NR 507 Final Exam / NR507 Final Exam (V2 , NEW, 2024 )(75 Q/A): Chamberlain College, Exams of Nursing

Download NR 507 Final Exam / NR507 Final Exam (V2 , NEW, 2024 )(75 Q/A): Chamberlain College and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NR 507 Final Exam Question 1. Question : What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra? Encephalocele Meningocele Spina bifida occulta Myelomeningocele Explanation: Myelomeningocele is a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst containing meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord with its nerves through a defect in the posterior arch of a vertebra. The remaining options are not appropriate terms to identity the described condition. Question 2. Question : What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue? Glomerular filtration rate Hourly urine output Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine The specific gravity of the solute concentration of the urine Explanation: The glomerular filtration rate provides the best estimate of the level of functioning of renal tissue. The other options are not used to assess renal tissue function. Question 3. Question : Where are Langerhans cells found? Skin Intestinal lining Kidney Thyroid Explanation: Of the available options, only the skin is the location for Langerhans cells. Question 7. Question : The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant? Immunotope Paratope Epitope Antigenitope Explanation: The precise portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called its antigenic determinant or epitope. The other options are not used to identify this portion of the antigen. Question 8. Question : Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea? Syphilis Herpes simplex virus Chlamydia Chancroid Explanation: The coexistence of chlamydial infection with gonorrhea frequently occurs. No coexistence exists with the other options. Question 9. Question : How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured? Reticulocyte count Serum transferring Hemoglobin Serum vitamin B12 Explanation: The effectiveness of cobalamin replacement therapy is determined by a rising reticulocyte count. The other options are not used as indicators of the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy Question 10. Question : Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? Blood vessels Epithelial cells Connective tissue Glandular tissue Explanation: Only cancers arising from epithelial cells are called carcinomas. Question 11. Question : Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin? Viruses Bacteria and fungi Protozoa and Rickettsiae Mycoplasma Explanation: Only bacteria and fungi have the capacity to reproduce on the skin. Question 14. Question : What is the function of erythrocytes? Tissue oxygenation Hemostasis Infection control Allergy response Explanation: Erythrocytes are solely responsible for tissue oxygenation. Question 15. Question : Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively? Liposarcoma, lipoma Lipoma, liposarcoma Adisarcoma, adipoma Adipoma, adisarcoma Explanation: In general, cancers are named according to the cell type from which they originate (e.g., lip for cancers that originate in adipose or fat tissue), whereas benign tumors use the suffix -oma. Cancers arising from connective tissue usually have the suffix sarcoma. Question 16. Question : What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)? 20% 25% 33% 50% Explanation: A 25% chance exists with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with sickle cell trait will have SCD. Genetic counseling enables people with SCD or with the sickle cell trait to make informed decisions about transmitting this genetic disorder to their offspring. Question 17. Question : What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx? Nasal turbinates Alveolar macrophages Cilia Irritant receptors on the nares Explanation: The submucosal glands of the bronchial lining produce mucus, contributing to the mucous blanket that covers the bronchial epithelium. The ciliated epithelial cells rhythmically beat this mucous blanket toward the trachea and pharynx, where it can be swallowed or expectorated by coughing. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the pulmonary defense mechanism described. Question 18. Question : The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic Question 21. Question : Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? IgA IgE IgG IgM Explanation: IgA can be divided into two subclasses, IgA1 and IgA2. IgA1 molecules are predominantly found in the blood, whereas IgA2 is the predominant class of antibody found in normal body secretions. The other options are not found in the substances identified in the question. Question 22. Question : Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response? Norepinephrine Epinephrine Cortisol Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Explanation: Only the release of norepinephrine promotes arousal, increased vigilance, increased anxiety, and other protective emotional responses. Question 23. Question : Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate? The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport. The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system. The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake. The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age. Explanation: To protect the child against infectious agents both in utero and during the first few postnatal months, a system of active transport facilitates the passage of maternal antibodies into the fetal circulation. The antibodies are transmitted via the placenta and are related to the mother’s immune system. The infant’s own IgG-related antibodies reach protective levels by 6 months