Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Advanced Education

Download Medical Terminology and Concepts and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! NCCT EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Title 1 of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) mandates that individuals with disabilities are: A) to be provided access to public services B) to be given opportunities for public housing C) not be discriminated against in obtaining employment D) to be provided means of telecommunication - Answer -Answer is C #2 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following health care issues is NOT covered under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) ? A) Increasing the probability of health insurance B) Addressing health care fraud and abuse C) standardizing the electronic transmission of health data D) Outlining payment of Medicare and Medicaid #3 Answer is A - Answer -Which of the following constitutes a breach of contract by a health care provider ? A) Discontinuing treatment because of the patient did not pay in a timely manner B) Discontinuing treatment because it is no longer needed C) Being formally discharged by the patient D) Withdrawing from the case due to patient noncompliance or an inability to serve the patient #4 Answer is C - Answer -Under the doctrine of respondeat superior, who can potentially be held legally responsible for an act of negligence by a medical assistant ? A) The medical assistant only B) The employee/provider only C) Both the medical assistant and the employer/provider D) The patient #5 Answer is B - Answer -Touching a patient in a manner to which they have not consented is considered a tort of A) invasion of privacy B) battery C) libel D) slander #6 Answer is D - Answer -All of the following minors ( under age 18) are considered emancipated EXCEPT a minor who is A) a member of the armed forces B) financially responsible and no longer under parental car C) married D) being tested for a sexually transmitted disease #7 Answer is A - Answer -Unless public safety is involved, what is required in all cases to release patient medical records after a subpoena is issued ? A) the patients written consent B) a court order C) a deposition D) an interrogatory #9 Answer is B - Answer -What normal patient right is suspended upon discovery of child abuse ? A) privacy B) confidentiality C) documentation D) standard of care #10 Answer is C - Answer -A POLST dorm is a type of A) document declaring durable power of attorney for health care B) document releasing a provider from liability under Good Samaritan laws C) living will or advance directive D) PSDA #11 Answer is C - Answer -Generally, medical assistants are permitted to do certain clinical procedures only under the supervision of an employer/provider because they are NOT A) certifies B) registered C) licenses D) certified, registered, or licensed #12 Answer is B - Answer -Which of the following best describes ethics ? A) individual choices relating to conduct B) personal values governing an individuals perceptions of right and wrong C) laws defining acceptable behavior D) creeds to live by #13 Answer is A - Answer -Bioethics is defined as A) any ethical matter that pertains to life and/or health care B) issues regarding abortion and the use of fetal tissue C) dealings with individuals who have committed sexual abuse or exploitation D) dealings with individuals who have committed physical or emotional abuse A) triggering of the parasympathetic nervous system B) activation of the "flight or fight" response C) releasing of adrenaline and other hormones into the bloodstream D) increased respiration rate #27 Answer is D - Answer -In order, what are the four stages of job burnout ? A) value, ambiguity, overload, conflict B) value, reality, dissatisfaction, detachment C) honeymoon, Dissatisfaction, reality, a sad state D) honeymoon, reality, dissatisfaction, a sad state #28 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following activities does NOT relieve stress ? A) goal setting B) meditation C) gladly accepting all assigned work D) taking time off for lunch or a break #29 Answer is D - Answer -The symptoms lethargy and weight loss can be associated with which of the following conditions ? A) AIDS B) cancer C) end stage renal disease D) all of the above #30 Answer is B - Answer -According to Dr. kubler-ross, what are the most likely stages of grief experienced by a patient with a life threatening illness, in order ? A) denial, bargaining, anger, depression, acceptance B) denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance C) acceptance of reality, experience of pain, adjustment, development of a new reality D) denial followed by any number of stages leading to acceptance in the end #31 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following management styles offers rewards to subordinates in terms of teamwork, recognition by other workers, and self- actualization ? A) authoritarian management B) micromanagement C) participatory management D) management by walking around #32 Answer is B - Answer -In an officer manager is using a teamwork approach, what is the first step in getting the