MSN 571 PHARMACOLOGY MIDTERM EXAM 2023 VERSION 2 VERIFIED SOLUTIONS, Exams of Pharmacology

Download MSN 571 PHARMACOLOGY MIDTERM EXAM 2023 VERSION 2 VERIFIED SOLUTIONS and more Exams Pharmacology in PDF only on Docsity! MSN 571 PHARMACOLOGY MIDTERM EXAM 2023 VERSION 2 VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 1.Which instructions should be included in the plan of care for a patient who is prescribed ferrous sulfate? a. ron compounds are not taken orally b. Iron does not absorb c. lron should only be taken at night 2. Which is the most common type of anemia? b. Sickle cell anemia c. Folic acid deficiency d. B12 deficiency 3. Which antibiotic class disrupts folate metabolism in bacteria and is often combined with trimethoprim? b. Cephalosporins c. Aminoglycosides d. Sulfonamides 4. Which of the following terms least describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol? a. Alpha-1-antagonist effects c. Nonselective beta with alpha blocking d. Nonselective alpha-blockers 5. Which of the following drug treatment strategies is associated with peptic ulcer disease? b. Hormonal therapy c. Corticosteroids d. Opioids 6. Which of the following groups of antibiotics has a beta-lactam ring in the molecular structure? a. Macrolides b; Sulfonamides € Tetracyclines 10. 11. 12. 13. e; Fluroquinolones Which of the following diseases or disorders are more likely related to ACE inhibitors? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Angina Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management? a. Clonidine primary b. Beta blockers primary d. ACE-I primary e. ARB primary Which of the following medications is a fluroquinolone antibiotic? a. Penicillin b. Azithromycin c. Amikacin Which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media? a. Immunoglobulins b. Aspirin c. Corticosteroids Which antibiotic binds to 50S subunit of the bacteria ribosome and could most likely result in the development of pseudomembranous colitis? a. Tetracycline b. Vancomycin d. Amoxicillin Which of the following drug classes should be avoided in c disease? a. Avoid diuretics b. Avoid antibiotics c. Avoid proton pump inhibitors Prescriptive authority is regulated by the State Board of Nursing, Board of Medicine, or Board of Pharmacy, depending on the state. b. Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone c. Ciprofloxacin/hydrocortisone otic d. Olfloxacin otic 26. During a recent office visit, your patient is found to have atrial fibrillation. He is being treated for Graves’ disease. Which new medication will you add to his current treatment regimen? a: Atenolol Tenermin} b. Furosemide (Lasix) 27. A patient who has been taking warfarin is admitted with coffee-ground emesis. How will you manage this patient? b. Administer vitamin E c. Administer calcium gluconate d. Administer protamine sulfate 28. A bleeding patient receiving warfarin has an INR of 6. What is the best course of action? b. Wait for INR to decrease d. Stop the IV drip 29. Patches are sometimes prescribed to patients. Understanding how often patches are applied, when to remove them, correct location of patch placement, frequency of dosing, and correct way to dispose are important counseling points when discussing with your patients. Match the following medication with the correct frequency of dosing: a Rivastigmine (Exelon) once weekly &: Duragesic once daily € Transderm Scop 48 hours 30. Which is the best description of the action of Clonidine? | b. It causes peripheral activation of alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors c. It depletes sympathetic neurons from norepinephrine d. It directly blocks alpha and beta receptors in the periphery 31. A patient you are treating for hypertension comes to your clinic complaining of red, painful swelling of his great left toe. Gout is diagnosed and you are treating this condition. What will you do next for this patient? @; Encourage him to lose weight c. Order HbA1c 32. Which of the following is no one of the principal indications for vasodilators? a- Heart failure &- Essential hypertension d. Peripheral edema 33. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plats an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure? b. Angiotensin III c. Renin d. Angiotensin | 34. The provider is discussing the management of prescribed, controlled substances with a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the information provided? @ Toreduce the probability of abuse of a drug that is Schedule Il, the prescriber should call the prescription to the pharmacy &: Prescriptions for drugs in Schedule III and IV may be written to include up to 5 refills € Schedule | drugs may only be given to hospitalized patients a@—tf+th }: iff bet tat, fed, 14. & ing heduled-d: 1g th federaHawtakes-precedence 35. In a case of an opioid overdose, naloxone can be given in repeated doses because of which property of naloxone? b. Is needed to stimulate the