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RAD 121 FINAL EXAM 2024/2025 VERIFIED ANSWERS, Exams of Radiology

Partial displacement of a bone from the joint: - Correct answer-subluxation what position best demonstrates a right lung pneumothorax on a patient who cannot stand? - Correct answer-left lateral decubitus chest What is the term for when the CR skims a body surface? - Correct answer-tangential Which exams use a non-ionic iodinated contrast media? - Correct answer-ERCP, Arthrogram, Cholangiogram What is the location of barium in the RAO stomach? - Correct answer-body and pylorus What is BaSO4? - Correct answer-barium sulfate What is the IR placement for the Danelius Miller Hip? - Correct answer-parallel to the femoral neck

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2024/2025

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Download RAD 121 FINAL EXAM 2024/2025 VERIFIED ANSWERS and more Exams Radiology in PDF only on Docsity! RAD 121 FINAL EXAM 2024/2025 VERIFIED ANSWERS Partial displacement of a bone from the joint: - Correct answer-subluxation what position best demonstrates a right lung pneumothorax on a patient who cannot stand? - Correct answer-left lateral decubitus chest What is the term for when the CR skims a body surface? - Correct answer-tangential Which exams use a non-ionic iodinated contrast media? - Correct answer-ERCP, Arthrogram, Cholangiogram What is the location of barium in the RAO stomach? - Correct answer-body and pylorus What is BaSO4? - Correct answer-barium sulfate What is the IR placement for the Danelius Miller Hip? - Correct answer-parallel to the femoral neck What plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections? - Correct answer-coronal plane Describe the male pelvis: - Correct answer-heavier, deeper, more narrow, pelvic inlet is more oval/heart shaped, pubic arch greater than 90 degrees What are the bones between the phalanges and the carpals? - Correct answer-metacarpals what term describes the path of the beam? - Correct answer-projection what position puts the head lower than the feet? - Correct answer-trendelenburg What do the posterior BE obliques best demonstrate? - Correct answer-upside flexures what does the RPO BE best demonstrate? - Correct answer-the higher left colic flexure what does the LPO BE best demonstrate? - Correct answer-right colic flexure what is the CR location for the LPO BE? - Correct answer-iliac crest what is the CR location for the RPO BE? - Correct answer-2 inches above iliac crest what is the joint between the proximal and distal phalanx of the thumb? - Correct answer- interphalangeal joint What is the routine for the calcaneus? - Correct answer-Plantodorsal Axial and Lateral What is a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement? - Correct answer-Colle's Fracture What are the breathing instructions for a routine chest exam? - Correct answer-expose on second full inspiration what is the kVp for an Air Contrast Barium Enema? - Correct answer-90 Why is a chest x-ray performed erect? - Correct answer-drops diaphragm to lowest point, reduces magnification of heart, demonstrates air/fluid levels What pathologies can be visualized on a BE? - Correct answer-colon cancer, polyps, diverticula, volvulus, intussusception, colitis Which position best demonstrates the base of the 5th metatarsal? - Correct answer-medial oblique foot which plane divides the body in EQUAL left and right halves? - Correct answer-mid-sagittal plane which plane divides the body into EQUAL anterior and posterior halves? - Correct answer-mid-coronal plane The tunnel projection demonstrates what? - Correct answer-the intercondylar fossa What separates the true and the false pelvis? - Correct answer-pelvic brim or superior aperture explain the Jones Method for elbow trauma views: - Correct answer-elbow is flexed more than 90 degrees, take one image centered to elbow joint and perpendicular to forearm and one to humerus What will provide uniform density on images of long bones like the femur? - Correct answer-anode heel effect Position of the foot for AP Hip/Pelvis? - Correct answer-Inverted 15 degrees What is done post gallbladder surgery to rule out residual stones? - Correct answer-T-Tube Cholangiogram What is the rule for angling the tube for AP/Oblique Knees? - Correct answer->19 cm - 3-5 caudad 19-24 cm - no angle <24 cm - 3-5 cephalad What are indications for an ERCP? - Correct answer-biliary stones, stenosis, tumors, jaundice which bones make up the ankle joint? - Correct answer-talus, tibia, fibula What are the routine