team started ? A) brainstorming with the team B) developing a work statement with the team C) looking at benchmarks from other institutions D) developing a time frame and standards for goal achievement #33 Answer is C - Answer -As an office manager, when is the best time to carry out a salary review for employees ? A) at the same time as their performance evaluation B) When the employee asks for a salary review C) at the beginning of each year D) when the office experiences changes in funding #34 Answer is A - Answer -A medical assistant who functions as a Human Resources manager is responsible for developing and updating which of the following documents ? A) office policy manual B) office procedure manual C) HIPAA manual D) safety data sheets #35 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following actions during an initial employment interview is discouraged ? A) providing a time frame for decisions on hiring or additional interviews B) using predetermined questions during the interview C) providing a quiet and private environment for the interview D) offering the applicant the job at that time #36 Answer is B - Answer -The standard rate of overtime pay for administrative or clinical medical assistant is generally A) twice the regular hourly rate for each hour over 40 in a week B) at least one and one half times the regular hourly rate for each hour over 40 in a week C) not applicable because most medical assistant are considered exempt employees D) only applicable in terms of increasing benefits outside pay #37 Answer is A - Answer -Medical assistants and other individuals who handle finances in the medical office should A) be bonded B) purchase professional liability insurance C) be registered D) be licensed #38 Answer is B - Answer -When must a medical assistant functioning as an office manager pay federal and state taxes related to employee wages ? A) monthly B) quarterly C) at the end of the year D) upon filing of a- form #39 Answer is D - Answer -What types of nutrients can be converted into energy ? A) carbohydrates B) fats C) proteins D) all of the above #40 Answer is C - Answer -Unhealthy trans unsaturated fatty acids are found in A) olive and canola oils B) linoleum acid C) stick margarine D) unhydrogenated oils #41 Answer is B - Answer -Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding a persons basal metabolic rate (BMR) ? A) It is the level of energy needed when the body is resting B) it is higher in people who have a larger percentage of body fat C) it is elevated in children during growth spurts D) it is increase when a woman is pregnant #42 Answer is B - Answer -According to the new food pyramid issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture, what is the recommended daily intake of vegetables ? A) 2 cups B) 2-1/2 cups C) 3 cups D) 6 ounces #43 Answer is C - Answer -What are the main inorganic nutrients that act as antioxidants ? A) Vitamin K and folic acid B) Vitamin D and the minerals calcium and phosphorus C) Vitamins A, C, and E, and the mineral selenium D) several B-complex vitamins and the minerals phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur #44 Answer is A - Answer -What type of diabetes mellitus requires the individual to take insulin regularly throughout life ? A) Type 1 only B) Type @ only C) Types 1 and 2 D) Gestational #45 Answer is B - Answer -What is the cardiovascular disease in which arteries narrow due to inner deposition of cholesterol and fat ? A) Hypertension B) Atherosclerosis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Myocardial infarction #60 Answer is A - Answer -The purpose of immunotherapy for allergies is to use extracts of allergens to A) induce production of blocking 1gG class antibodies toward the allergens B) induce production of IgE class antibodies toward the allergens C) generally build up the immune system D) use immunomodulation to suppress the immune system #61 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following urinary tract disorders should be suspected if a patient has chills, fever, abrupt back pain, and tenderness in the suprapublic region ? A) cystitis B) glomerulonephritis C) pyelonephritis D) renal calculi #62 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following functions is NOT performed by the kidneys ? A) regulation of water and acid-base balance B) filtration of the blood to remove waste C) regulation of blood pressure D) collection and storage prior to urinary excretion #63 Answer is B - Answer -Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is caused by A) lesions in the mucous membranes in the stomach or duodenum B) return of stomach acid due to leakage of the valve leading to the stomach C) inflammation of diverticula D) inflammation of the ileum #64 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following statements about the pancreas is FALSE ? A) it functions as both an endocrine and an exocrine gland B) it is involved in the secretion of insulin C) It can develop stones, causing pain D) it can become inflamed, which can be life-threatening #65 Answer is A - Answer -In order, the large intestine is comprised of the A) cecum, colon, and rectum B) duodenum, jejunum, and ileum C) ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colons D) liver, gall bladder, and pancreas #66 Answer is C - Answer -What is the chief cause of blindness in the United States ? A) retinal detachment B) glaucoma C) diabetic retinopathy D) presbyopia #67 Answer is B - Answer -The gel occupying space between the lends and retina of the eye is called the A) fovea centralis B) vitreous body C) sclera D) aqueous humor #68 Answer is B - Answer -In patients with myopia, light rays entering the eye focus A) on several areas of the retina B) in front of the retina C) beyond the retina D) on the retina #69 Answer is A - Answer -When a person moves their head, their equilibrium is usually maintained by A) the vestibular system in the inner ear B) the tympanic cavity in the middle ear C) the auricle D) the cochlea #70 Answer is C - Answer -Hearing loss due to hardening of the stapes of the middle ear is known as A) tinnitus B) otitis media C) otosclerosis D) meniere disease #71 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of epistaxis ? A) allergic rhinitis B) blunt force C) hypertension D) childbirth #72 Answer is D - Answer -In the respiratory system, gas exchange between oxygen breathed in and carbon dioxide to be removed takes place in the A) pharynx B) trachea C) bronchi D) alveoli #73 Answer is C - Answer -The main characteristics that distinguishes asthma from forms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is that asthma A) does not cause dyspnea B) is characterized by a permanent narrowing of the airways C) can usually be reversed either spontaneously or through use of agents such as bronchodilators D) is caused by a loss of elasticity of the alveoli #74 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following can cause pneumonia ? A) bacteria B) fungi C) viruses D) all of the above #75 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following is a spinal defects in which there is a sideways curvature of the spiney ? A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) paget disease of bone D) scoliosis #76 Answer is B - Answer -A fracture in which of the bone is broken into a number of fragments is described as A) greenstick B) comminuted C) oblique D) transverse #77 Answer is B - Answer -The main type of arthritis or join inflammation that is considered a systemic autoimmune disease is A) osteoarthiritis B) rheumatoid arthritis C) gout D) psoriatic arthritis #78 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following is NOT true of the endochondral ossification ? A) it is responsible for the growth in length of long bones B) the cell types involved are bone cells, their progenitors, and cartilage C) it begins during embryonic development and continues until the late teens and early twenties D) it is direct deposition of bone into the mesenchyme #79 Answer is C - Answer -The largest leg bone that connects the kneecap to the foot is the A) patella B) femur C) tibia D) fibula B) all medical expenses plus lost wages C) all medical expenses plus lost wages, and an automatic settlement for pain, suffering , and other punitive damages D) Some medical expenses and lost wages, as determined by state laws #94 Answer is B - Answer -If a usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) fee structure is used for billing, an insurance carrier that pays fees that are considered customary will pay the provider A) the top fee in the customary will pay the provider B) the full fee as long as it falls within the customary fee range C) the RBRVS-calculated fee D) an adjustment #95 Answer is C - Answer -When is patient health information that is transmitted via telephone call or fax subject to the security rule under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regarding electronic transmission ? A) always B) never C) when that information was derived from electronically stored information D) when the patient has signed a privacy agreement #96 Answer is B - Answer -The relative value units (RVU's) issued for a particular service fee under medicare are computed using which of the following factors ? A) the providers rate for the service, practice expenses, and malpractice expenses B) all of the factors listed in response A plus adjustors like the geographic practice cost index and the Budget Neutrality Adjuster C) standard national codes D) sliding fees within an acceptable range #97 Answer is B - Answer -According to the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) system, what is the procedure to change a code for billing a medical procedure to reflect that the service lasted longer than described ? A) enter the code twice B) add a plus sign (+) before the code C) use an unlisted code and add a report D) use a category 3 code # 98 Answer is c - Answer -Under the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) system of coding, what type of modifier should be added to a code to indicate a slight difference in the description (for example, using a surgical team instead of one surgeon)? A) indicate both the described code and 09999 B) Put a -99 after the described code C) use a code beginning with 099 and ending with the two-digit modifier D) add the modifier 09966 # 99 Answer is