NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated, Exams of Nursing

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NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 1 | 274 Question 1 An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety and welfare is called Choose one answer. a. an injunction b. an embargo c. an order to cease and desist d. a subpoena - Correct answer an embargo Question 2 Field observations are not always reported in total because Choose one answer. a. the reported forms are usually inadequate b. the significance of the data is not understood c. the field staff are instructed to limit observations d. the supervisor may insist on reinspection - Correct answer the significance of the data is not understood Question 3 In preparing a legal action, one of the first steps a sanitarian should do is to Choose one answer. a. obtain a warrant b. obtain a court order c. keep very accurate records d. check with other agencies - Correct answer keep very accurate records Question 4 Which of the following statements is true regarding an inspection efficiency rating? Choose one answer. a. the average amount of time required for each inspection must be determined by the administrator of the sanitation program b. the quality of the inspections should be emphasized over quantity c. the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year d. it is not possible to receive a rating over 100 percent - Correct answer the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year Question 5 When a health violation is classified as a misdemeanor, it can be more readily resolved by ______. Choose one answer. a. criminal proceedings b. civil action c. immediately closing the facility NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 2 | 274 d. posting a public notice - Correct answer civil action Question 6 Which of the following is the most critical step needed before detailed information is collected? Choose one answer. a. determining how the information will be used b. determining how often the information will be updated c. determining how much time will be needed for data collection d. determining how much time will be needed for the record-processing unit to enter the data - Correct answer determining how the information will be used Question 7 Which of the following is the most effective technique for ceasing operation of a noncomplying establishment? Choose one answer. a. a mandatory injunction b. revoking a license c. an injunction d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 8 An administrative process of measuring and analyzing results in relation to specific goals, objectives, aims or targets is Choose one answer. a. record keeping b. daily activity reports c. coding d. evaluation - Correct answer evaluation Question 9 On-the-job education should start with planned, routine, intensive in-service training of Choose one answer. a. division directors b. owners of food service facilities c. all field and office personnel d. septic tank contractors - Correct answer all field and office personnel Question 10 All of the following describe objectives used in environmental quality planning except Choose one answer. a. non-measurable b. realistically obtainable NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 5 | 274 a. local officials b. establishment owners c. the general public d. lawmakers - Correct answer establishment owners Question 20 Marks: 1 The agencies general administrative plan provides the basis for Choose one answer. a. a search warrant b. an administrative warrant c. a seizure d. none of the above - Correct answer an administrative warrant Question 21 Marks: 1 Inspections of nonpublic areas can be made by consent of the owner or occupant and Choose one answer. a. on the basis of a general administrative plan b. whenever premises are vacant c. whenever premises are unlocked d. without regard to requests or demands that inspectors leave the premises - Correct answer on the basis of a general administrative plan Question 22 Marks: 1 The statement of goals and objectives should recognize environmental quality and community needs such as Choose one answer. a. clean air b. clean food service establishments c. decent housing d. all the above - Correct answer all the above Question 23 Marks: 1 A standard for dishwashing that states that the "total bacteria count should not exceed one hundred per utensil surface," is an example of what type of objective? Choose one answer. a. enforceable b. specification c. compliance NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 6 | 274 d. performance - Correct answer performance Question 24 Marks: 1 A well developed ______ activity report can serve practically all the reporting needs of an organization for statistical purposes. Choose one answer. a. daily b. weekly c. monthly d. yearly - Correct answer daily Question 25 Marks: 1 To have a successful environmental control service, the retention of competent personnel is a primary concern. Which of the following is (are) required to retain competent personnel? Choose one answer. a. adequate salaries b. pleasant, stimulating working conditions c. a dynamic and challenging program d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 26 Marks: 1 The number of inspections divided by the number of workdays should equal which of the following? Choose one answer. a. average number of inspections per workday b. average number of hours per inspection c. average number of city inspections per workday d. average number of county inspections per workday - Correct answer average number of inspections per workday Question 27 Marks: 1 Since competent direction is essential to a divisional program's effectiveness, it is important to offer Choose one answer. a. bonus salaries b. marginal salaries c. a structured, incremental pay plan d. none of the above - Correct answer none of the above Question 28 Marks: 1 From a legal standpoint, which of the following is true regarding enforcement of standards? NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 7 | 274 Choose one answer. a. a Federal standard is easier to enforce than a State standard b. a State standard is easier to enforce than a Federal standard c. a performance standard is easier to enforce than a specification-type standard d. a specification-type standard is easier to enforce than a performance standard - Correct answer a specification- type standard is easier to enforce than a performance standard Question 29 Marks: 1 The effectiveness of an inspection program depends on technical competence and the ______ of regulatory staff. Choose one answer. a. academic degrees b. physical qualifications c. genealogy d. attitude - Correct answer attitude Question 30 Marks: 1 A program plan should be developed for each of the program activities. This plan should list which of the following criteria for each activity? Choose one answer. a. work load and methods to meet program objectives and financing b. resource requirements, goals and objectives c. need for the program, evaluation, and law d. all the above - Correct answer all the above Question 1 Marks: 1 The precise levels at which specific air pollutants become a health hazard are relatively easy to establish by existing surveillance systems. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 2 Marks: 1 Particulates larger than 10 microns can penetrate easily into the respiratory tract. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 3 Marks: 1 It is possible to control noise NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 10 | 274 Question 14 Marks: 1 Air pollution control should first be considered at the Choose one answer. a. source b. stack c. industrial level d. suburban level - Correct answer source Question 15 Marks: 1 If 10 decibels is 10 times more intense than one decibel, how many times more intense is 20 decibels than one decibel? Choose one answer. a. 20 b. 30 c. 100 d. 1000 - Correct answer 100 Question 16 Marks: 1 The Montreal Protocol categorizes ______ and ______ in two classes based on their ozone-depiction potential. Choose one answer. a. CO2 and PAN b. CFCs and halons c. Ozone depleting greenhouse chemicals d. SO2 and CO - Correct answer CO2 and PAN Question 17 Marks: 1 Glazing, silvering, or bronzing on the underside of a leaf is evidence that injury has occurred by Choose one answer. a. ozone b. peroxyacyl nitrates c. sulfur dioxide d. hydrogen fluoride - Correct answer peroxyacyl nitrates Question 18 Marks: 1 The meteorological elements that have the most direct and significant effects on the distribution of air pollutants are Choose one answer. a. solar radiation NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 11 | 274 b. wind speed and direction c. precipitation and stability d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 19 Marks: 1 Turbulence is the wind characteristic that is Choose one answer. a. most predictable b. the most effective mechanism for the dispersion or dilution of a cloud or plume of pollutants c. responsible for generating cyclonic pollutants d. responsible for the agitation of otherwise harmless ions - Correct answer the most effective mechanism for the dispersion or dilution of a cloud or plume of pollutants Question 20 Marks: 1 Some specific measures that