respiratory center c. Is effective only at high cumulative doses d. Is safe only in extremely small doses 36. If interventions to resolve the cause of pain (e.g. rest, ice, compression, and elevation) are insufficient, pain medications are given based on the severity of pain. Drugs are given in which order of use? @ Opiates, non-opioids, increased dose of non-opiate & NSAIDs, opiates, corticosteroids € Low-dose opiates, salicylates, increased dose of opiates 37. Which of the following opioids is so lipophilic that it is marketed in a skin patch used to treat chronic pain? a; Methadone b: Naltrexone € Scopolamine 38. Tetracyclines should not be prescribed to children younger than 8 years due to: a Risk of developing cartilage problems b: Risk of kernicterus € Development of significant diarrhea 39. A 70-year-old patient with penicillin sensitivity is receiving digoxin and warfarin therapy. A macrolide antibiotic is required to treat a streptococcal infection. Which of the following medications would be best for this patient? b. Telithromycin d. Erythromycin 40. There is often cross-sensitivity and cross-resistance between penicillins and cephalosporins because: @ There is not an issue with cross-resistance between the penicillins and cephalosporins c. Renal excretion is similar in both classes of drugs d. When these drug classes are metabolized in the liver they both produce resistant enzymes 41. All of the antibiotic options listed are used to treat MRSA infections except: a. Vancomycin b. Clindamycin c. Daptomycin 42. A 25-year-old woman comes into the office with complaints of profuse malodorous discharge. You diagnose bacterial vaginosis and then would: 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. A 19-year-old female is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. What is a common treatment prescribed? Ciprofloxacin c. Azithromycin d. Amoxicillin The major reason for not crushing a sustained-release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in: a. Malabsorption b. Disintegration d. Deterioration Drug X produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to epinephrine. Drug X is considered to be a(n): a. Competitive antagonist c. Irreversible antagonist d. Partial agonist Blood concentrations of drugs are variable and are influenced by the: a. Drug classification b. EC50 c. Fherapeuticindex d. Drug metabolism The therapeutic index is a measure of drug: a. Effectiveness b. Bioavailability status d. Absorption rate Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true? a. Drugs that are administered more than once a day have a greater bioavailability than drugs given once a day b. All brands of drugs have the same bioavailability c. Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability 60. Which statement made by a client suggests the need for further education regarding a newly 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. prescribed medication? a. I’m paying for this prescription, so I’d like it written for the generic form -— Fh +9-b 1b eb fo¢-thi: dicate ot Fusi I’m glad | don’t have to use the medication’s chemical name when refilling the prescription Antagonists are drugs that decrease or oppose the actions of another drug or endogenous ligand. False You are treating a patient with a history of hypercholesterolemia and an MI. the patient is a 45year-old female and she is on the maximum dose of rosuvastatin which she is tolerating well. Her LDL-C is 167 mg/dL. What would be the best drug to add to her rosuvastatin therapy? a. Colesevelam b. Mipomersen Ezetimibe e. Fenofibrate A patient is receiving a statin to manage his cholesterol levels. For which adverse effects will you monitor in this patient? a. Increased serum transaminase levels (ekHevel: J 4; All answers are correct Match the correct drug teratogenic effect during pregnancy? a, Aagietensin-convertng cazymecahibiters cough b. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors — neural tube defects c. Isotretinoin — severe nausea d. Warfarin — craniofacial defects e. NSAIDs — microcephaly Stimulation of lipoprotein lipase by a fenofibrate results in lowered serum levels of which substance? a. Apolipoprotein B c. HDL-cholesterol d. LDL-cholesterol 1. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include: b. Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration guidelines for prescribing c. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them d. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription 2. Prescriptive authority regulations are determined by? a. None of these choices b. Controlled by the federal government c. NPs have full prescriptive authority in all states 3. Therapeutic effects of verapamil (Calan SR) are: a. Increased BP b. Decreased ventricular premature beats c. Increased HR  16. Pharmacokinetics involves the study of which factor? a. Physiologic interactions of drugs b. Adverse reactions to medications d. Interactions among various drugs 17. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state: a. After the second dose b. One hour after IV administration d. When the patient feels the full effect of the drug 18. How does simvastatin exert its action? » By activating the lipoprotein lipase enzyme c. By preventing the reabsorption of bile acids d. By inhibiting lipolysis in the adipose tissue 19. Which one of the following is the most common side effect of antihyperlipidemic drug therapy? a. Elevated blood pressure b. Heart palpitations d. Neurologic problems 20. Which of the following is not an expected adverse effect of Niacin? a. Itching b. Flushing d. Hyperglycemia 21. A patient with cardiovascular disease is taking rosuvastatin. Which finding would indicate a potential adverse effect of this drug? a. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg c. Platelet count 100 x103/mm? d. Wheezing and shortness of breath 22. A provider is concerned about renal function in an 84-year-old patient who is taking several medications. What laboratory result will the provider order? b. Serum creatinine c. Potassium levels d. Sodium levels 23. A patient with heart failure who takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a thiazide diuretic, and a beta blocker for several months comes to the clinic for evaluation. As part of the ongoing assessment of this patient, the provider will focus on which evaluation? a. Maximal exercise capacity c. Ejection fraction d. Complete blood count 24. Monitoring for a patient taking iron to treat iron deficiency anemia is: b. Complete blood count every 4 weeks throughout treatment c. Reticulocyte count in 4 weeks d. Annual complete blood count 25. An infant is prescribed a medication that has a narrow therapeutic range and is excreted by the kidneys. The provider will monitor closely for which effect? a. Tachyphylaxis c. Decreased drug effectiveness d. Unusual CNS effects 26. Which statement by a patient about the use of aspirin during pregnancy indicates a need for further learning? a. Aspirin is most harmful when used late in pregnancy b. Aspirin can cause antepartum hemorrhage c. Aspirin can affect hemostasis in the newborn 27. The brain of the teate may accumulate toxic levels of drugs due to: a. Subcutaneous perfusion is nonfunctional c. The P-glycoprotein transporter is overdeveloped d. CYP450 enzymes are nonfunctional e. Gastric motility and peristalsis are delayed 28. All of the following statements about Beer’s List are true except: a. }tis-derived-fi +h pertopini if geriatrici i: ‘a ich Lb; v1 b. These criteria are directed as the general population of patients over 65 years of age and do not take disease states into consideration c. These criteria have been adopted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for regulation of long-term care facilities d. Itis a list of medications or medication classes that should generally be avoided in persons 65 years or older because they are either ineffective or they post unnecessary high risk for older person and a safer alternative is available 29. An older adult patient with a history of forgetfulness will need to take multiple drugs after discharge from the hospital. What provider action will most successfully promote medication adherence in a forgetful patient? a. Ask the patient to share the medication teaching with a neighbor or friend soon after discharge b. Make sure the patient understands the actions and side effects of each drug d. Give the patient detailed written information about each drug 30. A patient on heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 98 seconds. How will you interpret this finding? a. Fhe iF +t be int 2 tod withoutte igh 2 +h: bint ath b. The level is outside the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation; it is too high c. The level is within the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation d. The level is outside the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation; it is too low 31. An orally administered drug that directly inhibits thrombin: a. Eptifibatide b. Enoxaparin c. Rivaroxaban d. Prasugrel 32. A patient who has been prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), the patient is also taking warfarin. How does taking these drugs in combination affect their distribution to the tissues? Select all that apply. b. There is a decrease in gastric emptying time c. There is a change of the drugs to passive metabolites 33. Beta lactamase inhibitors are often indicated in which of the following? a. Delayed absorption of oral drugs c. First dose effects 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. c. Spice d. Marijuana Codeine has a greater oral bioavailability compared with morphine because of which reason? a. Morphine directly passes into systemic circulation b. Morphine is conjugated more quickly d. Codeine is metabolized more by hepatic enzymes A patient who has a long-term addiction