C - Answer -Which medical insurance coding system should be used when billing medicare or medicaid ? A) International Classification of Disease, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM) B) current procedural terminology (CPT) C) Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) D) V codes #100 Answer is A - Answer -Which of the following is the general format for describing a diagnosis due to disease under the International Classification of Disease, 9th Revision, Clinical Modificatoin (ICD-9-CM-) system ? A) three-digit-coding for the diagnosis, followed by a decimal point, and then a one- or two-digit modifier B) anE followed by a three-digit code, then a decimal point, and then a one-or two-digit modifier #101 Answer is B - Answer -Which of the following is the standard claim form to be completed for situations such as inpatient admissions, emergency department services, and walk-in facilities ? A) CMS-1500 (08-05) B) Uniform Bill 04 (UB-04) C) Authorization for release of medical information D) encounter form #102 Answer is c - Answer -When can medicare patients be held responsible for paying out of pocket expenses in addition to what is paid by the government ? A) Never B) if they sign a written waiver C) if they sign an advanced beneficiary notification ( ABN) D) in any situation that is beyond the scope of medicare #103 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following is the most cmmonlny used manual system of managing a patients account ? A) patient ledger B) encounter form C) posting system D) pegboard system #104 Answer is C - Answer -In a patients account or ledger, what should be posted as a credit ? A) the services provided and the charges for each B) payments by the insurance company or patient C) payments by the insurance company or patient and adjustments D) the difference between charges and payments #105 Answer is A - Answer -The primary reason to keep day sheets and month-end sheets is to maintain accurate records of A) accounts receivable for the practice B) accounts payable for the practice C) individual patient accounts D)receipts #106 Answer is D - Answer -Which of following is generally included in monthly billing statements generated in computerized account systems ? A) contact information for both the practice and the patient B) services performed, charges, payments, and a running balance C) aging of how long past due balances have accrued D) all of the above #107 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following types of check endorsement will ensure safety against cashing by anyone else ? A) rubber endorsement stamp B) daily depositing C) blank endorsement D) restrictive endorsement #108 Answer is B - Answer -In order to comply with the truth in lending act, what must be done by a provider who allows a patient to pay using installment payments ? A) always have the patient sign a written agreement outlining cost of services rendered and outstanding terms of the agreement, including interest B) have the patient sign a written agreement outlining cost of sreevices rendered and outstanding terms of the agreement, including interest, only if there are at least five installments C) explain to the patient when payments are due and whether there will be interest charged if they do not comply D) explain to the patient at the time of service that they must pay any insurance required co-pay at that time, and that further payments will be assessed after the insurance company pays their portion of the bill #109 Answer is B - Answer -Which of the following tools is used to measure how rapidly patient accounts are being paid ? A) collection ratio B) accounts receivable (A/R) ratio C) account aging D) number of accounts with balances over two months old #110 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following is generally the last resort for collection of an overdue bill ? A) telephone collections B) collection letters C) outside collection firm D) filling in small claims court #122 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following types of calls cannot be handled by the medical assistant and should be referred to the provider ? A) obtaining information such as date of birth and insurance carrier from a new patient B) scheduling an appointment C) scheduling patient tests D) authorizing a prescription refill #123 Answer is A - Answer -When needed for a administrative or medical purposes, a medical assistant can always discuss information about a patient with their A) parent or legal guardian B) employer C) insurance carriers D) attorney #124 Answer is B - Answer -Which of the following is NOT true of encrypted email ? A) it is a good way to send medical data via email B) it utilizes a virtual private network (VPN) for security C) it requires a digital ID consisting of public and private keys and a digital signature D) it ensures that the email is secure #125 Answer is C - Answer -The patient scheduling style in which several patients are scheduled in the first half hour of each hour and then seen on a first come, first served basis is A) double booking B) clustering C) wave scheduling D) stream scheduling #126 Answer is D - Answer -What should a medical