positions/projections of the chest? - Correct answer-PA and Lateral What is best demonstrated on the medial oblique elbow? - Correct answer-coronoid process What is best demonstrated on the lateral oblique elbow? - Correct answer-radial head and neck Where is the barium located on an AP stomach? - Correct answer-fundus What is the proper position of a lateral elbow? - Correct answer-humerus and forearm in same plane, epicondyles superimposed, thumb up, 90 degrees What are some additive disease processes? - Correct answer-ascites, pulmonary effusion, lung cancer, TB, atelectasis Where is the esophagus located? - Correct answer-anterior to the spine, posterior to the trachea What is anatomic position? - Correct answer-The body is erect, feet slightly apart, the head is held high, and the palms of the hands are facing forward What is the position where the patients left side is against the IR, and the beam enters the right side of the body? - Correct answer-left lateral What is the position of the thumb on a PA hand? - Correct answer-medial oblique What is the CR location for a PA chest? - Correct answer-MSP and level of T-7 What is the SID for chest radiography? - Correct answer-72" which positions demonstrate free air in the abdomen? - Correct answer-upright, left lateral decubitus, dorsal or ventral decubitus, PA chest Where will an aspirated foreign body most likely lodge? - Correct answer-in the right main stem bronchus - it is wider and shorter What structures are located in the LUQ? - Correct answer-stomach, spleen, left colic flexure, tail of pancreas, left kidney Which joint type includes a capsule? - Correct answer-synovial What are the three parts of the small intestine from first to last? - Correct answer-duodenum, jejunum, ileum What is the direction of the enema tip when placing? - Correct answer-anteriorly, toward the umbilicus which bone of the lower leg bears the weight of the body? - Correct answer-Tibia What is the CR for a lateral knee? - Correct answer-5-7 degrees cephalad, 1" distal to medial epicondyle the transthoracic lateral best demonstrates what? - Correct answer-lateral view of proximal humerus What is the distal portion of the tibia? - Correct answer-medial malleolus What is a common gallbladder abnormality - Correct answer-cholelithiasis What is demonstrated with a 15-20 degree medial rotation of the ankle? - Correct answer-the mortise joint What is a common location for ulcers? - Correct answer-stomach and duodenum What is the CR location for a lateral scapula? - Correct answer-mid-vertebral border? What is the term for decreasing the angle of a joint - Correct answer-flexion The flat superior surfaces of the proximal tibia? - Correct answer-tibial plateuas What is the CR location for the AP shoulder projections? - Correct answer-1" inferior to the coracoid process What position/projection best demonstrates the Esophagus? Why? - Correct answer-RAO, it places the esophagus between the heart shadow and the spine Which chest position/projection will best demonstrate a pneumothorax? - Correct answer-expiration chest How are AC Joints performed? - Correct answer-bilateral with and without weights at 72" SID What is a method of demonstrating a tangential patella with the patient prone? - Correct answer- Settegast, Hughston What are some indications for a UGI? - Correct answer-GERD, gastritis, nausea, vomiting, ulcer What is the most superior portion of the large intestine? - Correct answer-Left Colic Flexure Term describing nearness to a source: - Correct answer-proximal Rotation is seen on chest x-ray as: - Correct answer-ribs that are not superimposed, clavicles are not equal distance from the sternum Rounded bump on the anterior proximal tibia - Correct answer-tibial tuberosity What is the CR for the AP Foot? - Correct answer-10 degrees towards base of heel to base of 3rd metatarsal What demonstrates the lungs free of clavicular superimposition? - Correct answer-Apical Lordotic Chest What is the rule for alignment of fractures? - Correct answer-2 views, 90 degrees apart What is the position of the epicondyles on a lateral humerus? - Correct answer-perpendicular to the IR The asthenic body habitus is: - Correct answer-the smallest body type, may be emaciated Which bony landmarks are used to locate the femoral head and neck? - Correct answer-ASIS and symphysis pubis What is the proximal row of carpals? - Correct answer-scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform What is the distal row of carpals? - Correct answer-trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate What is