to opioids is believed to have taken an overdose of barbiturates. The provider will anticipate which likely outcome? b. Minimal respiratory depression because the patient has developed tolerance to opioids c. Paradoxical excitation resulting from drug-drug interaction d. Severe abstinence syndrome when the effects of the barbiturates are recersed When choosing a topical corticosteroid cream to treat diaper dermatitis, the ideal medication would be: a. A high-potency corticosteroid cream (Diprolene AF) b. Acombination of corticosteroid and an antifungal (Lotrisone) c. Intermediate potency corticosteroid ointment (Kenalog) Mupirocin ointment is used topically to treat: Leye infects b. Hemorrhoids » c. Conjunctivitis What is the major concern for a prolonged use of prednisone? a. Hypertension b. Precipitation of a stroke c. Hepatic necrosis d. Renal insufficiency All of the antibiotic options listed are used to treat MRSA infections except: a. Vancomycin b. Clindamycin c. Daptomycin 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. Which of the following are the mechanisms of resistance that can occur with antimicrobial therapy? a. Enzymatic inactivation of the drugs c. Drug efflux d. Altered drug targets Which of the following antibiotics is not considered bactericidal? b. Penicillin c. Cephalexin d. Vancomycin Which antibiotic is in the macrolide class? b. Trimethoprim c. Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) d. Minocycline (Minocin) People at higher risk for methicillin-resistant staph aureus (MRSA) include: b. Children c. Military recruits d. Athletes e. Prison inmates Which of the following is recommended treatment for erythema migrans or early Lyme disease? a. Erythromycin 333mg po for 10 days b. Dicloxacillin 500mg po for 10 days d. Ciprofloxacin 250mg po for 14 days Which is considered the most widely used group of antibiotics because of their bactericidal nature, resistance to beta-lactamases, and activity against a broad spectrum of pathogens? a. Tetracyclines | d. Aminoglycosides Which is the most common type of anemia? b. Sickle cell anemia c. Folic acid deficiency d. B12 deficiency 61. Which of the following is a common cause of iron deficiency in patients? a. Rapid growth during adolescence b. Decreased intestinal uptake of iron c. Vegetarian eating patterns 62. Which medication is indicated for the treatment of either HIV or hepatitis B? b. Etravirine c. Abacavir d. Ritonavir 63. Which is true about tetanus toxoid? b. Tetanus toxoid provides immunity from Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. The recommended dose of tetanus toxoid for adults is 1 mL given intramuscularly d. DiaPandDTaresageto-givetealtadults 64. The pregnant woman you are caring for has declined to receive the influenza vaccine during her pregnancy. You inform her that: a. [tis important for her to receive the vaccination while she is pregnant, as the influenza vaccine cannot be administered to breastfeeding mothers c. Pregnant women are five times more likely to develop serious disease in a pregnant woman when compared to a non-pregnant woman d. Th tential risks of iving the inf ine-duri hy . P S is PFeE! Yr & : : 65. In which of the following the human papillomavirus (HPV) is not recommended. Men who have sex with men A 25-year-old who did not finish the vaccine series as a teen M ith. isedi 7 Jineludi HUM) thy h 20-f+h id rt P ¥ + BAY Bh age 30; ¥ getHPVvaccine asteenagers 1. A patient has been prescribed doxycycline For a chlamydia infection. She is healthy and her only oral medication Is combined contraceptive. Her education would include: a b. Only young men through the age of 21 c. d a. Doxycycline is used for one dose. Treatment of STI's, take the whole prescription at once c. Doxycycline may cause tendonitis and she should report any joint pain d. Her partner will need treatment for infection, doesn't clear with the 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. d. This means that the drug has a low number of adverse effects Which order for furosemide is written appropriately by the prescriber? a. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO QD Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO daily d. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO qd Which of these medication orders are complete? Select all that apply a. Promethazine 50 mg IV q3-6h PRN for nausea b. Aspirin 81 mg PO daily c. Vitamin D 2000 units PO d. Multivitamin e. Ciprofloxacin hydrochloride (cipro) 500 mg PO q12h x 7 days The brain of the neonate may accumulate toxic levels of drugs due to: The blood brain barrier is not fully developed Gastric motility in peristalsis is delayed The P glycoprotein transporter is overdeveloped aog>goe Cy P450 enzymes are nonfunctional e. Subcutaneous perfusion is nonfunctional The NP student is concerned that in older adult patients, adverse drug reactions are due to reduced renal excretion. Which laboratory result should be closely monitored? a. Blood urea nitrogen BUN b. Creatinine clearance c. serum albumin levels d. Serum creatinine levels The beers criteria is utilized with which population of patients? a. Mental health b. OBGYN c. Geriatrics d. Pediatrics Which of the following is true? a. Enzyme inducers can enhance clinical responses to pro drugs b. The bio availability of lipid soluble drugs is increased in the elderly c. Drug doses may need to be increased in pregnancy d. All of the above Match the correct adverse drug reactions unique to the pediatric population: a. Sulfonamides - Staining of developing teeth b. Glucocorticoids - Weight loss 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. c. Chloramphenicol - Red syndrome d. Tetracyclines—Kernicterus e. Fluoroquinolones - Muscle hypertrophy A patient with hypercholesterolemia who is taking 20 milligrams of simvastatin as prescribed. After a few days, the patients your analysis reports indicated the presence of myoglobin. How would you manage this patient? a. Instruct the patient to take the simvastatin before meals b. Instruct the patient to discontinue the simvastatin Instruct the patient to drink 250 milliliters of water with the simvastatin d. Instruct the patient to decrease his dose to 10 milligrams of simvastatin daily You are caring for a patient with renal failure who is prescribed a protein bound drug. Which parameter in the patient must be assessed before administering the medication? a. Lipid profile b. Blood glucose level c. Serum albumin levels d. Hemoglobin level before beginning | am vitamin B12 therapy. Which laboratory value should be obtained? a. Iron b. All the answers are correct c. reticulocyte count, Hemoglobin, and hematocrit d. Vitamin B12 A patient asks how nitroglycerin works to relieve anginal pain. Your response is: a. Increases the oxygen demand in the cardiac muscle b. Promote spaso dilation, which reduces preload and oxygen demand c. Constricts coronary arteries to increase blood flow to the heart d. Increases ventricular filling to improve cardiac output A patient with diabetes develops hypertension. Which type of medication will the provider prescribe to treat hypertension in this patient? a. Thiazide diuretics b. beta blockers c. Direct acting vasodilators d. angiotensin converting enzyme ACE inhibitors which drug blocks A1 beta one and beta two adrenoceptors? a. Carvedilol b. Prepranelet c. Metoprolol d. Dobutamine You are treating a patient who has diabetes and hypertension. Which medication is most likely to prescribe to treat this patient’s hypertension? a. Enalapril b. Hydrechlerothiazide c. Propranolol d. Methyldopa 29. the drug classifications that may reduce insulin sensitivity when treating type 2 diabetic patient for hypertension are: a. Alpha blockers and ACE inhibitors. b. Diureties-and-ealcium channel bleckers- c. Calcium channel blockers and ACE inhibitors. d. Diuretics and beta blockers. 30. A partial agonist is best described as an agent that: 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. b. What the drug does to the body c. Adverse reactions to the drug d. Impact of food on drugs What is a priority assessment for a patient with severe anemia? a. Integumentary assessment neurologic assessment d. gastrointestinal assessment What is not a common side effect of oral iron therapy? Dark stools Staining of teeth Nausea, vomiting ao>ow Paresthesia The patient asks if there is any other option besides antibiotics to treat acute otitis media. How will you respond? a. Antibiotics are the only way to cure otitis media b. Pain management is only necessary when antibiotics are prescribed. c. Pain management is reserved for use when the tympanic membrane is burst. A 6-year-old child presents with crying due to ear pain. Tympanic membranes are erythematous, bulging and immobile, bur intact. In addition to antibiotic therapy, what will the provider recommend for pain management? a. Low dose aspirin c. Atympanostomy to relieve pressure in the middle ear d. Prednisone a patient is diagnosed with otitis externa caused by Aspergillus organisms. All of the therapy is appropriate except: a. Oral fluconazole b. 2% acetic acid solution ear drops c. Topical 1% Clotrimazole Which agent is used to treat the majority of infections caused by herpes simplex virus, an varicella zoster virus? a. Zanamivir b. Ganciclovir c. Amantadine 43. 44. d. Acyclovir Health maintenance recommendation for a 51-year-old patient who enjoys outdoor activities: a. Pneumococcal vaccine b. Varicella vaccine c. TDAP TD vaccine. d. Hepatitis B vaccine. A patient with a history of congestive heart failure and renal impairment is diagnosed with esophageal Candidiasis. Which antifungal agent will the provider prescribe this patient? a. Itraconazole b. Fluconazole D Voriconazole d. Amphotericin B 45. which infections are fungal? Select all that apply Ringworm Cholera. Candida. Athlete’s foot. pao oe Aspergillus. 