can be used to reduce the effect of highway noise include Choose one answer. a. setting lower speed limits for certain sections of a highway b. establishing alternate truck routes c. enclosure of highways going through residential areas d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 21 Marks: 1 For a pure tone (single frequency) to be produced, there must be a one-to-one correspondence between Choose one answer. a. loudness and intensity b. frequency and intensity c. pitch and loudness d. pressure and pitch - Correct answer loudness and intensity Question 22 Marks: 1 ______ have been known to cause crippling skeletal damage to cattle through ingested contaminated vegetation. Choose one answer. a. sulfides b. fluorides c. nitrates d. chlorides - Correct answer fluorides NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 12 | 274 Question 23 Marks: 1 Air is vital to existence. In fact, humans breathe in a day's time an average of Choose one answer. a. 3 to 4 pounds of air b. 35 pounds of air c. 37 pounds of air d. 1,600 ft3 of air - Correct answer 35 pounds of air Question 24 Marks: 1 Stability of the atmosphere Choose one answer. a. is the ability to enhance or suppress vertical air motions b. is largely determined by the vertical temperature profile c. refers to the inertness of its composition d. a and b above - Correct answer a and b above Question 25 Marks: 1 In what part of the earth's atmosphere are photochemical oxidants produced? Choose one answer. a. lithosphere b. stratosphere c. troposphere d. hydrosphere - Correct answer troposphere Question 26 Marks: 1 Sources of pollutants can generally be classified as Choose one answer. a. line sources b. area sources c. point sources d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 27 Marks: 1 Which of the following items are not natural topographic features? Choose one answer. a. rivers b. canals NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 15 | 274 d. rugs - Correct answer rubber tiles Question 38 Marks: 1 Continuous exposure to high-level noise is less harmful than intermittent or occasional exposure. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 39 Marks: 1 Dry cotton ear plugs are just as effective against noise control as expensive fitted ear plugs and earmuffs. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 40 Marks: 1 The accumulation or increased concentration of a continuously emitted pollutant is Choose one answer. a. referred to as episodic filtration b. referred to as explosive stockpiling and is potentially a very hazardous situation if left unchecked c. directly proportional to wind speed d. inversely proportional to wind speed - Correct answer inversely proportional to wind speed Question 41 Marks: 1 A hammering type noise often heard in a plumbing system is usually due to Choose one answer. a. a quick-closing valve requiring installation of an air chamber b. vibrations from machines that require rubber mountings or resilient pads c. the high mineral content of flowing water d. low sound transmission loss of plumbing materials - Correct answer a quick-closing valve requiring installation of an air chamber Question 42 Marks: 1 In the United States, the Ringlemann smoke chart consists of how many rectangular charts? Choose one answer. a. three b. four c. five d. six - Correct answer four NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 16 | 274 Question 43 Marks: 1 A primary pollutant is one that is formed in the atmosphere as a result of chemical reactions. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 44 Marks: 1 Individuals react differently to noise depending on age, sex, and socioeconomic background. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 45 Marks: 1 Air pollution is the presence of ______ in the outside air in amounts that are injurious or detrimental to humans, animals, plants, or property. Choose one answer. a. solids b. gases c. liquids d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 46 Marks: 1 Stack samples must be collected at the same speed of flow that gases normally pass through the stack. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 47 Marks: 1 The ______ of a sound wave is the energy transferred per unit time (sec) through a unit area normal to the direction of propagation. Choose one answer. a. sound pressure b. frequency c. intensity d. speed - Correct answer intensity Question 48 Marks: 1 The normal change in temperature with altitude is Choose one answer. NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 17 | 274 a. noted as an increase due to the increased closeness and lack of filtering of sunlight b. noted as a decrease due to expansion and thus adiabatic cooling of air c. noted as a decrease due to black-body emission into space, coupled with the lessening of insulation provided by other air d. noted as an increase due to the rising of warm air - Correct answer noted as a decrease due to expansion and thus adiabatic cooling of air Question 49 Marks: 1 The Safe Alternatives Policy program Choose one answer. a. specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances b. lists unacceptable alternatives to ozone-depleting substances c. considers only ozone depletion potential d. is based on global warming potential - Correct answer specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances Question 50 Marks: 1 Ozone reduces the useful life of all of the following except Choose one answer. a. rubber b. textiles c. dyes d. nylon - Correct answer nylon Question 51 Marks: 1 Halon-1211 is used primarily in ______. Choose one answer. a. portable fire extinguishers b. fixed fire suppression systems c. printed circuit board cleaning d. vapor degreasing - Correct answer portable fire extinguishers Question 52 Marks: 1 Air pollutants may be in the form of microorganisms. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 53 NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 20 | 274 Question 63 Marks: 1 Sounds with a frequency of 30 hertz (Hz) are considered very low pitch. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 64 Marks: 1 The major factors related to hearing loss are Choose one answer. a. time duration of exposure and repeated impact b. intensity of sound waves c. frequency content of sound d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 65 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a malodorous gas? Choose one answer. a. sulfur dioxide b. hydrogen sulfide c. carbon monoxide d. phenol - Correct answer carbon monoxide Question 66 Marks: 1 Impurities in combustible hydrocarbons (coal and oil) combine with oxygen to produce ______ when burned. Choose one answer. a. nitrogen oxide b. sulfur dioxide c. nitrogen dioxide d. carbon monoxide - Correct answer sulfur dioxide Question 67 Marks: 1 The speed with which sound travels through a particular medium is dependent on Choose one answer. a. the compressibility of the medium b. the density of the medium c. the compressibility and density of the medium NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 21 | 274 d. none of the above - Correct answer the compressibility and density of the medium Question 68 Marks: 1 ______ is considered to be the least damaging to the stratospheric ozone layer. Choose one answer. a. CFCs b. methyl bromide c. halon d. HCFCs - Correct answer HCFCs Question 69 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a primary pollutant? Choose one answer. a. sulfur dioxide b. hydrocarbon c. nitrogen dioxide d. sulfuric acid - Correct answer sulfuric acid Question 70 Marks: 1 Almost all sound contains multiple frequencies. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Marks: 1 In recent years, the largest number of rabies cases were associated with Choose one answer. a. skunks b. bats c. dogs d. cats - Correct answer skunks Question 2 Marks: 1 The gains in life expectancy between 1900 (48 years) and 1974 (72 years) have occurred mostly in the early years and are due to Choose one answer. a. sanitation b. nutrition c. chemotherapy NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 22 | 274 d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 3 Marks: 1 It is believed that the ingestion of one virus particle can cause infection in humans. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 4 Marks: 1 Onchocerciasis is a rare illness found in some third world countries. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 5 Marks: 1 An illness due to a specific infectious agent or its toxic product which is transmitted from a reservoir to a susceptible host either directly or indirectly is called Choose one answer. a. an infectious disease b. a communicable disease c. a genetic disease d. a noncommunicable disease - Correct answer a communicable disease Question 6 Marks: 1 The cancer rate is roughly 72% higher for inner-city people than the level for suburbanites. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 7 Marks: 1 There is a scientific consensus that further increases in life expectancy are dependent on the extent to which Choose one answer. a. cancer can be controlled b. personal lifestyles can be changed c. pollution can be controlled d. b and c above - Correct answer b and c above Question 8 Marks: 1 A disease transmitted by birds and bird droppings is NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 25 | 274 a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 20 Marks: 1 The most effective means of control of bats is to "build them out." Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 21 Marks: 1 Toxins that attack nerves are referred to as enterotoxin. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 22 Marks: 1 The four major causes of death among all age groups of Americans include all of the following except Choose one answer. a. homicide b. accidents c. malignant neoplasms d. heart disease - Correct answer homicide Question 23 Marks: 1 Coliform, on soil surfaces, may survive up to 38 days. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 24 Marks: 1 The term "endemic" means Choose one answer. a. sporadic occurrence of an illness b. constant presence of an illness c. all illnesses present at any one time d. an unusually large number of persons with the same illness - Correct answer constant presence of an illness Question 25 Marks: 1 NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 26 | 274 The prevention of deaths from a particular disease increases the overall life expectancy in direct proportion to its decreased mortality. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 26 Marks: 1 Urine is usually sterile, except for urinary schistosomiasis, typhoid, and leptospirosis carriers. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 27 Marks: 1 The amelioration of a disease to reduce disability or dependence resulting from it is termed Choose one answer. a. primary prevention b. secondary prevention c. tertiary prevention d. none of the above - Correct answer tertiary prevention Question 28 Marks: 1 Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by Choose one answer. a. bacteria b. vertebrates c. viruses d. fungi - Correct answer fungi Question 29 Marks: 1 The prevention of respiratory diseases in "vulnerable" individuals is to Choose one answer. a. protect people from the source b. eliminate routes of transmission c. reduce presence of susceptible individuals d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 30 Marks: 1 Life expectancy is a measure of health progress, morbidity levels, and the quality of life. Choose one answer. NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 27 | 274 a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 31 Marks: 1 Soil moisture of about 30% to 45% of saturation is the best for survival of pathogens. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 32 Marks: 1 A water or foodborne disease outbreak with a short incubation period is likely because of Choose one answer. a. chemical poisoning b. schistosomiasis c. salmonellosis d. shigella - Correct answer chemical poisoning Question 33 Marks: 1 It is estimated that approximately 1/3 of water and foodborne diseases are reported. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 34 Marks: 1 Rocky Mountain spotted fever is spread by Choose one answer. a. flies b. spiders c. cockroaches d. ticks - Correct answer ticks Question 35 Marks: 1 The basic principles of disease control include all of the following except Choose one answer. a. use of antibiotics b. control of disease source c. mode of transmission NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 30 | 274 d. an adequate, safe water supply - Correct answer an adequate, safe water supply Question 6 Marks: 1 A comprehensive solid waste study must include Choose one answer. a. preliminary analysis for solid waste treatment and disposal b. administration and financing c. project study d. a comprehensive regional plan - Correct answer preliminary analysis for solid waste treatment and disposal Question 7 Marks: 1 What led to the formation of the NEPA? Choose one answer. a. public concern over environmental pollution b. scientific support c. professional prodding and support d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 8 Marks: 1 Most of the funding for municipal capital improvement is provided by Choose one answer. a. donations b. state funds c. revenue bonds and general obligation bonds d. loans - Correct answer revenue bonds and general obligation bonds Question 9 Marks: 1 Which one of the following would be considered primary gain for moving from the city into a suburban area? Choose one answer. a. fire protection b. lower taxes c. better schools d. improved sanitary conditions - Correct answer lower taxes Question 10 Marks: 1 An "environmental assessment" developed under NEPA is Choose one answer. a. an environmental evaluation dealing with fish NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 31 | 274 b. a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible c. a public document of environmental concern dealing with acid rain only d. an environmental evaluation dealing with air pollution control - Correct answer a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible Question 11 Marks: 1 Adequate highways, land-use controls, park and recreation facilities, water, sewers, solid waste disposal, and other services necessary for proper community functions are usually designed within the context of a ______ plan. Choose one answer. a. national b. regional c. metropolitan d. county - Correct answer regional Question 12 Marks: 1 The purpose of the National Environmental Policy Act is to Choose one answer. a. encourage productive and enjoyable interaction between human and the environment b. encourage measures that prevent or eliminate damage to the environment c. encourage greater understanding of the environment d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 13 Marks: 1 What is the smallest practical planning unit involved in regional planning? Choose one answer. a. the individual b. the village c. the county d. the city - Correct answer the county Question 14 Marks: 1 The process of comprehensive community planning includes all of the following except Choose one answer. a. a statement of goals and objectives b. public information and community action c. surrounding area politics d. basic studies, mapping, and data analysis - Correct answer surrounding area politics NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 32 | 274 Question 15 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a recommendation for topography and site survey? Choose one answer. a. careful investigation of the property b. former plot plans c. assistance by a cooperative neighbor d. water supply source that is fast moving - Correct answer water supply source that is fast moving Question 16 Marks: 1 For every 1,000 new people, a community will require all of the following except Choose one answer. a. the collection and disposal of 548 to 730 tons of solid waste per year b. an additional supply of 10 to 30 million gallons of water per year c. 10.0 or more acres of land for schools, parks, and play areas d. two to four additional hospital beds and three nursing home beds - Correct answer an additional supply of 10 to 30 million gallons of water per year Question 17 Marks: 1 ______ assists in economic growth by increasing personal income, retail sales, and bank deposits. Choose one answer. a. development of local business b. rezoning c. industry d. subdividing - Correct answer industry Question 18 Marks: 1 When developing a preliminary or feasibility report, which of the following steps would generally not be included? Choose one answer. a. environmental impact study b. cost estimates c. construction plans d. methods of financing - Correct answer construction plans Question 19 Marks: 1 The ______ in many cities has been leveling off, but has been increasing in the suburbs. Choose one answer. a. pollution rate NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 35 | 274 b. the U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare c. the U.S. Department of Housing and Construction d. the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development - Correct answer the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Question 29 Marks: 1 An EIS is required by ______, when the EA indicates significant impact to the Environment. Choose one answer. a. EPA b. NEPA c. HUD d. USDA - Correct answer NEPA Question 30 Marks: 1 Communities that desire to maintain the character of the community without overtaxing its members should Choose one answer. a. develop zoning regulations b. develop higher taxes on community organizations c. encourage the development of vacant land served by existing public services d. a and c above - Correct answer a and c above Question 31 Marks: 1 Federal air quality standards for sulfur oxides in parts per million is Choose one answer. a. 3.0 b. 0.03 c. 0.3 d. 0.003 - Correct answer 0.03 Question 32 Marks: 1 A planning board's enforcement tools include Choose one answer. a. subdivision regulations b. zoning codes c. guidance of improvement programs d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 33 NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 36 | 274 Marks: 1 The EPA stream water quality rate for fecal coliform is Choose one answer. a. 200 colonies per 100 ml b. 300 colonies per 100 ml c. 100 colonies per 100 ml d. 400 colonies per 100 ml - Correct answer 200 colonies per 100 ml Question 34 Marks: 1 The generally accepted method(s) of preventing subdivision complications and obtaining orderly community growth is (are) Choose one answer. a. comprehensive land-use planning b. education c. effective regulation d. all of the above - Correct answer comprehensive land-use planning Question 35 Marks: 1 In research and problem identification, the evaluation of the community contains all the following except Choose one answer. a. transportation systems b. population and demographic studies c. special planning studies d. economic studies and proposals - Correct answer special planning studies Question 36 Marks: 1 The purpose of public information and community action is which of the following? Choose one answer. a. to stimulate and provide channels for individuals to respond with information and ideas b. to keep the public informed c. to allow the planner to have a better relationship with the public d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 37 Marks: 1 Plan implementation involves capital improvement programs and financing plans. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 37 | 274 Question 38 Marks: 1 An environmental impact statement should contain all of the following except Choose one answer. a. project description and land-use relationships b. probable impact of the proposed action on the environment c. probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided d. relationship between local short-term uses of the environment and enhancement of long-term productivity - Correct answer probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided Question 39 Marks: 1 A QOL index is useful in determining future demands made on water supplies in subdivisions. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 40 Marks: 1 Actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment are categorically defined as Choose one answer. a. environmental impact b. cumulative impact c. environmental document d. categorical exclusion - Correct answer categorical exclusion Question 41 Marks: 1 The Council on Environmental Quality was established by Choose one answer. a. Title II of DSEA b. Title IV of PHSA c. Title VI of USEA d. Title II of NEPA - Correct answer Title II of NEPA Question 42 Marks: 1 A "vision" is a term used in strategic planning to represent the Choose one answer. a. desired future state b. where the organization wants to be in 5 years NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 40 | 274 Marks: 1 ______ was responsible for preparing a circular to help determine "the probable impact of the proposed action on the environment." Choose one answer. a. Sadesky b. Miller c. Leopold d. Randall - Correct answer Leopold Question 54 Marks: 1 The selection of a site for a public building often requires improvements. An undesirable feature that can often be remediated for public health reasons concerns is Choose one answer. a. a sloped desert area b. a high rocky area c. a low swampy area d. a dry mountain area - Correct answer a low swampy area Question 55 Marks: 1 Comprehensive planning includes Choose one answer. a. physical and social factors b. economic factors c. ecologic factors d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 56 Marks: 1 The amount of debt a municipality may incur is usually determined by Choose one answer. a. the mayor b. the contractor c. the local Board of County Commissioners d. the constitution or laws of a state - Correct answer the constitution or laws of a state Question 57 Marks: 1 The EPA stream quality indicator for dissolved oxygen in stream water is Choose one answer. a. 3 mg per liter NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 41 | 274 b. 4 mg per liter c. 5 mg per liter d. 6 mg per liter - Correct answer 6 mg per liter Question 58 Marks: 1 General obligation bonds used for financing municipal capital improvement are repaid by Choose one answer. a. sales tax b. real property tax c. local industry special tax d. private investors with limited ownership - Correct answer real property tax Question 59 Marks: 1 To determine the resources on a section of property, one should seek the assistance of a person who is experienced and familiar with Choose one answer. a. geology and wildlife b. forestry and engineering c. hydrology and chemistry d. a and b above - Correct answer a and b above Question 60 Marks: 1 A certificate of compliance is issued by the ______ when a system is properly installed. Choose one answer. a. manufacturer b. health department c. EPA d. property owner - Correct answer health department Question 61 Marks: 1 Haphazard development can be controlled by comprehensive local and regional planning if Choose one answer. a. public powers levy higher taxes b. public powers regulate development c. broad public powers and regulatory authority are provided d. none of the above - Correct answer broad public powers and regulatory authority are provided Question 62 NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 42 | 274 Marks: 1 An outline of a regional or area-wide planning study and report includes which of the following elements? Choose one answer. a. purpose and scope b. administration and financing c. the comprehensive regional plan d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 63 Marks: 1 A city, village, or town may adopt a local sewage and waste ordinance as part of its ______ depending on its availability and effectiveness. Choose one answer. a. sanitary code b. zoning ordinance c. building code d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 64 Marks: 1 Several proposals to establish a QOL index were investigated by Choose one answer. a. Hornback b. Smith c. Lewis d. Peale - Correct answer Hornback Question 65 Marks: 1 A charging hopper, gas cooling, and particulate removal are essential in the disposal of what types of wastes? Choose one answer. a. garbage disposal b. paper products c. solid wastes d. radioactive wastes - Correct answer solid wastes Question 66 Marks: 1 Stakeholder Focused Interactive Strategic planning is designed to locate common ground held by all stakeholders in the planning process. Choose one answer. a. True NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 45 | 274 a. connected to a city water supply b. temporarily abandoned c. abandoned d. a and b - Correct answer abandoned Question 77 Marks: 1 If the air in a community contains 0.10 to 0.17 parts per million of sulfur oxide, it is considered to be ______ quality air. Choose one answer. a. high b. moderate c. poor d. extremely poor - Correct answer moderate Question 78 Marks: 1 A special engineering study is required for slopes with an incline greater than Choose one answer. a. 8 percent b. 6 degrees c. 8 degrees d. 4 percent - Correct answer 8 percent Question 79 Marks: 1 The turbidity of water to be treated by slow sand filtration should not exceed Choose one answer. a. 50 NTU b. 25 NTU c. 10 NTU d. 30 NTU - Correct answer 25 NTU Question 80 Marks: 1 If a sample of water contains 5,000 fecal coliform colonies per 100 ml of water, it is placed in which environmental impact category? Choose one answer. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 46 | 274 d. 5 - Correct answer 2 Question 1 Marks: 1 Poor health in a food handler exposes food to unacceptable risks of contamination; therefore, a physical exam should be required Choose one answer. a. every 3 years b. every 2 years c. every year d. none of the above - Correct answer none of the above Question 2 Marks: 1 For custard-filled pies to be considered safe, they should be cooked to Choose one answer. a. 155 degrees F for 15 seconds b. 145 degrees F for 15 seconds c. 165 degrees F for 15 seconds d. 135 degrees F for 15 seconds - Correct answer 155 degrees F for 15 seconds Question 3 Marks: 1 Escherichia coli 0157:H7 was first identified as a pathogen during the investigation of two outbreaks in what two states? Choose one answer. a. Washington and Illinois b. Minnesota and Kentucky c. Texas and Iowa d. Oregon and Michigan - Correct answer Oregon and Michigan Question 4 Marks: 1 A yellow to brownish black stain taken during the sediment test Choose one answer. a. is a simple visual indication of the amount of dirt and abnormal substances in the milk b. encourages straining of the milk at the farm rather than cleaning milking procedures c. is an indication of high sediment content from the cow's udder d. reveals unsanitary practices during the milking process - Correct answer is a simple visual indication of the amount of dirt and abnormal substances in the milk Question 5 Marks: 1 A healthy milk herd is expected to be free of which disease(s)? NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 47 | 274 Choose one answer. a. mastitis b. brucellosis c. tuberculosis d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 6 Marks: 1 When disinfecting valves and other parts of equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be ______ with a chlorine solution of ______ concentration. Choose one answer. a. 120 degrees F, 25 mg/l b. 75 degrees F, 75 mg/l c. 55 degrees F, 85 mg/l d. Cannot be determined without pH of the solution - Correct answer 120 degrees F, 25 mg/l Question 7 Marks: 1 An ideal floor covering for a kitchen is Choose one answer. a. carpet b. linoleum c. quarry tile d. asphalt tile - Correct answer quarry tile Question 8 Marks: 1 What is the minimum period of wash time