the term for toward the midline or center? - Correct answer-medial Anatomy that is not visible on a properly positioned AP Hip or Pelvis: - Correct answer-lesser trochanter Radiation protection for the patient includes: - Correct answer-Shielding, asking and documenting LMP, ruling out pregnancy What position/projection will best demonstrate a shoulder dislocation? - Correct answer-Scapular Y What must be ruled out prior to performing AC joints? - Correct answer-shoulder fracture? What is the term for flexing the foot back toward the ankle? - Correct answer-Dosiflexion What position is the patient placed in for enema tipping? - Correct answer-Sims Position Routine views of the ankle include: - Correct answer-AP, Oblique, Lateral What methods are used to demonstrate the intercondylar fossa? - Correct answer-Holmblad and Camp Coventry What is the position of the epicondyles in relation to the cassette on an AP humerus? - Correct answer- parallel to IR What is the position of the epicondyles in relation to the cassette on LAT humerus? - Correct answer- perpendicular to IR What is the most common wrist fracture? - Correct answer-Colles fracture What are the 7 tarsals? - Correct answer-talus, calcaneus, navicular, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, lateral cuneiform, cuboid Which of the following are tools that a radiographer can use to limit scatter radiation? - Correct answer- beam-restricting devices and radiographic grids A larger the x-ray beam field size results in: - Correct answer-increase in scatter produced and increase in fog Which of the following beam restricting devices is best at limiting unsharpness surrounding the radiographic image? - Correct answer-collimator The unrestricted primary beam produces a(n) _________ area of exposure. - Correct answer-round Decreasing collimation results in: - Correct answer-A larger field size An aperture diaphragm with an attached elongated tube is a(n): - Correct answer-cylinder A beam-restricting device that has two or three sets of lead shutters is a(n): - Correct answer-collimator A device consisting of very thin lead strips with radiolucent interspaces intended to absorb scatter radiation emitted from the patient is a: - Correct answer-grid Which of the following is not a way to reduce the production of scatter radiation? - Correct answer- increase grid ratio The height of the lead strips relative to the distance between the lead strips is the measure of: - Correct answer-grid ratio The number of lead strips per inch in a grid is a measure of: - Correct answer-grid frequency Due to an increase potential grid cutoff, which would be the most challenging grid to use? - Correct answer-Cross-hatched grid What is the result of imaging a thicker part or patient? - Correct answer-More Compton interactions Which of the following statements is true? - Correct answer-As grid ratio increases, the removal of scatter increases If an excellent knee radiograph is produced using 10 mAs and an 8:1 ratio grid, how much mAs will be needed if no grid is available? - Correct answer-2.5 mAs Changing from an 8:1 grid to a 12:1 grid, along with making the appropriate adjustments, will result in: - Correct answer-All of the options are correct. The recommended SIDs that can be used with a focused grid describe the: - Correct answer-focal range Why was automatic exposure control (AEC) developed? - Correct answer-To determine the radiation exposure required to produce a quality image Once a predetermined amount of radiation is transmitted through a patient to the AEC detector, which of the following occurs? - Correct answer-the x-ray exposure terminates Which automatic exposure device works by using a gas-filled chamber? - Correct answer-ionization chamber Where is the sensor located in an automatic exposure device with a gas filled chamber? - Correct answer-In front of the image receptor Which exposure variable is controlled by the automatic exposure control device? - Correct answer- seconds What describes the shortest exposure time required for the AEC device to operate? - Correct answer- minimum response time When using an AEC, what should the radiographer adjust to manipulate the subject contrast of the image? - Correct answer-kVp When using an AEC, what can the radiographer adjust to change the applied mAs to the IR? - Correct answer-Exposure adjustment control Which of the following is a system that allows the radiographer to select a specific button on the control panel that represents an anatomic area and displays a preprogrammed set of exposure factors? - Correct