assistant do when a patient cancels an appointment or is a no show? A) cross out no shows with a red X and cancellations with a red line on a paper appointment B) keep a permanent record and count these up so the provider is aware C) input this information using computer scheduling software to remove the name and document the missed appointment D) do any of the above, depending on the system used #127 Answer is C - Answer -How should errors discovered shortly after entry be corrected when using an electronic medical record ? A) draw a single line through the error in red, add the correction, indicate "Corr." or "Correction" above the error, and initial and date the area B) erase or white out the error and put in the correct information C_ set the computer software to track the error slot, line out with error with the dash key, make the correction to the right of the lined out error, key in "Corr." or "Correction", and initial and date the error D) create a new citation identifying and correcting the error, sign and date it, and insert it into the original record #128 Answer is B - Answer -What is an accession record ? A) a cross reference method used in a numeric filing system B) a numeric filing system in which a journal or computer listing with predetermined numbers assigns patient or other C) the order of filing used in alphabetic filing D) the rationale for the filing system used in subject filing #129 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following is the letter style in which all of the lines commence at the left margin except the date, complimentary closure, and keyed signature, which start near the center ? A) simplified B) full block C) standard modified block D) indented modified block #130 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following statements regarding mail sent under the postal class of bulk mail is FALSE ? A) use of bulk mail requires the organization to pay an annual fee B) bulk mail can be sent by first class mail, standard mail, parcel post mail, or as bound printed matter C) bulk mail can be picked up by the postal service at the medical facility D) there are rules regarding the format of bulk mail #131 Answer is A - Answer -The turnaround time for transcription and return to the provider of a STAT report should be no more than A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 48 hours D) 72 hours #132 Answer is D - Answer -The occupational safety and health act (OSHA) bloodborne pathogen standard applies to contact with A) blood and all body fluids B) blood and all body fluids, secretions, and excretions C) the items in response B plus non-intact skin and mucous membranes D) the items in response C plus unfixed human tissue and tissue cultrue, cells, or fluid known to be positive for HIV, HBV, or HCV #133 Answer is D - Answer -The centers for disease control (CDC) guidelines for isolation of patients with highly transmissible diseases are to use A) standard precautions B) personal protective equipment (PPE) C) transmission based precautions D) standard precautions and the applicable type of transmission based precautions #134 Answer is B - Answer -The preferred method for disposal of sharps is to A) use the scoop technique B) put them into a puncture proof sharps container marked "biohazard" C) put them in a metal pan for later sterilization D) recap the sharp and then put it in a sharps container #135 Answer is D - Answer -According to the occupational safety and health act (OSHA) bloodborne pathogen standard, what is required if an employee is accidentally exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials ? A) the employer must offer the employee a confidential medical evaluation B) the incident must be immediately reported to a superior and documented C) if they consent, the employee should be tested for HBV, HCV, and HIV, and offered prophylaxis if a test is positive D) all of the above are required #136 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of hand washing as part of infection control ? A) medical asepsis hand wash using an antimicropbial soap B) medical asepsis hand wash using a non anti icrobial soap C) antibacterial wipes D) alcohol based hand rub #137 Answer is B - Answer -Which of the following best describes the use of chemical germicidal agents on surfaces to kill most microorganisms ? A) sanitization B) disinfection C) sterilization D) antisepsis #138 Answer is A - Answer -What is the sequence for removing potentially contaminated personal protective equipment when exiting an isolation room ? A) gloves, wash hands, mask, gown B) gloves, mask, gown C) mask, gloves, gown D) gloves, wash hands, gown, mask #139 Answer is B - Answer -When applying sterile gloves or assisting in a sterile procedure, where should the hands and/or sterile objects be held ? A) in front, at a distance from the body B) in front, at a distance from the body and above waist level C) above waist level D) toward the sterile field C) figure eight turns D) circular turns #153 Answer is A - Answer -Epinephrine is often added to injectable anesthetics because it is a A) vasoconstrictor B) vasodilator C) mild anesthetic D) monitor of anesthesia effectiveness #154 Answer is