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Phlebotomy Certification Final Exam, Exams of Nursing

A practice exam or study guide for a phlebotomy certification exam. It covers a wide range of topics related to phlebotomy, including the responsibilities of the public health service, patient rights and expectations, phlebotomy procedures and techniques, laboratory departments and personnel, healthcare regulations and standards, and legal and ethical considerations in phlebotomy. Detailed questions and answers on these topics, which could be useful for students preparing for a phlebotomy certification exam. The level of detail and the comprehensive coverage of phlebotomy-related topics suggest that this document could be valuable as study notes, lecture notes, or a summary for students pursuing a phlebotomy certification or related healthcare courses.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 08/02/2024

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Download Phlebotomy Certification Final Exam and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! PHLEBOTOMY CERTIFICATION FINAL EXAM Questions with 100% verified Answers Rated GRADE A+ Latest Updates 2024 The Public Health Service's responsibilities is to: a.) administer programs for control of disease b.) implement national entitlement programs c.) provide emergency services and treatment d.) write laboratory regulations for CLIA '88 - correct answerA (administer programs for control of disease) This is an abbreviation for a healthcare provider made up of a number of associated medical facilities coordinated healthcare services from prebirth to death. a.) CPT b.) IDS c.) PHS d.) PPO - correct answerB (IDS) The abbreviation for the coding system used for patients seen in the ambulatory setting and for physician billing is called: a.) CPT b.) DRGs c.) PPO d.) PPS - correct answerA (CPT) A nationally endorsed principle ensuring that patients and their families understand their rights and responsibilities while in a healthcare facility can be found in: a.) federally mandated HIPPA regulations b.) prepaid healthcare insurance plans c.) Protected Health Information documents d.) The Patient Care Partnership brochure - correct answerD (the Patient Care Partnership brochure) This is the abbreviation for a classification system that is used to determine payment to hospitals for outpatient services. a.) APC b.) DRGs c.) IDC-9 d.) PPS - correct answerA (APC) Which director, chief officer, or vice president would have the administrative responsibility for supervising ancillary testing, such as magnetic resonance imaging? a.) Sr. Director Performance Excellence b.) VP Clinical and Support Services c.) VP/Chief Nursing Officer d.) VP Community Development - correct answerB (VP Clinical and Support Services) Who has the responsibility for controlling hospital induce infection in the healthcare facility? a.) Sr. Director Performance Excellence b.) VP Clinical and Support Services c.) VP/Chief Nursing Officer d.) VP Community Development - correct answerA (Sr. Director Performance Excellence) Which phlebotomist's duty involves testing for TB and cocci? a.) Collect routine venous specimens b.) Perform electrocardiography c.) Perform point-of-care testing d.) Prepare specimens for transport - correct answerC (Perform point-of-care testing) b.) invasion of the intimate zone c.) lack of professionalism d.) all of the above - correct answerD (all the above) Which of the following is an example of a confirming response to a patient? a.) "I am on a tight schedule right now." b.) "I do not know what you mean." c.) "I have no idea how long it will take." d.) "I understand how you must be feeling." - correct answerA ("I am on a tight schedule right now.") Proxemics is the study of an individual's: a.) body language b.) concept of space c.) facial expressions d.) verbal communication - correct answerB (concept of space) Which of the following is an example of proxemics? a.) eye contact b.) facial expressions c.) personal contact d.) personal hygiene - correct answerC (personal contact) What is the average speaking rate of a normal adult? a.) 75 to 100 words per minute b.) 125 to 150 words per minute c.) 250 to 350 words per minute d.) 500 to 600 words per minute - correct answerB (125 to 150 words per minute) Another term for outpatient care is: a.) ambulatory care b.) nonambulatory care c.) nursing home care d.) rehabilitation care - correct answerA (ambulatory care) Which laboratory department performs