of age. Question 24. Question : The function of the tumor cell marker is to: Provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer. Treat certain types of cancer. Predict where cancers will develop. Screen individuals at high risk for cancer. Explanation: Screening and identifying individuals at high risk for cancer are ways tumor markers can be used. These markers are not used to definitively diagnosis or treat cancer and are not useful in predicting specific sites of Survivability Prevalence Incidence Explanation: The prevalence rate is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at a specific point in time. Thus both the incidence rate and the length of the survival period in affected individuals determine prevalence. The description in the question does not relate to any of the other options. Question 28. Question : Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle? Sodium intake Physical inactivity Psychosocial stress Obesity Explanation: The most important environmental risk factors for hypertension are increased sodium intake, decreased physical activity, psychosocial stress, and obesity. However, obesity is, itself, influenced by genes and the environment. Question 29. Question : Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n): Atretic follicle Thecal follicle Corpus luteum Functional scar Explanation: Having ejected a mature ovum, the only resulting structure is the corpus luteum. Question 30. Question : The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder? Osteogenesis imperfecta Rickets Osteochondrosis Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease Explanation: Of the available options, only rickets is a disorder in which growing bone fails to become mineralized (ossified) and results in soft bones and skeletal deformity. Question 31. Question : What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding? Tolerance Perception Threshold Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue Explanation: Widespread joint and muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points are characteristics of fibromyalgia, a chronic musculoskeletal syndrome. Increased sensitivity to touch (i.e., tender points), the absence of systemic or localized inflammation, and fatigue and sleep disturbances are common. Fatigue is profound. The remaining options include symptoms not generally associated with fibromyalgia. Question 35. Question : Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation? Heat cramps Heat stroke Malignant hyperthermia Heat exhaustion Explanation: Of the options presented, only heat exhaustion, or collapse, is a result of prolonged high core or environmental temperatures resulting in dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia. Question 36. Question : What is the leading cause of infertility in women? Pelvic inflammatory disease Endometriosis Salpingitis Polycystic ovary syndrome Explanation: Polycystic ovary syndrome remains one of the most common endocrine disturbances affecting women, especially young women, and is a leading cause of infertility in the United States. Question 37. Question : Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone? Thyroxine Aldosterone Follicle-stimulating hormone Insulin Explanation: Peptide or protein hormones, such as insulin, pituitary, hypothalamic, and parathyroid, are water soluble and circulate in free (unbound) forms. All the remaining options are fat-soluble hormones. Question 38. Question : What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor? Question 41. Question : Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction? Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation Explanation: Muscle contraction is a four-step process: excitation, coupling, contraction, and relaxation. Question 42. Question : Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism? Twofold Threefold Fourfold Tenfold Explanation: Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent, even when raised by nonalcoholic parents, have a fourfold increased risk of developing the disorder. Question 43. Question : Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones? Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Estrogen Explanation: Extrahypothalamic factors cause the hypothalamus to secrete GnRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete gonadotropins—FSH and LH. These hormones, in turn, stimulate the gonads (ovaries or testes) to secrete female or male sex hormones. Question 44. Question : A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome? Turner Klinefelter Down Fragile X Explanation: A disorder in the chromosome (47, XXY karyotype) results in a disorder known as Klinefelter syndrome. The correct option is the only one that accurately describes a genetic disorder that exhibits the described genetic configuration. Question 45. Question : Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia? Question 48. Question : The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain? Thalamus Brainstem Frontal lobe Hypothalamus Explanation: A small group of hypothalamic nerve cells, the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), controls the timing of the sleep-wake cycle and coordinates this cycle with circadian rhythms (24-hour rhythm cycles) in areas of the brain and other tissues. The remaining options do not fulfill this objective. Question 49. Question : Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles? Sodium Potassium Calcium Magnesium Explanation: Contraction begins as the calcium ions combine with troponin, a reaction that overcomes the inhibitory function of the troponin-tropomyosin system. This selection is the only option that has such a direct association with muscle contraction. Question 50. Question : Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means? Systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney Bacteria traveling from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder Colonization of the bladder when urine is static Explanation: Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in girls occur as a result of perineal bacteria, especially Escherichia coli, ascending the urethra. None of the other options represent the means by which bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract. Question 51. Question : A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? 