46. Which of the following terms best describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol? A1 antagonist effects. Beta one selective nonselective beta with alpha blocking. Nonselective alpha blockers. aooo 47. Which antibiotic class disrupts folate metabolism in bacteria and is often combined with trimethoprim? a. Aminoglycosides. b. Fluoroquinolones c. Cephalosporins d. Macrolides e. sulfonamides. 48. Which of the following best classifies penicillins, cephalosporins and carbapenems? a. Cell wall inhibitors. c. Mycolic acid synthesis inhibitors. d. RNA synthesis inhibitors. 49. Which of the following groups of antibiotics bind to the 50 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and includes drugs such as erythromycin and azithromycin? a. Macrolides b. aminoglycosides. c. Fluoroquinolones d. tetracyclines. 50. Which of the following medications is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic? a. Penicillin. b. Amoxicillin. c. Ciprofloxacin d. Azithromycin 51. which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media? a. Aspirin b. Corticosteroids. c. Immunoglobulins. d. Amoxicillin. 52. Beta lactamase inhibitors are often indicated in which of the following? Cretamiten b. Malathion c. Permethrin d. Lindane A patient is prescribed amiodarone. What should be included in the patient teaching about this medication? Select all that apply a. High fiber diet. b. Gastrointestinal upset. c. Decreased fluid intake? d. Photophobia and wearing sunglasses. e. Sunscreen use. Which pharmacological therapy would be inappropriate for a patient with a previous history of MI and atrial fibrillation complaining of waking up at night with a feeling of smothering and breathing difficulty? a. Beta blockers and loop diuretic b. Nitrate and alpha—tadrenergicbleckers c. Calcium channel blocker and thiazide diuretic d. ACE inhibitor and digitalis Which of the following drugs are considered broad spectrum penicillins? Select all that apply a. Amoxicillin b. Nafcillin c. Ampicillin d. Oxacillin select the antibiotic that may be used to treat systemic infections in a patient with a diagnosis of Cellulitis a-—_Doxyeyeline +: Cefazolin € Levofloxacin 4 Imipenem-cilastatin Which of the following person should not receive the shingles vaccine? b-_/463-year-old patient whe-had-chickenpox € A 48-year-old patient who was exposed to chickenpox. d. A 60-year-old patient who received the vaccine nine years ago. A provider is conducting a smoking cessation class in the community. Which effects will be included in the discussion about physiological effects of nicotine? Select all that apply a. Suppression of nausea. b. c d e f. What do the following medications or drug classes is commonly indicated for managing just Vomiting decreased gastric acid. Increased alertness Suppression of appetite Increased blood pressure stational hypertension? a. b. Cc d. e. Spironolactone (Aldactone) Calcium channel blockers Dobutamine Calcium gluconate Which action should the nurse perform to ensure the medication dose for a pediatric patient is correct? Select all that apply a. e. If the drug dosage prescribed varies from recommended reference range, notify the provider. Use a current drug reference to determine usual dosage for 24 hours Determine the total amount of the drug to administer per dose and per day Determine the dose parameters by multiplying the weight by the minimum and maximum daily dose of the drug to determine the safe range Use the patient’s weight in pounds 10. When prescribing medications to infants, it is important for the provider to consider with fact. Select all that apply a. a a b. c. d. Breastfeeding infants are more likely to develop toxicity when the mother is taking lipid soluble drugs. Infants have immature livers which slow drug metabolism. Immaturity of renal function in infancy causes infants to excrete drugs less efficiently Infants are more sensitive to medications that act on the central nervous system 11. Which of the following is not consistent with the rules for Geriatric prescribing? Half-life will be longer in older adults. Reduce the number of drugs in the patient’s regimen whenever possible. Ad: d j + atyoicallyin the elderadult iB esp P YP} ¥ 7 Steady state is reached more quickly in the older adult. 12. Which client has the greatest risk for medication toxicity? Asa . : fai ‘alysis: & A 67-year-old client receiving. The medications that are highly protein bound. € A74-year -old client prescribed for medications for hypertension. ¢& A 38-year-old client with a serum albumin level of 6.2. 13. The FDA recommends that individuals taking the Cox two inhibitor. Select coxib should be Take a drug holiday to decrease the risk associated with this drug. The increased risk associated with the chronic use of Cox two inhibitors may be attributed to: 6. ‘i : . Increased platelet aggregation Renal insufficiency A hypersensitivity reaction > PP Respiratory depression 14.