer does what during a robbery? - Correct Answer-Observes and reports. Which accreditation body mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment? - Correct Answer-The Joint Commission. Which of the following should a security officer NOT do when interacting with a visitor? - Correct Answer-Use sarcasm. Which is the most common location where missing patients are found. - Correct Answer-In the cafeteria or near an entrance. In which way is a security officer likely to interact with a patient? - Correct Answer- Picking up or returning patient's valuables; Investigating lost or stolen property; Helping resolve domestic disputes occurring at the facility. When an infant abduction is suspected, what should security's first response be? - Correct Answer-Immediately go to the property's exits, doors, garages, etc.. Stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in. Which trait or skill is NOT desirable for a security officer to possess? - Correct Answer- Ability to speak loudly. Security officers must interact in a professional manner with which group of people? - Correct Answer-Patients, Visitors, Employees, Physicians. What should facility employees do when they hear an announcement of a child abduction. - Correct Answer-Go to their assigned areas (doors, stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them. What patient information can be given to the security officer by a clinician - Correct Answer-Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer. Which one of these is an example of something you should do while patrolling? - Correct Answer-Let employees know you are in the area. Which type of patrol covers all areas equally with high visibility? - Correct Answer- Routine. Which of the following are the three key elements of a good patrol. - Correct Answer- Observation, perception and memory. Which is the most common patrol approach? - Correct Answer-Conspicuous. Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? - Correct Answer- Using the security vehicle to go off site. Failure of teams can usually be attributed to what? - Correct Answer-No clearly defined purpose or goals. Lack of employee buy-in to teams. Employees conditioned to value individual achievement. Project Teams - Correct Answer-A project team is temporary. It has both core members and affiliated members. Natural Work Team - Correct Answer-Is all the people who work in a specific work area. A security Department is a natural work team. Self Directed Work Team - Correct Answer-Shares administrative and management functions for a functional area. An example is a security team working only in the Emergency Department. Process Improvement Team - Correct Answer-Shares responsibilities or monitoring or controlling a work process. Uses full-time or part-time members. For maximum impact, is inter-disciplinary. For example, an inter-disciplinary team reviewing forensic patient admissions and stays in the healthcare organization draws its members from nursing, security, risk management, food services, and admissions. Management Team - Correct Answer-Represents independent functions and coordinates efforts and priorities across departmental or inter-disciplinary lines. The environment of care/safety committee is an example. The 5 stages in all teams - Correct Answer-1. Forming, 2. Storming, 3. Norming, 4. Performing, 5. Adjourning. The Forming Stage - Correct Answer-Teams go through the forming stage when the team is formed and when a new member joins the team. In this stage, the ground rules for future meetings are established as well as the mission, purpose, and goals of the team. The Storming Stage - Correct Answer-The storming stage is often marked by conflict. Team members are deciding the direction of the team and the roles and responsibilities of the team members. The conflict can be productive if team members are comfortable voicing their opinions and open enough to listen. The Norming Stage - Correct Answer-When norming occurs, conflicts from the previous stages have been resolved. Team members find they can work together to solve the tasks at hand. The Preforming Stage - Correct Answer-In this stage, the team displays the ability to work smoothly together. Decision making, troubleshooting, and clearly developed channels for disagreement and complaints are in position. The team deals with conflicts as they arise and can challenge each others idea's without it becoming personal. The Adjourning Stage - Correct Answer-The last stage is when the team breaks up after its goals are achieved. The trust and familiarity between members remain and can lessen the storming on future projects. Basic Functions of Patrol - Correct Answer-To provide excellent customer service, to prevent crime, accidents, and internal disasters, to deter and repress crime, to detect and apprehend criminals, to identify potential hazards and life safety concerns, to recover property, to provide miscellaneous services Types of Patrol - Correct Answer-Foot and vehicle patrol, Conspicuous and inconspicuous patrols, routines patrols and selective patrols, stakeouts, community policing Providing excellent customer service - Correct Answer-Your major role is to provide a service to patients, families, visitors, volunteers, and staff. Preventing Crime, accidents and internal disasters - Correct Answer-Identify, report, and correct the conditions that lead to crime, accidents, and internal disasters. Prevent opportunities for persons to commit crimes or for accidents to occur. Be proactive in identifying and resolving situations and issues before they become bigger problems. Deterring and Repressing Crime - Correct Answer-Be very visible-this reduces potential criminals' belief that they can get away with committing a crime and helps them feel they are likely to be apprehended. Intervene when a criminal act is observed or reported in progress. Detecting and Apprehending Criminals - Correct Answer-Catch criminals in the act, identify and observe suspects, make contact with potential witnesses who can provide information. Conspicuous patrols - Correct Answer-In these, you aim to be highly visible to others. Inconspicuous patrols - Correct Answer-In these you want to remain unnoticed by others. Community-oriented Policing or Patrolling - Correct Answer-To address the cause of crime and other community issues, some organizations use community-oriented policing and patrol. This nontraditional form of patrol is both a philosophical and management approach. The community, healthcare organization's administration, and security department work in partnership to solve problems proactively. Key elements in conducting patrols - Correct Answer-Observing, perceiving, remembering. Senses used in observing by importance - Correct Answer-Sight; hearing; smell; touch. Perception in regards to effective patrol - Correct Answer-Perception can be defined as a person's mental picture of a situation at any given point in time. Protective Equipment - Correct Answer-Protective vest; baton; chemical agent; handcuffs; pocket mask for CPR; firearm or stun gun; protective mouth and eye equipment; flashlight; latex and leather gloves; portable radio. Guidelines for use of force with defensive weapons - Correct Answer-Use should be defensive only; never use a weapon to threathen or coerce anyone. If weapons are used on a suspect, or innocent bystander, medical treatment must be provided, as required. Any use of weapons should be fully document in an incident report, including a clear explanation of why such force was necessary.