tests to identify abnormalities of the blood and blood-forming tissue? a.) Chemistry b.) Hematology c.) Microbiology d.) Urinalysis - correct answerB (hematology) Which of the following tests would be performed in surgical pathology? a.) Compatibility testing b.) Enzyme immunoassay c.) Frozen section d.) Triglycerides - correct answerC (frozen section) Which of the following tests if performed in the coagulation department? a.) BUN b.) CBC c.) D-dimer d.) Glucose - correct answerC (D-dimer) Another name for blood bank is: a.) immunohematology b.) immunology c.) microbiology d.) serology assays - correct answerA (immunohematology) Which one of the following is a chemistry test? a.) hemoglobin A1c b.) hematocrit c.) platelet count d.) reticulocyte count - correct answerA (hemoglobin A1c) They do not test cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in this department. a.) chemistry b.) hematology c.) immunohematology d.) microbiology - correct answerC (immunohematology) With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring? a.) nuclear medicine b.) pharmacy c.) physical therapy d.) radiology - correct answerB (pharmacy) Which department processes and stains tissue samples for microscopic analysis? a.) chemistry b.) coagulation c.) histology d.) microbiology - correct answerC (histology) Of the following personnel, only a high school diploma is required of which one? a.) laboratory scientist b.) medical technician c.) medical technologist a.) BMP b.) C&S c.) CBC d.) CSF - correct answerC (CBC) Which department performs CEA testing? a.) chemistry b.) hematology c.) microbiology d.) urinalysis - correct answerA (chemistry) Which department performs radiographic procedures and other imaging techniques to aid in diagnosis? a.) occupational therapy b.) electroneurodiagnostics c.) diagnostic radiology d.) respiratory therapy - correct answerC (diagnostic radiology Which of the following would most likely be performed in the serology department? a.) BUN b.) CBC c.) PTT d.) RPR - correct answerD (RPR) Which of the following laboratory personnel has the same qualification as a medical technologist? a.) MLS b.) CLT c.) MLT d.) RPT - correct answerA (MLS) This department examines specimens microscopically for the presence of crystals, casts, bacteria, and blood cells. a.) chemistry b.) hematology c.) microbiology d.) urinalysis - correct answerD (urinalysis) Brain wave mapping and evoked potentials are performed by which department? a.) ECG b.) EEG c.) OT d.) RT - correct answerB (EEG) This is the abbreviation for a relatively new category of multiskilled personnel who work as part of the nursing team, performing nursing an phlebotomy duties. a.) ADN b.) CNA c.) EMT d.) PCT - correct answerD (PCT) Which laboratory worker has a bachelor's degree or equivalent in medical technology? a.) MLS b.) CPT c.) MLT d.) PBT - correct answerA (MLS) Which of the following laboratory personnel has an associate's degree or equivalent? a.) MLS b.) MLT c.) MT d.) PBT - correct answerB (MLT) A specimen for ova and parasite testing would be sent to which department? a.) chemistry b.) coagulation c.) microbiology d.) urinalysis - correct answerC (microbiology) A glucose test would be performed in which department? a.) chemistry b.) hematology c.) microbiology d.) pathology - correct answerA (chemistry) Which one of the following services is offered by local public health agencies? a.) licensure for healthcare workers b.) immunization of the populace c.) collection for donor blood d.) therapy for patient mobility - correct answerB (immunization of the populace) Which test is used in the ED as a "Cardiac marker"? a.) BNP b.) HCG c.) MCV d.) PSA - correct answerA (BNP) Blood typing and compatibility testing are performed in this department. a.) blood bank b.) good laboratory practices c.) quality indicators d.) test threshold values - correct answerB (good laboratory practices) Continuous quality improvement involves: a.) being administered by CDC and OSHA b.) identifying situations that pose risks to employees c.) operating private educational institutions d.) all of the above - correct answerB (identifying situations that pose risks to employees) One of the responsibilities of the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) is to: a.) accredit all educational facilities b.) operate risk management programs c.) oversee administration of CLIA '88 d.) provide healthcare worker insurance - correct answerD (provide healthcare worker insurance) An internal process