B - Answer -Which of the following is a type of open wound in which skin structures are torn off or away ? A) laceration B) avulsion C) puncture D) incision #155 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following types of gloves should be worn when changing a surgical dressing ? A) non sterile gloves throughout B) sterile gloves throughout C) non sterile gloves for removal and sterile gloves for cleaning of the wound and application of sterile cream and dressing D) the same procedure in response C, but with an ungloved hand washing in between #156 Answer is B - Answer -In which of the following types of fever does the persons body temperature swing between being elevated and being at or below baseline ? A) continuous B) intermittent C) remittent D) febrile #157 Answer is D - Answer -When using a temporal artery (TA) thermometer to measure a patients temperature, how is the probe generally used ? A) used behind the earlobe B) inserted into the ear C) attached to an electronic thermometer and inserted orally or rectally D) pressed against the forehead and then slid across the forehead to the temple area while scanning #158 Answer is B - Answer -How is a temperature in degrees celsius converted into degrees fahrenheit ? A) multiply by 9/5 B) multiply by 9/5 and then add 32 C) multiply by 5/9 D) subtract 32 and then multiply 5/9 #159 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following pulse sites is normally used to take pulse rate in emergencies ? A) radial pulse B) brachial pulse C) carotid pulse D) apical pulse #160 Answer is A - Answer -An adult with a pulse rate of 70 beats per minutes has A) a normal pulse rate B) bradycardia C) tachycardia D) arrhythmia #161 Answer is B - Answer -All of the following abnormalities of respiration are associated with a period of complete absence of breathing EXCEPT A) voluntarily holding ones breath B) orthopnea C) sleep apnea D) cheyne stokes respiration #162 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following breath sounds should be documented when taking a respiration rate, occurs with many lung diseases, and sounds like rattling ? A) stridor B) stertorous respiration C) rales D) wheezing #163 Answer is D - Answer -Blood pressure is a function of A) how strong the heart muscle is B) the elasticity of the arteries C) the size of the lumen of the arteries D) all of the above #164 Answer is B - Answer -The major difference between electronic and other types of sphygmomanometers used to measure blood pressure is that electronic types A) do not use a pressure cuff B) do not require simultaneous use of a stethoscope C) tend to lose calibration and accuracy D) can only read systole or diastole measurements in one take #165 Answer is A - Answer -When using a mercury or aneroid sphygmomanometer for blood pressure reading on an adult, the systolic pressure reading is recorded A) during the first phase of deflation when a sharp tapping sound is heard B) during the auscultatory gap C) as tapping and muffled sounds begin to fade D) when all sounds cease #166 Answer is B - Answer -How should a blood pressure measurement be recorded on an adult patients chart ? A) systolic pressure/diastolic pressure B) systolic pressure/diastolic pressure, arm used, patient position C) diastolic pressure/systolic pressure D) diastolic pressure/systolic pressure, arm used, patient position #167 Answer is B - Answer -An adult whose blood pressure is 125/85 is considered to have A) normal blood pressure B) prehypertension C) hypertension stage 1 D) secondary hypertension #168 Answer is B - Answer -Using a traditional beam balance scale with a measuring bar, how can an adult patients weight be measured and converted into kilograms ? A) center the lower bar on the closest 50-pound increment and the upper var on the measurement that centers the balance beam, then add the two measurements B) perform the measurements as in A, then divide by 2.2 C) perform the measurements as in A, then multiply 2.2 D) keep the lower bar flush on the "0" and slide the upper bar until it centers the balance beam and take that reading #169 Answer is C - Answer -In which of the following physical examination methods is a stethoscope used to listen for lung and heart sounds ? A) palpation B) percussion C) auscultation D) mensuration #170 Answer is B - Answer -A patient with a probable cardiovascular or respiratory problem should be positioned on the examination table in what position ? A) dorsal recumbent or lithotomy B) semi-or high-Fowlers C) trendelenburg D) Sims' #171 Answer is D - Answer -During a physical examination, the provider may use a tongue depressor and light source to check for A) dental hygiene along the teeth and gums B) swollen tonsils C) the gag reflex D) all of the above #184 Answer is D - Answer -When checking a man for prostate cancer, which of the following tests is/are typically performed ? A) prostate-specific antigen (PSA) B) prostatic ultrasound C) biopsy D) all of the above #185 Answer is A - Answer -When performing a urinary catheterization on a women, which of the following should NOT be done ? A) use sterile gloves to maintain sterility of both hands throughout B) wipe each portion of the