3 6 9 12 Explanation: GAD is diagnosed when an individual spends at least 6 months worrying excessively and exhibits at least three of the six symptoms. Although 3 months is not sufficient time, the remaining options are excessive. Question 52. Question : What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children? Question 55. Question : Which term is used to identify the temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact? Dislocation Subluxation Malunion Nonunion Explanation: Dislocation is the temporary displacement of a bone from its normal position in a joint. If the contact between the two surfaces is only partially lost, then the injury is referred to as a subluxation. This selection is the only option that identifies the temporary displacement of two bones, causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact. Question 56. Question : The tear in a ligament is referred to as a: Fracture Strain Disunion Sprain Explanation: Ligament tears are commonly known as sprains. None of the other options are associated with this damage. Question 57. Question : Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults? Less water is absorbed from the colon in children. Fluid reserves are smaller in children. Children have a higher fluid volume intake. Children have diarrhea more often than adults. Explanation: Infants have low fluid reserves and relatively rapid peristalsis and metabolism. Therefore the danger of dehydration is great. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies the reason prolonged diarrhea is more severe in children. Question 58. Question : The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women? Ovarian Lung Uterine Pancreatic Explanation: BRCA1 mutations increase the risk of ovarian cancer among women (20% to 50% lifetime risk), and BRCA2 mutations also confer an increased risk of ovarian cancer (10% to 20% lifetime prevalence). BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are not currently believed to be linked with risks of lung, uterine, or pancreatic cancers. Question 59. Question : Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell? immunoglobulin? IgA IgE IgG IgM Explanation: Mucosal secretions from the cervix contain enzymes and antibodies— predominantly IgA. Question 63. Question : The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder? Night terrors Insomnia Somnambulism Enuresis Explanation: Three types of parasomnias include arousal disorders such as confusional arousals, sleepwalking (somnambulism), and night terrors (dream anxiety attacks). The remaining options do not involve a sense or expression of fear or any other strong emotion. Question 64. Question : What is the basic structural unit in compact bone? Small channels called canaliculi Osteocytes within the lacunae Tiny spaces within the lacunae Haversian system Explanation: The basic structural unit in compact bone is the haversian system (see Figure 43-4). This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the basic structure of compact bone. Question 65. Question : Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s: Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Frontal lobe Basal ganglia Explanation: Parkinson disease is a commonly occurring degenerative disorder of the basal ganglia and not of any of the other brain structures. Question 66. Question : Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain? GCT Pattern theory these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect? Congenital aganglionic megacolon Intussusception Malrotation Volvulus Explanation: Based on these data, the nurse should suspect intussusception. A single normal stool may be passed, evacuating the colon distal to the apex of the intussusception. After passing a normal stool, 60% of infants will pass “currant jelly” stools, which appear dark and gelatinous because of their blood and mucus content. Intussusception is the only option that describes the symptoms listed. Question 70. Question : In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Disruption in the hypothalamus Disruption of the pituitary Deficit in estrogen or testosterone Physiologic hormonal delays Explanation: In 95% of children with delayed puberty, the delay is physiologic; that is, hormonal levels are normal and the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is intact, but maturation is slowly happening. This option is the only answer that accurately describes the most common cause of delayed puberty. Question 71. Question : Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers? Slow contraction speed Fast conduction velocities Profuse capillary supply Oxidative metabolism Explanation: Type II fibers, also called white fast-motor fibers, are innervated by relatively large type II alpha motor neurons with fast conduction velocities. This selection is the only correct option provided. Question 72. Question : Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder? Dementia syndrome Delirium Alzheimer disease Parkinson disease Explanation: Amyloid plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, as well as neuronal and synaptic losses in the brain, characterize Alzheimer disease. Question 73. Question : Which hormone triggers uterine contractions? Thyroxine