focused on identifying and minimizing situations that pose danger to patients and employees is: a.) facility-wide risk management b.) a performance improvement plan c.) sentinel (early warning) events d.) the delta check procedure - correct answerA (facility-wide risk management) CLIA categorizes certificates for laboratories according to: a.) the complexity of testing b.) personnel qualifications c.) quality-control standards d.) the size of the laboratory - correct answerA (the complexity of testing) CLIA laboratories that perform high-complexity testing: a.) are funded by the federal government b.) are subjected to routine inspections c.) must hire PhDs are supervisors d.) must renew their certificates annually - correct answerB (are subjected to routine inspections) The Joint Commission's Sentinel Event QI program's purpose is to: a.) demonstrate flexibility in setting QC measures b.) prevent unfavorable events from happening again c.) research healthcare organizations' collection of data d.) standardize measurements of quality performance - correct answerA (demonstrate flexibility in setting QC measures) If a sentinel event occurs, the healthcare organization is required to: a.) develop new personnel guidelines and standards b.) incorporate a complaint procedure c.) monitor improvements to see if they are effective d.) send a complete report to the Joint Commission - correct answerC (monitor improvements to see if they are effective) A very busy phlebotomist misidentifies the patient when collecting a specimen for transfusion preparation. The possible misdiagnosis of blood type could cause the patient's death. If the phlebotomist's actions results in injury, the wrongful act is called: a.) assault b.) battery c.) fraud d.) negligence - correct answerD (negligence) The abbreviation for the federal regulations that established quality standards for all laboratories that test human specimen is: a.) BBP standard b.) CLIA '88 c.) HazCom d.) OSHA - correct answerB (clia 88) Which organization provides voluntary laboratory inspections and proficiency testing? a.) ASCP b.) CAP c.) CLSI d.) OSHA - correct answerB (CAP) QC protocols prohibit use of outdated evacuated tubes because: a.) additives that speed up clotting crystalize on the sides of the tube b.) bacteria begin to grow in these tubes, yielding erroneous results c.) stoppers may shrink, allowing specimen leakage if the tube is inverted d.) tubes may not fill completely, changing additive-to-sample ratio - correct answerC (stoppers may shrink, allowing specimen leakage if the tube is inverted) Which preanalytical factor that can affect validity of test results is not always under the phlebotomist's control? a.) patient identification b.) patient preparation c.) specimen collection d.) specimen handling - correct answerB (patient preparation) After a failed venipuncture attempt and before deciding to switch to the other arm, the phlebotomist moves the needle several times without knowing the current needle proximity to the desired vein. The blood is obtained easily and quickly from the new site. The patient later complains of pain in the antecubital area where the phlebotomist was unsuccessful. What claim can be made against the phlebotomist? a.) assault a.) absence of a QC program for each area of laboratory b.) lack of documentation of ongoing education for staff c.) serious problems with specimen labeling and handling d.) use of unlicensed personnel in state that requires it - correct answerC (serious problems with specimen labeling and handling) One of NPSG's specified 2010 goals for the laboratory is to: a.) decrease sick days b.) identify safety issues c.) improve communications d.) increase proficiency testing - correct answerC (improve communications) CLIAC's role in assisting CMS to administer CLIA is to: a.) advise b.) educate c.) inspect d.) manage - correct answerA (advise) The purpose of the Office of Quality Monitoring is to: a.) evaluate and track complaints related to care b.) implement immediate response to safety issues c.) inspect healthcare facilities for accreditation d.) set specific patient safety goals to improve care - correct answerA (evaluate and track complaints related to care) The pathogen responsible for causing an infection is called the infectious: a.) agent b.) host c.) vector d.) vehicle - correct answerA (agent) This type of precaution of required for a patient with Mycoplasma pneumoniae. a.) airborne b.) contact c.) droplet d.) standard - correct answerC (droplet)