labia with atiseptic-soaked cotton balls in a front-to-back motion C) have the patient in a dorsal lithotomy position during the procedure D) use sterile lubricant on the catheter tip prior to insertion #186 Answer is B - Answer -When developing a fecal occult blood test, a positive result is indicated by A)immediate appearance of a blue color around the periphery of the stool smear B) appearance of a blue color around the periphery of the stool smear as well as the positive control within 30-60 seconds C) immediate appearance of a red color around the periphery of the stool smear and all controls D) patches of red in the stool sample #187 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following pulmonary function test is a good indication of the extent of somones asthma or other respiratory disorder ? A) forced vital capacity (FVC) B) forced expiration volume at one second (FEV1) C) mean expiration flow rate (MEF) D) peak expiratory flow rate (PEER) #188 Answer is A - Answer -Which of the following is NOT true of an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) ? A) A value of 25mm/hour is always considered abnormal B)An ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) or sodium citrate venous blood sample is used C) the test must be read at precisely 60 minutes D) The test should be performed within two hours of the blood draw #189 Answer is C - Answer -A patient who cannot walk or lift himself is to be transferred. He should be lifted A) by the arms B) under the armpits C) by gripping their gait belt from underneath and lifting D) by their waist #190 Answer is B - Answer -A patient can bear only partial weight on one leg. Which of the following types of gait should this patient use with a crutch ? A) two point gait B) three point gait C) four point gait D) swing to gait #191 Answer is C - Answer -Which of the following is a range of motion (ROM) exercise that involves a motion directed away form the body's midline ? A) flexion B) rotation C) abduction D) adduction #192 Answer is D - Answer -Which of the following best describes the current american heart association guidelines for emergency cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult ? A) perform rescue breathing using two breaths, and if obstructed, five abdominal thrusts B) for circulation, use a ratio of 30 fast compressions to 2 breaths C) shock with an automated external defibrillator (AED) prior to CPR D) perform all of the above #193 Answer is B - Answer -Under the controlled substance act, a special drug enforcement agency (DEA) form must be utilized to order which of the following types of drugs in a medical setting ? A) schedule 1 B) schedule 2 C) schedule 3 D) schedule 4 #194 Answer is A - Answer -Of the cardiac related drugs that should be kept on hand in an ambulatory setting which one is used for angina pectoris ? A) nitroglycerin B) atropine C) digoxind D) isoproterenol #195 Answer is B - Answer -A provider must administer a drug available in units/mL. How should the number of mL be determined to obtain the dose ordered ? A) multiply the available dose in units/mL by 16 B) divide the dose ordered by the dose on hand C) divide the dose on hand by the dose ordered D) conver to mg for each, and then divide the dose ordered by the dose on hand #196 Answer is A - Answer -When taking a standard electrocardiograph(ECG), where should the bipolar leads be placed ? A) between the left and right arms, the left leg and right arm, and the left leg and left arm B) between the middle of the left arm to left leg and the right arm, the middle of the right arm to left leg and the left arm, and the middle of the right arm to left arm and the left leg C) between six different points on the chest and the a point on the right arm to left leg lead D) between six different points on the chest and the intersection of the left arm/right/arm/left leg leads #197 Answer is C - Answer -An irregular electrocardiograph (ECG) characterized by closely spaced premature ventricular contractions (PVCs), a lack of P waves, and distorted QRS complexes indicates A) atrial fibrillation B) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia C) ventricular tachycardia D) ventricular fibrillation #198 Answer is C - Answer -A "3" in the blue diamond on a chemical label indicates that the chemical is A) flammable liquid B) reactive with water C) a corrosive or toxic health hazard D)potentially explosive near a spark or if heated #199 Answer is B - Answer -A centers for medicare and medicaid (CMS) - approved basic metabolic panel includes laboratory tests for A) carbon dioxide, potassium, chloride, and sodium B) the tests listed in response to A plus blood urea nitrogen (BUN), total calcium, creatinine, and glucose C) the test listed in response to B plus albumin, total bilirubin, total protein, SGOT, and SGPT D) albumin, alkaline phosphatase, direct bilirubin, total bilirubin, total protein, SGOT, and SGPT #200 Answer is A - Answer -In whih of the following color top tubes should a venipuncture specimen be collected if the laboratory tests to be preformed require a serum sample ? A) red top or red-gray mottled top B) lavender top or blue top C) dark green top D) light gray top