for a single-tank conveyer dishwashing machine? Choose one answer. a. 10 seconds b. 25 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 15 seconds - Correct answer 15 seconds Question 9 Marks: 1 The annual cost attributable to foodborne illnesses in the United States is estimated to be Choose one answer. a. $1.2 million to $5 million per year b. $5 trillion per year c. $1 billion to $10 billion per year NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 50 | 274 c. the shellfish population is decreasing due to water pollution d. a great number of shellfish are bought and sold illegally - Correct answer shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera, and typhoid fever Question 19 Marks: 1 Dealers involved in interstate shipment and control of shellfish must meet the requirements set forth by Choose one answer. a. FDA b. USDA c. NSSP d. CDC - Correct answer NSSP Question 20 Marks: 1 The FDA action level for aflatoxins in milk is Choose one answer. a. 20 ppb b. 7 ppb c. 1.0 ppb d. 0.5 ppb - Correct answer 0.5 ppb Question 21 Marks: 1 Escherichia coli 0157:H7 can be found thriving in the Choose one answer. a. intestines of man and animals b. water c. soil d. air - Correct answer intestines of man and animals Question 22 Marks: 1 Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by Choose one answer. a. mental stress b. a virus c. an infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7 d. listeriosis - Correct answer an infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7 Question 23 Marks: 1 The major reason for the regulation of food establishments is to NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 51 | 274 Choose one answer. a. prevent foodborne illnesses b. ensure restaurant safety c. reduce liability d. increase consumer confidence - Correct answer prevent foodborne illnesses Question 24 Marks: 1 Which of the following factors slow(s) down biological activity and preserve(s) food? Choose one answer. a. high or low temperatures b. reduced moisture c. salt d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 25 Marks: 1 Oyster-shell stock or shucked oysters sampled at the source should not have MPNB of ______ or more fecal coliform per 100 grams of shellfish. Choose one answer. a. 240 b. 230 c. 235 d. 250 - Correct answer 230 Question 26 Marks: 1 The contamination of milk with sediment is typically the result of which of the following? Choose one answer. a. improper cleaning of milking apparatus b. improper cleaning of the cow c. improper handling of the milk d. improper vaccination for brucellosis - Correct answer improper cleaning of the cow Question 27 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a common refrigerant? Choose one answer. a. carbon dioxide b. methyl chloride c. sulfur dioxide NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 52 | 274 d. nitrogen oxide - Correct answer nitrogen oxide Question 28 Marks: 1 The correct order of sequence for hand washing dishes is Choose one answer. a. scrape, wash, sanitize, rinse, air dry b. scrape, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry c. scrape, wash, rinse, air dry d. scrape, wash, sanitize, rinse, towel dry - Correct answer scrape, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry Question 29 Marks: 1 As milk leaves the cow, it is approximately 96 degrees F to 100 degrees F. Prechilling of the milk helps: Choose one answer. a. to ensure rapid bulk cooling within the refrigerated bulk tank to the desired temperature of less than 40 degrees F b. to locate toxic chemicals which precipitate upon cooling before they enter the bulk tank c. to detect infected or feverish heifers since cooling sensor readily spot overheated milk d. to mellow the flavor of the final product - Correct answer to ensure rapid bulk cooling within the refrigerated bulk tank to the desired temperature of less than 40 degrees F Question 30 Marks: 1 Oysters free themselves of contaminating viruses and bacteria within ______ of exposure in purified seawater. Choose one answer. a. 12 to 24 hours b. 6 to 12 hours c. 12 to 2 days d. 18 to 24 hours - Correct answer 12 to 24 hours Question 31 Marks: 1 Escherichia coli 0157:H7 is a bacteria that currently Choose one answer. a. tends to cause disease in all who come in contact with it b. is difficult to test for c. is responsible for numerous diseases of the skin d. none of the above - Correct answer is difficult to test for Question 32 Marks: 1 Floors in food processing plants, dairy plants, kitchens, and similar places should be sloped ______ toward each drain. NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 55 | 274 a. Shigella b. Pseudomonas c. Escherichia coli d. Enterobacter aerogenes - Correct answer Escherichia coli Question 42 Marks: 1 Which of the following is best to use when sanitizing food contact equipment? Choose one answer. a. phenols b. copper c. zinc d. none of the above - Correct answer none of the above Question 43 Marks: 1 Hot water for the sanitizing of assembled equipment is not to be cooler than ______ at the end of the system. Choose one answer. a. 170 degrees F for 5 minutes b. 180 degrees F for 5 minutes c. 185 degrees F for 5 minutes d. 187 degrees F for 5 minutes - Correct answer 170 degrees F for 5 minutes Question 44 Marks: 1 Temperatures of ______ have been found satisfactory for the storage of refrigerated foods. Choose one answer. a. 32 degrees F to 38 degrees F b. 38 degrees F to 41 degrees F c. 40 degrees F to 45 degrees F d. 45 degrees F to 48 degrees F - Correct answer 38 degrees F to 41 degrees F Question 45 Marks: 1 Adequate light is essential for proper operation, maintenance, and sanitation. A minimum of ______ is recommended on food work surfaces. Choose one answer. a. 5-foot candles b. 20-foot candles c. 30-foot candles d. 50-foot candles - Correct answer 50-foot candles NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 56 | 274 Question 46 Marks: 1 Which state has a quarantine on mussels from May 1 to October 31? Choose one answer. a. Florida b. California c. Louisiana d. New York - Correct answer California Question 47 Marks: 1 After milk is pasteurized, it should be rapidly cooled to below ______ so that Choose one answer. a. 45 degrees F; any remaining bacteria will be killed by rapid temperature change b. 40 degrees F; molecular activity in any remaining organisms will be stopped c. 45 degrees F; lactic acid bacteria will be slowed in reproduction d. 40 degrees F; the remaining bacteria will not materially increase - Correct answer 40 degrees F; the remaining bacteria will not materially increase Question 48 Marks: 1 In order to avoid pathogen growth and/or survival, food that is greater than ______ thick frozen or partially thawed should not be cooked. Choose one answer. a. 4 inches b. 3 inches c. 2 inches d. 1 inch - Correct answer 4 inches Question 49 Marks: 1 Milk is considered Ultra-High Temperature pasteurized if it reaches Choose one answer. a. 145 degrees F (63 degrees C) for 30 minutes b. 194 degrees F (90 degrees C) for 0.5 seconds c. 212 degrees F (100 degrees C) for 1 seconds d. none of the above - Correct answer 212 degrees F (100 degrees C) for 1 seconds Question 50 Marks: 1 The amount of heat required to lower one pound of a product one degree Fahrenheit is Choose one answer. NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 57 | 274 a. exothermal extraction b. the specific heat c. the coolant factor d. important to know - Correct answer the specific heat Question 51 Marks: 1 A mold control program should include all of the following factors except Choose one answer. a. spraying with a 5000 mg/1 sodium hypochlorite solution b. spraying with a 1000 mg/1 quaternary ammonium compound c. re-spraying the entire section with 400 to 500 mg/1 of quaternary solution every week or two d. cleaning the affected area with an alkaline detergent - Correct answer spraying with a 1000 mg/1 quaternary ammonium compound Question 52 Marks: 1 When it is not possible to collect and examine a large number of samples for bacteria exam inations, an indication of the sanitary condition of the milk can be obtained by Choose one answer. a. methylene blue reduction test b. resazurin test c. both a and b above d. none of the above - Correct answer both a and b above Question 53 Marks: 1 Thermoduric bacteria grow best at a temperature range of Choose one answer. a. 40 degrees F to 58 degrees F b. 60 degrees F to 72 degrees F c. 70 degrees F to 98 degrees F d. 46 degrees F to 118 degrees F - Correct answer 70 degrees F to 98 degrees F Question 54 Marks: 1 Many states rules requre the refrigeration of Shucked shellfish at or below ______ but above 32 degrees F. Choose one answer. a. 45 degrees F b. 42 degrees F c. 47 degrees F NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 60 | 274 Question 64 Marks: 1 Oysters grow best at what pH and temperature? Choose one answer. a. 6.2 to 6.4 and 37 degrees F b. 6.2 to 6.8 and 41 degrees F c. 6.4 to 7.0 and 45 degrees F d. 6.0 to 6.8 and 32 degrees F - Correct answer 6.2 to 6.8 and 41 degrees F Question 65 Marks: 1 In a dry food storage room, the artificial lighting should provide a minimum of Choose one answer. a. 10-foot candles b. 50-foot candles c. 100-foot candles d. 3-foot candles - Correct answer 10-foot candles Question 66 Marks: 