answer-anatomically programmed technique If the detector is directly exposed to the primary beam during a film-screen study, the area of interest will appear: - Correct answer-underexposed, insufficient With modern x-ray equipment, the AEC system's minimum response time is typically: - Correct answer-1 ms The mAs readout: - Correct answer-Reports the actual mAs used for an exposure When doing a tabletop forearm study, you should: - Correct answer-set manual technique A technique chart should be established for: - Correct answer-Each radiographic tube What are calipers used for? - Correct answer-To measure the part Which of the following is not part of a standardized technique chart? - Correct answer-oid Failure to pay one's federal income taxes would be an example of a(n): - Correct answer-violation of federal law Fluoroscopy done in the surgical theater is typically accomplished with a - Correct answer-portable C- arm system. Which layer of the radiographic film contains crystals suspended in gelatin that serve as the latent imaging centers? - Correct answer-emulsion What is the purpose of the intensifying screen? - Correct answer-To reduce the amount of exposure to the patient The intensifying screens convert the exit radiation intensities into: - Correct answer-Visible light Before a radiographic film can be visualized, it must be: - Correct answer-chemically processed Which of the following is a major limitation in film screen imaging? - Correct answer-limited dynamic range What is the term generally used to describe the emission of light from a substance as the result of stimulation by radiation? - Correct answer-luminescence The radiation and light sensitive material used in the emulsion of the radiographic film is called? - Correct answer-silver halide crystals When a film has emulsion coated on both sides of the base versus one side of the base, the film is referred to as: - Correct answer-double emulsion film The degree to which film emulsion is sensitive to x-rays or light is the: - Correct answer-film speed The greater the film speed, the ______ sensitive it is. - Correct answer-more _____[uses a continuous beam of x-rays to create images of the movement of the internal structures that can be viewed on a monitor. - Correct answer-Fluoroscopy _____imaging is accomplished with fluoroscopy as opposed to radiography. - Correct answer-Dynamic Real Ewing the pressure applied to the ____ will terminated the radiation exposure during fluoroscopy. - Correct answer-Deadman switch The _____ is coated with light emitting crystals to absorb electrons and emit light. - Correct answer- output phosphor The input phosphor is _____ than the output phosphor - Correct answer-larger In reference to image intensification, the function that adjusts and maintains the overall image brightness and contrast during the fluoroscopic procedure is: - Correct answer-ABC A disadvantage of using magnification mode during fluoroscopy is: - Correct answer-the patient receives additional dose In image intensified fluoroscopy, Shane distortion is caused by: - Correct answer-The curve shape of the photocathode Increasing the mA is the way to correct a fluoroscopic image that has - Correct answer-noise The purpose of a beam splitting mirror is to: - Correct answer-allow spot filming to be done during fluoroscopy In terms of resolution, the weakest part of the fluoroscopic system is the - Correct answer-Display monitor Which of the following require the X-ray beam to be in radiographic mode? - Correct answer-cassette spot filming Which of the following happens while in radiographic mode? - Correct answer-X-ray tube switches to high mA The SSD should be no less than _____ for a fixed or stationary fluoro unit. - Correct answer-38 cm When using the mobile C-Arm unit, the x-ray tube should be positioned under the patient and the image intensifier above the patient because: - Correct answer-reduce radiation exposure to operator. Which of the following provides a lower dose rate and greater equipment flexibility and beta utilized for extremities? - Correct answer-Mini C-arm The newest fluoroscopy systems use a flat panel detector: - Correct answer-in place of the image intensifier What feature has replaced automatic brightness control (ABC) on newer fluoroscopic units? - Correct answer-Automatic exposure rate control (AERC) _____ reduces the number of images each second, decreases patient dose, and reduces the visibility of patient motion. - Correct answer-pulsed fluoroscopy Fluoroscopic equipment should be inspected every - Correct answer-6 months