1 Pasteurized milk quality is indicated by Choose one answer. a. direct microscopic count, coliform test, standard plate count b. appearance, thermoduric, determination c. phosphatase test, taste and odor tests d. a and c above - Correct answer a and c above Question 67 Marks: 1 Which bacteria can survive cooking to appropriate levels? Choose one answer. a. Salmonella b. Brucella sp. c. Shigella d. Clostridium perfringens - Correct answer Clostridium perfringens Question 68 Marks: 1 Which minerals and chemicals cause problems in ice manufacturing? Choose one answer. a. calcium and silica NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 61 | 274 b. iron and magnesium carbonates c. aluminum oxide and manganese d. all the above - Correct answer all the above Marks for this submission: 0/1. Question 69 Marks: 1 Outbreaks of ______ traced to contaminated shellfish between 1900 and 1925 led to the PHS Certification of dealers involved in interstate shipment. Choose one answer. a. cholera b. gastroenteritis c. typhoid fever d. dysentery - Correct answer typhoid fever Question 70 Marks: 1 Pasteurization of milk product does not eliminate which of the following? Choose one answer. a. toxins b. anthrax spores c. pesticides d. any of the above - Correct answer any of the above Question 71 Marks: 1 Food inspection programs of the future will focus increasingly on Choose one answer. a. hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations b. more frequent inspections c. more rigid enforcement of all rules d. increased food handler exams - Correct answer hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations Question 72 Marks: 1 Proper facility lighting is essential for Choose one answer. a. cleanliness b. accident prevention c. fatigue reduction d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 62 | 274 Question 73 Marks: 1 E. coli 0157:H7 is often spread by Choose one answer. a. direct contact b. under-cooked food c. a and b d. none of the above - Correct answer . a and b Question 74 Marks: 1 Mussels from ______ contain a chemical poison during certain times of the year which is not destroyed during cooking. Choose one answer. a. the Pacific Coast b. England c. Europe d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 75 Marks: 1 Quality control of milk includes which of the following? Choose one answer. a. transportation, herd health b. milk handling, processing c. distribution, refrigeration d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 76 Marks: 1 Contamination in a block of ice can be identified by ______ in the geometric center. Choose one answer. a. air bubbles b. discoloration c. crystallization d. separation of the core section - Correct answer discoloration Question 77 Marks: 1 Which would be the least effective method of controlling condensation of moisture in food preparation areas? Choose one answer. a. increase air temperature NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 65 | 274 d. all of the above - Correct answer plasma technology Question 7 Marks: 1 The EPA requires that dioxin-bearing wastes be ______ destroyed or reduced before disposal in a secure hazardous waste landfill. Choose one answer. a. 99.99 percent b. 95.00 percent c. 99.9999 percent d. 0.05 percent - Correct answer 99.9999 percent Question 8 Marks: 1 Hazardous wastes include Choose one answer. a. industrial discharges permitted under the FWPCA b. agricultural wastes c. permitted irrigational waters d. none of the above - Correct answer none of the above Question 9 Marks: 1 By definition under RCRA hazardous wastes are ______ wastes. Choose one answer. a. solid b. natural c. gray d. none of the above - Correct answer solid Question 10 Marks: 1 Household hazardous waste is regulated like any other hazardous waste. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 11 Marks: 1 Neutralization and detoxification are feasible with most of the organophosphate and carbamate insecticides, but not with the ______. Choose one answer. a. chlorinated hydrocarbons NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 66 | 274 b. acids c. bases d. all of the above - Correct answer chlorinated hydrocarbons Question 12 Marks: 1 A household hazardous waste management program draws much of its strength from informed and concerned citizens. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 13 Marks: 1 Household hazardous waste is not exempt from DOT regulations when shipped to a disposal facility. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 14 Marks: 1 The state or federal regulatory agency with jurisdiction should never be consulted when conducting a suitability audit of a waste disposal company. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 15 Marks: 1 Hazardous wastes include ______ substances. Choose one answer. a. chemical b. biological c. flammable d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 16 Marks: 1 A permanent facility for collecting and storing household waste should be located away from residential areas and places of public gathering. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 17 Marks: 1 NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 67 | 274 High temperature incineration systems are most suitable to destroy Choose one answer. a. wastewater b. organic compounds c. domestic sewage d. none of the above - Correct answer organic compounds Question 18 Marks: 1 Which of the following is the least approprate option for hazardous waste minimization? Choose one answer. a. treatment b. waste reduction at the point of generation c. process modification d. concentration - Correct answer concentration Question 19 Marks: 1 Hazardous waste is governed by the Choose one answer. a. Clean Water Act b. Occupational Safety and Health Act c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act d. Food and Drug Act - Correct answer Resource Conservation and Recovery Act Question 20 Marks: 1 Which of the following waste material is not classified as a California list waste that is banned from land disposal? Choose one answer. a. liquid having pH equal or less than 2 b. any solid waste c. PCBs greater than 50 mg/l d. liquid waste containing 130 mg/l thallium - Correct answer any solid waste Question 21 Marks: 1 Well-placed, existing solid waste collection areas are good choices for household hazardous waste collection sites. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 22 NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 70 | 274 a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 2 Marks: 1 It takes ______ half-lives to reduce the radioactivity of a radionuclide to about 1% of what it was when first measured. Choose one answer. a. 200 b. 125 c. 75 d. 7 - Correct answer 7 Question 3 Marks: 1 In practice, exposure to all ionizing radiation is controlled by the use of shields of lead. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 4 Marks: 1 A filter of 2 mm of aluminum will absorb the soft, or less penetrating, radiation. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 5 Marks: 1 Neutrons are charged, high-energy particles. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 6 Marks: 1 An unacceptable use of radiation is Choose one answer. a. osteopathy b. chiropody c. fluoroscopy for the purpose of fitting shoes d. all of the above - Correct answer fluoroscopy for the purpose of fitting shoes Question 7 Marks: 1 NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 71 | 274 The median lethal dose of radiation (at which about 50% of the persons exposed will probably die in one month) is considered to be Choose one answer. a. 150 to 250 roentgens b. 350 to 550 roentgens c. 550 to 750 roentgens d. 1000 roentgens - Correct answer 550 to 750 roentgens Question 8 Marks: 1 The genetic harm done by radiation is not cumulative. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 9 Marks: 1 Which of the following have little penetrating power and are normally a hazard to health only in the form of internal radiation received through ingestion, inhalation, or open wounds? Choose one answer. a. x-rays b. alpha particles c. beta particles d. gamma rays - Correct answer alpha particles Question 10 Marks: 1 Carbon 14, a radioactive isotope of carbon, has a half-life of almost 6000 years. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 11 Marks: 1 The term "rem" is short for Choose one answer. a. roentgen energy measure b. roentgen equivalent measure c. radiation energy measure d. none of the above - Correct answer none of the above Question 12 Marks: 1 Radiation could scatter and bounce off the NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 72 | 274 Choose one answer. a. floor b. wall c. ceiling d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 13 Marks: 1 ______ routinely sample air, water, and food supplies for radionuclides. Choose one answer. a. The FDA b. The USEPA c. The NRC d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 14 Marks: 1 The term "rad" means Choose one answer. a. required administered dose b. radiation admitted dose c. roentgen absorbed dose d. radiation absorbed dose - Correct answer radiation absorbed dose Question 15 Marks: 1 A CT scanner is a combination computer and x-ray machine. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 16 Marks: 1 A state radiation protection program may involve control of Choose one answer. a. x-ray units and radioactive materials b. waste disposal c. environmental monitoring and surveillance d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 17 Marks: 1 NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 75 | 274 c. neutrons d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 29 Marks: 1 Beta radiation is commonly eliminated by Choose one answer. a. lead b. both glass or plastic and aluminum c. glass d. aluminum - Correct answer both glass or plastic and aluminum Question 30 Marks: 1 Radioactive substances used in medicine are always sealed. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 31 Marks: 1 Sources of x-rays that operate at a voltage above 10 kilovolts are less hazardous than sources less than 10 kV. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 32 Marks: 1 When the whole body is irradiated, the most radiosensitive area(s) is (are) Choose one answer. a. spleen b. lymph nodes c. bone marrow d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 33 Marks: 1 The only difference between gamma rays, x-rays, and visible light is Choose one answer. a. their charge b. their particle size c. their frequency NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 76 | 274 d. none of the above - Correct answer their frequency Question 34 Marks: 1 More information is known about effects of trace amounts of chemical carcinogens than radiation effects. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 35 Marks: 1 Radon is an alpha emitter; daughter decay products are alpha, beta, and gamma emitters. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 36 Marks: 1 Only sperm and nerve cells can apparently replace themselves or recover, to some extent, from radiation exposure if the dose is not excessive. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 37 Marks: 1 A concentration of x-ray machines in one building will not affect scatter radiation. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 38 Marks: 1 Microwaves are reflected by Choose one answer. a. metals b. plastic c. glass d. human tissues - Correct answer metals Question 39 Marks: 1 Isotopes of the same element have Choose one answer. a. the same mass number but different atomic numbers b. the same atomic number but different mass numbers NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 77 | 274 c. different atomic and mass numbers d. the same atomic and mass numbers - Correct answer the same atomic number but different mass numbers Question 40 Marks: 1 What material has a high melting point, a high atomic number and is used as a target material to produce x-rays? Choose one answer. a. copper b. lead c. aluminum d. tungsten - Correct answer tungsten Question 41 Marks: 1 Lead shielding devices are not necessary for chest or upright x-rays. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 42 Marks: 1 Beta particles can be stopped by a few millimeters of aluminum. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 43 Marks: 1 Exposure of the gonads (ovaries or testes) is necessary to cause genetic effects from ionizing radiation. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 44 Marks: 1 Common deficiencies regarding therapy units may include filtration, exposure control, and calibration. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 45 Marks: 1 One of the common types of ionizing radiation is the x-ray. Choose one answer. a. True NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 80 | 274 b. False - Correct answer False Question 56 Marks: 1 A principle(s) for effecting external radiation protection is (are) Choose one answer. a. distance b. time of exposure c. shielding d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 57 Marks: 1 If 5000 persons were exposed to a background radiation of 0.1 rem per year, this would represent a person-rem exposure of 500. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 58 Marks: 1 Which term is used to describe the exposure of large populations to ionizing radiation? Choose one answer. a. person-rem b. gamma-rem c. radiation-rem d. quantum-rem - Correct answer person-rem Question 59 Marks: 1 ______ has the responsibility for internal housekeeping and for monitoring all waste discharges in terms of types and quantities. Choose one answer. a. Industry b. NCR c. NEPA d. State health departments - Correct answer Industry Question 60 Marks: 1 A thin sheet of paper will stop a beta particle. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 81 | 274 Question 61 Marks: 1 The term "rem" does not take into consideration the biological effect of different kinds of radiation from the same dose in rads. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer False Question 62 Marks: 1 Many defects in x-ray units are easy to find and need no instruments. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 63 Marks: 1 Everyone is subject to natural background radiation. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 64 Marks: 1 An ordinary chest x-ray produces an exposure of about 0.1 rad; a very heavy diagnostic series, about 10 rads. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 65 Marks: 1 Factors that could determine the effect of radiation on the body include Choose one answer. a. rate of absorption b. individual variability c. nutrition, oxygen tension, metabolic state d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 66 Marks: 1 Gamma rays come from the nucleus of an atom; x-rays come from the electrons around the nucleus and are produced by electron bombardment. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 82 | 274 Question 67 Marks: 1 Biological effects of radiation on all living organisms, including human beings, are termed somatic or genetic. Choose one answer. a. True b. False - Correct answer True Question 68 Marks: 1 The Department of Energy regulations require solidification of high-level radioactive wastes within ______ of their production. Choose one answer. a. 1 year b. 5 years c. 10 years d. 20 years - Correct answer 5 years Question 69 Marks: 1 Filters will Choose one answer. a. add haze on the film b. reduce stray radiation c. not affect radiation absorbed by the patient d. cause a greater exposure time - Correct answer reduce stray radiation Question 70 Marks: 1 To produce thermal effects, microwave energy is converted to ______ in the body or organism. Choose one answer. a. chemical energy b. mechanical energy c. power d. heat - Correct answer heat Question 1 Marks: 1 The best control of swimmer's itch at a bathing beach is to Choose one answer. a. add copper sulfate b. increase the chlorine residual c. lower the chlorine residual - Correct answer add copper sulfate NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 85 | 274 d. crystal clear, with the proper level of approved disinfectant,, and a PH level of 7.0 - Correct answer crystal clear, with the proper level of approved disinfectant, and a PH level of 7.4 Question 11 Marks: 1 To raise the pH, add Choose one answer. a. chlorine b. muriatic acid c. sodium carbonate d. sulfuric acid - Correct answer sodium carbonate Question 12 Marks: 1 In large pools with outlets more than 5 feet from the end wall, pool inlets should be located Choose one answer. a. every 30 feet b. every 10 feet c. every 20 feet d. every 5 feet - Correct answer every 20 feet Question 13 Marks: 1 Improper use of chemicals or improperly balanced pool or beach water may cause the spread of infectious disease due to Choose one answer. a. removal of protective coatings of mucous on tissue b. irritation of skin c. living organisms in the water d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 14 Marks: 1 The molecular state of hypochlorous acid is the desired product from chlorination of pool waters. This product Choose one answer. a. is increased with an upward movement of pH b. is decreased with a lower of pH c. is ionized with a pH decrease d. is 62 percent molecular at a pH of 7.2 - Correct answer is 62 percent molecular at a pH of 7.2 Question 15 Marks: 1 The pool must be designed Choose one answer. NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 86 | 274 a. to fit the expected numbers of swimmers b. with oversized filters to meet unexpected peak demands c. with oversized pumps to meet peak demands d. with a variety of filter types to provide filtering options for the operator - Correct answer to fit the expected numbers of swimmers Question 16 Marks: 1 Gas chlorine is considered Choose one answer. a. 50 percent available chlorine b. 75 percent available chlorine c. 100 percent available chlorine d. 92 percent available chlorine - Correct answer 100 percent available chlorine Question 17 Marks: 1 Pool inlets should be located a minimum of 10 inches to 15 inches below the water line to Choose one answer. a. ensure good mixing b. prevent clogging c. prevent loss of disinfectant d. ensure mixing of pH additives poured into pool - Correct answer prevent loss of disinfectant Question 18 Marks: 1 The acidity-alkalinity balance affects eye irritation, water coagulation and the Choose one answer. a. effectiveness of chlorine b. ambient water temperature c. effectiveness of the skimmers d. evaporation rate - Correct answer effectiveness of chlorine Question 19 Marks: 1 To mix acid and water, always Choose one answer. a. add water to acid b. add acid to water c. add soda ash to acid NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 87 | 274 d. stir while pouring water into the acid - Correct answer add acid to water Question 20 Marks: 1 It is essential that all public pools Choose one answer. a. require footbaths b. require pre-showering of patrons c. run the recirculation and disinfection equipment 24 hours per day d. shovel in at least 4 lbs of calcium hypochlorite per 10,000 gallon per 4-hour period - Correct answer run the recirculation and disinfection equipment 24 hours per day Question 21 Marks: 1 Chemicals that have been used for pool disinfection include chlorine, chlorinated cyanurates, bromine and Choose one answer. a. ammonia b. soda ash c. sodium thiosulfate d. iodine - Correct answer iodine Question 22 Marks: 1 The connection between the pool drain and the sanitary sewer must Choose one answer. a. be solid copper no less than three inch in diameter b. be solid cast iron or NSF approved PVC c. have a properly located cleanout d. be provided with an air gap no less that 2 pipe diameters of the discharge pipe - Correct answer have a properly located cleanout Question 23 Marks: 1 Some studies indicate that swimmers have a higher over-all illness rate than do non-swimmers Choose one answer. a. regardless of bathing water quality b. due to poor regulatory practice c. if they are over 50 years of age d. if they swim in pools - Correct answer regardless of bathing water quality Question 24 Marks: 1 The main drain should have a grate that is ______ the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects. NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 90 | 274 a. on-board holding tanks b. overboard discharge c. incinerator toilet d. compost toilet - Correct answer on-board holding tanks Question 34 Marks: 1 The microbe primarily responsible for skin infections in whirlpools Choose one answer. a. escherichia coli b. pseudomonas aeruginosa c. shigella sonnei d. salmonella typhimurium - Correct answer pseudomonas aeruginosa Question 35 Marks: 1 A pH ______ is probably optimal for minimal eye irritation along with maintenance of effective residual chlorine. Choose one answer. a. above 7.8 b. below 7.2 c. 7.5 to 7.6 d. none of the above - Correct answer 7.5 to 7.6 Question 36 Marks: 1 The backwash rate for both conventional, rapid and high rate sand filters is Choose one answer. a. 5 gpm/ft2 b. 10 gpm/ft2 c. 15 gpm/ft2 d. 50 gpm/ft2 - Correct answer 15 gpm/ft2 Question 37 Marks: 1 The recommended and most effective method of maintaining pool water quality is Choose one answer. a. super-chlorination b. intermittent circulation, chlorination, and filtration c. continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration d. chlorination - dechlorination - Correct answer continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 91 | 274 Question 38 Marks: 1 Water in wading pools should be completely recirculated every Choose one answer. a. 1 to 2 hours b. 12 hours c. 6 hours d. 24 hours - Correct answer 1 to 2 hours Question 39 Marks: 1 The ideal pH range for swimming pools is Choose one answer. a. 6.0 to 8.5 b. 6.5 to 8.5 c. 7.2 to 7.6 d. 5.0 to 7.0 - Correct answer 7.2 to 7.6 Question 40 Marks: 1 It has been found that pools less than 30 feet wide with a surface area less than 1600 ft2 Choose one answer. a. may utilize skimmers instead of gutters b. may utilize gutters rather than skimmers c. are not required to have disinfectant feeders d. do not have to use continuous equipment operation - Correct answer may utilize skimmers instead of gutters Question 1 Marks: 1 Dead animals are best disposed in Choose one answer. a. an incinerator or rendering plant b. a separate area of sanitary landfill c. a composting bed d. either a or b above - Correct answer either a or b above Question 2 Marks: 1 Which of the following is (are) true about composting? Choose one answer. a. it has been a great success in the United States NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 92 | 274 b. it may come from the organic fraction of municipal solid waste c. it results in a poor fertilizer d. both b and c above - Correct answer both b and c above Question 3 Marks: 1 After a landfill site is closed, it should be covered with at least ______ of compacted soil having a low permeability, graded to shed rainwater, melting snow, and surface water. Choose one answer. a. 5 feet b. 3 feet c. 2 feet d. 6 feet - Correct answer 2 feet Question 4 Marks: 1 Which of the following is not recommended for a refuse storage area? Choose one answer. a. a drained concrete floor b. ample natural or artificial light and ventilation c. temperature kept below 50 degrees F d. uncovered base - Correct answer uncovered base Question 5 Marks: 1 In the rectangular furnace, the grates are arranged in Choose one answer. a. arches b. rectangles c. tiers d. circles - Correct answer tiers Question 6 Marks: 1 Additional fuel is needed to incinerate refuse Choose one answer. a. with 30 percent or less rubbish b. with 50 percent or more moisture c. with 10 percent or more metals d. both a and b above - Correct answer both a and b above Question 7 NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 95 | 274 Oil that has had a physical and chemical impurities removed and that by itself or when blended with new oil or additives, is substantially equivalent or superior to new oil intended for the same purposes, is called Choose one answer. a. re-refined oil b. substandard oil c. terrestrial oil d. subsurface oil - Correct answer re-refined oil Question 17 Marks: 1 The dumping of garbage and other refuse at sea in the United States is Choose one answer. a. permitted at depths greater than 100 feet b. considered a sanitary practice if weather conditions, distance from shore, and depth of water requirements are met c. prohibited d. not very cost-effective - Correct answer prohibited Question 18 Marks: 1 The transfer station should be located ______ of the collection service area. Choose one answer. a. on the perimeter b. at the busiest location c. in the center d. none of the above - Correct answer in the center Question 19 Marks: 1 One piece of refuse-compaction and earth-moving equipment is needed at the landfill site for approximately each Choose one answer. a. 40 loads per day b. 60 loads per day c. 80 loads per day d. 100 loads per day - Correct answer 80 loads per day Question 20 Marks: 1 The temperature of the gases leaving the furnace is reduced by Choose one answer. a. spraying with water b. dilution with cool air NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 96 | 274 c. passing through heat exchanges d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 21 Marks: 1 Before trying to convert an "open dump" into a sanitary landfill, you must first Choose one answer. a. remove all previous waste to another site b. institute a rat-poisoning program 2 weeks before conversion c. develop a plan of operation, supervision, maintenance, and a drawing showing your proposed plans d. both b and c above - Correct answer both b and c above Question 22 Marks: 1 Methane in the presence of air is explosive at concentrations between Choose one answer. a. 5 and 15 percent b. 3 and 5 percent c. 20 and 25 percent d. 50 and 60 percent - Correct answer 5 and 15 percent Question 23 Marks: 1 The normal economical hauling distance to a refuse disposal site is usually between Choose one answer. a. 5 to 10 miles b. 10 to 15 miles c. 15 to 20 miles d. 20 to 25 miles - Correct answer 10 to 15 miles Question 24 Marks: 1 Resource recovery and reduction of solid wastes should start Choose one answer. a. at the point of generation b. at the sanitary landfill c. in the home d. at the transfer station - Correct answer at the point of generation Question 25 Marks: 1 Collection cost is about ______ of the total cost of solid waste management. Choose one answer. NEHA REHS RS Exam Test Bank - Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers Latest Updated & Verified 2024 P a g e 97 | 274 a. 10%-20% b. 20%-40% c. 50%-70% d. 70%-90% - Correct answer 50%-70% Question 26 Marks: 1 The spread of ______ is (are) encouraged when uncooked garbage is fed to hogs Choose one answer. a. trichinosis to humans b. hog cholera c. vesicular exanthema in swine d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 27 Marks: 1 Depending on the size of the community, there should be a minimum of one man at a landfill site and ______ men per 1000 yd3 of waste dumped per day that the site is open. Choose one answer. a. six b. four c. three d. two - Correct answer six Question 28 Marks: 1 When considering a site for a sanitary landfill, both county and regional-wide planning and administration of the site should be considered because Choose one answer. a. it could result in shorter travel distances and a lower unit of cost for operation b. the results could be more efficient and a lower unit cost for operation c. there will be less citizen opposition and shorter travel distances d. all of the above - Correct answer all of the above Question 29 Marks: 1 The goal for management of hazardous waste should be Choose one answer. a. safe disposal methods b. minimal impact on the environment c. zero discharge