TEST BANK ESSENTIALS OF ORAL HISTOLOGY AND EMBRYOLOGY 5TH EDITION CHIEGO | ALL CHAPTERS CO, Exams of Nursing

Download TEST BANK ESSENTIALS OF ORAL HISTOLOGY AND EMBRYOLOGY 5TH EDITION CHIEGO | ALL CHAPTERS CO and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! TEST BANK ESSENTIALS OF ORAL HISTOLOGY AND EMBRYOLOGY 5TH EDITION CHIEGO | ALL CHAPTERS COVERED Chapter 01: Development and Structure of Cells and Tissues Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Mitochondria produce which chemical for intracellular energy? a. ADP b. ATP c. RNA d. DNA ANS: B Feedback A Mitochondria generate energy through ATP, not ADP, production. B Correct. Mitochondria produce energy via ATP. C Mitochondria generate energy through ATP, not RNA, production. D Mitochondria generate energy through ATP, not DNA, production. DIF: Recall REF: pp. 2-3 OBJ: 1 2. Each tissue originates from mesoderm, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Bone b. Liver c. Blood d. Muscle ANS: B Feedback A Bone tissue develops from mesodermal cells. B Correct. Liver tissue is produced by endodermal cells. C Blood develops from mesodermal cells. D Muscle tissue develops from mesodermal cells. DIF: Recall REF: p. 6 OBJ: 3 3. Which chemical is called the second messenger? a. aDNA b. mRNA c. dGMP A The ovary is the female reproductive organ, in which the ova or eggs are produced. B The uterine tube conducts the egg from the ovary to the uterus. C The myometrium is the smooth muscle that lines the uterus. D Correct. The endometrium provides the ovum with the nourishment necessary for implantation and growth. 9. Intercalated disks are present in which type of muscle? a. Cardiac b. Smooth c. Skeletal d. Voluntary ANS: A Feedback A Correct. Cardiac is the only type of muscle tissue with intercalated disks. B Intercalated disks are not present in smooth muscle. C Intercalated disks are not present in skeletal muscle. D Intercalated disks facilitate the involuntary contractions of cardiac muscle. DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 OBJ: 4 10. Developmental abnormalities are not associated with which number of chromosomes? a. 44 b. 45 c. 46 d. 47 ANS: C Feedback A Developmental abnormalities are associated with less than the normal number of chromosomes (46). B Developmental abnormalities are associated with less than the normal number of chromosomes (46). C Correct. The normal human cell has 46 total chromosomes. D Developmental abnormalities are associated with more than the normal number of chromosomes (46). DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 16 OBJ: 4 11. Which best describes diapedesis? a. Programmed cell death and fragmentation b. A protective mechanism in the immunologic defense of the body c. The development of a cartilage disk in the neck of each long bone d. The migration of leukocytes between endothelial cells to the site of infection ANS: D Feedback A Apoptosis is cell death and fragmentation into membrane-bound particles. B The lymphatic system is an immunologic defense mechanism. C The epiphyseal plate is a developmental disk of cartilage. D Correct. Diapedesis is a process whereby leukocytes migrate between endothelial cells to the site of infection. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 12 OBJ: 4 12. T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages are produced in the . a. spleen b. cerebellum c. lymph nodes d. bone marrow ANS: D Feedback A Immune system cells (T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages) are produced in the bone marrow, not the spleen. B Immune system cells (T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages) are produced in the bone marrow, not the cerebellum. C Immune system cells (T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages) are produced in the bone marrow, not the lymph nodes. D Correct. Bone marrow is the site of formation for T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages. 13. Which represent the first change in shape of the embryo’s body from a flat sheet of cells? a. Formation of the embryonic disk. b. Formation of neural folds. c. Formation of cartilage. d. Migration of myoblasts from the myotome. ANS: B Feedback A The embryonic disk forms from a small inner cell mass within the blastocyst. This occurs prior to the formation of the three primordial layers, long before the embryo acquires a three-dimensional shape. B Correct. The neural folds can be seen during the third prenatal week. The lateral edges of the neural plate begin to elevate as folds arise dorsally. C Cartilage first appears in the fifth week. D Muscle cells have begun migrating from the myotome by the 10th prenatal week. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 10-11 OBJ: 3 14. Myotome produces which of the following types of tissue? a. Connective b. Muscle c. Nerve d. Epithelial ANS: B Feedback A Connective tissue develops from somites as fibroblasts migrating from either side of the neural tube. B Correct. Myoblasts have begun migrating from the myotome by the 10th prenatal week. They gradually differentiate into elongated, multinucleatedmuscle fibers. C Nerve is derived from both the cranial and trunk neural crest. When the anterior neural tube closes, it shows three dilations that form the primary brain vesicles. D Skin has an epidermis, a surface cell layer that develops from the surface of ectodermal cells, and a dermis, which arises from the underlying mesoderm. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 15 OBJ: 3 15. Which type of bone formation occurs through a tight matrix of collagen fibers, which slowly calcify into bone? a. Endochondral b. Intramembranous c. Epiphyseal d. Interstitial growth ANS: B Feedback A Bone replaces cartilage during endochondral bone development. A small bloodvessel enters the cartilage shaft, the cartilage calcifies and disintegrates in the center, and a marrow space is formed. 4. Spindles present during mitosis are attached to centromeres. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 4OBJ: 1 5. DNA replication takes place during the G1 phase of the cell cycle. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 4OBJ: 1 6. Fertilization takes place in the distal part of the uterine tube. ANS: T DIF: Recall REF: p. 7 OBJ: 3 7. Endoderm and ectoderm are the first two germ layers to develop. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 6 | p. 9OBJ: 3 8. Melanocytes are responsible for skin pigment. ANS: T DIF: Recall REF: p. 10 OBJ: 1 9. The embryonic skeleton first forms as bone. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 12OBJ: 3 10. The umbilical system carries oxygenated blood. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 15OBJ: 4 11. The foramen ovale closes during the third week of prenatal life. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 15OBJ: 4 12. Before the development of the vascular system, the vitelline system provides nutrients to the embryo. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 15OBJ: 4 13. Smooth muscle is consciously controlled. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 15OBJ: 4 14. The cardiovascular system originates from chondroblasts. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 15OBJ: 4 15. Tissues are most susceptible to teratogens during the proliferative period. ANS: F DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 OBJ: 4 16. The foramen ovale is an opening between the right and left atria of the heart. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 15OBJ: 4 Chapter 02: Structure and Function of Cells, Tissues, and Organs Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Simple squamous epithelium functions as a lining in which location? a. Mouth b. Vagina c. Kidney d. Pharynx ANS: C Feedback A The mouth is lined with stratified squamous epithelium. B The vagina is lined with stratified squamous epithelium. C Correct. The kidney is lined with simple squamous epithelium. D The pharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium. DIF: Recall REF: p. 20 OBJ: 1 2. Which cell supports the nervous system? a. Myoblast b. Neuroglia c. Leukocyte d. Melanocyte ANS: B TEST BANK Feedback A Neuroglial cells, not myoblasts, support the nervous system. B Correct. Liver tissue is produced by endodermal cells. C Neuroglial cells, not leukocytes, support the nervous system. D Neuroglial cells, not melanocytes, support the nervous system. DIF: Recall REF: p. 19 OBJ: 1 3. Connective tissue proper is classified as . c. Cuboidal d. Columnar ANS: A Feedback N R I G B.C M A Correct. The term simple UdescSribeNs aTsingle lOayer of cells. B The term stratified describes several layers of cells. C The term cuboidal describes a cube-shaped cell. D The term columnar describes a column-shaped cell. DIF: Recall REF: p. 18 OBJ: 2 9. Which epithelium consists of several layers, with only the basal cell layer in contact with the basal lamina? a. Simple b. Stratified c. Squamous d. Pseudostratified ANS: B Feedback A Simple epithelium has only one layer of cells. B Correct. Stratified epithelium consists of several layers, but only the basal cell layer is in contact with the basal lamina. C Squamous epithelial cells are characterized as flat, scale-shaped cells. D Pseudostratified epithelial cells contact the basal lamina, but not the surface. DIF: Recall REF: pp. 18-19 OBJ: 1 10. All body sensations are relayed to the and the. a. brain; spinal cord b. afferent; efferent systems c. voluntary; involuntary muscles d. sympathetic; parasympathetic divisions ANS: A Feedback A Correct. Sensations received anywhere in the body are relayed to the brain and the spinal cord. B The brain and spinal cord relay all sensations transmitted within the body. C The brain and spinal cord relay all sensations transmitted within the body. D The brain and spinal cord relay all sensations transmitted within the body. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 29 OBJ: 2 11. Impulses conducted from the periphery of the body (e.g., muscles, glands) to the central nervous system (CNS) are conducted through which system? a. Motor b. Somatic c. Afferent d. Autonomic ANS: C TEST BANK DIF: Recall REF: p. 29 OBJ: 2 12. Impulses pass from the CNS to involuntary muscles via the system. a. sensory b. afferent c. somatic d. autonomic the CNS. B Afferent (sensory) nerve processes carry impulses from the peripheral muscles to the CNS. C Somatic pathways relay neural impulses to voluntary muscles. D Correct. Autonomic pathways relay neural impulses to involuntary muscles. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 29 OBJ: 3 13. Which body system relies on neural stimuli to function? a. Vascular b. Digestive c. Endocrine d. Respiratory ANS: C Feedback A The endocrine, not vascular, system depends on neural stimuli to function. B The endocrine, not digestive, system depends on neural stimuli to function. C Correct. The endocrine system depends heavily on neural stimuli to function. D The endocrine, not respiratory, system depends on neural stimuli to function. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 29 OBJ: 2 14. The absorption of nutrients occurs in which location? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine ANS: D Feedback A Nutrient absorption takes place in the large intestine, not the mouth. B Nutrient absorption takes place in the large intestine, not the stomach. C Nutrient absorption takes place in the large intestine, not the small intestine. D Correct. Nutrient absorption takes place in the large intestine. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 29 OBJ: 2 15. Internal organs (viscera) receive most of their neural impulses from which nervous system? a. Somatic b. Sensory c. Afferent d. Autonomic Feedback A Ligaments and tendons are made of dense connective, not neural, tissue. B Ligaments and tendons are made of dense connective, not muscle, tissue. C Ligaments and tendons are made of dense connective, not epithelial, tissue. D Correct. Ligaments and tendons are made of dense connective tissue. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 20 OBJ: 2 21. Which of the following is not a type of cartilage? a. Dense b. Elastic c. Fibrous d. Hyaline ANS: A Feedback A Correct. There are three types of cartilage—hyaline, elastic, and fibrous. B Elastic cartilage can be found in the epiglottis. C Fibrous cartilage can be found in the vertebral disks. D Hyaline cartilage can be found in the nose. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 20 OBJ: 2 22. Which organ is part of the lymphatic system? a. Thyroid b. Thymus c. Pancreas d. Parathyroid ANS: B Feedback A The thyroid is part of the endocrine, not lymphatic, system. B Correct. The lymphoid organs include the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes. C The pancreas is part of the endocrine, not lymphatic, system. D The parathyroid is part of the endocrine, not lymphatic, system. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 31 OBJ: 2 23. Which of the following is not a major function of the urinary system? a. Controls blood volume b. Controls blood pressure TEST BANK c. Controls testosterone levels d. Controls urine composition ANS: C Feedback A Blood volume control is a major function of the urinary system. B Blood pressure control is a major function of the urinary system. C Correct. Testosterone levels are controlled by the reproductive system, not the urinary system. D Urine composition is a major function of the urinary system. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 33 OBJ: 3 24. Which function is associated with the skin? a. Excretes waste products b. Absorbs nutrients from ingested food c. Supplies a framework for muscle and ligament attachments d. Relays information from the glands to the central nervous system ANS: A Feedback A Correct. A major function of the skin is excretion of waste products (e.g., carbon dioxide, water, salts, urea). B Absorption of nutrients is a function of the digestive system. C The skeletal system supplies the framework for muscle and ligament attachments. D The nervous system relays information from the glands to the central nervous system. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 28 OBJ: 3 25. Which organ system is the largest? a. Digestive b. Endocrine c. Respiratory d. Integumentary ANS: D Feedback A The integumentary (skin) system is larger than the digestive system. B The integumentary (skin) system is larger than the endocrine system. C The integumentary (skin) system is larger than the respiratory system. D Correct. The integumentary (skin) system is the largest organ system in the human body. DIF: Recall REF: p. 28 OBJ: 3 TEST BANK 26. Each of the following is a function of the large intestine EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Absorption of nutrition b. Dehydration of food c. Reduce food to liquid chyme d. Compress food into solid waste ANS: C Feedback A The large intestine functions in the absorption of nutrition. B Dehydration of food occurs in the large intestine. C Correct. Food is reduced to liquid chyme in the stomach. D Food is compressed into solid waste in the large intestine. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 29 OBJ: 2 27. Which type of tissue lines the respiratory tract to move foreign particles out of the respiratory system? a. Dendrites b. Neuroglia c. Cilia d. Sebaceous glands ANS: C Feedback A The spinous layer is called stratum spinosum. It is seen as the basal cells dry out and migrates peripherally. B Correct. The basal layer is the deepest, germinating layer. C The granular layer contains cells with keratohyalin granules. D The clear layer is called stratum lucidum. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 26 OBJ: 2 32. Which organ system secretes and regulates hormones in the blood? a. Exocrine b. Endocrine c. Lymphatic system d. Neural system ANS: B Feedback A The exocrine system consists of sweat glands. B Correct. A basic function of endocrine glands is to secrete hormones into the vascular circulation. Hormones help regulate metabolism energy balance and aid in regulation of involuntary smooth and cardiac muscle fibers. C The lymphoid organs are part of the immune system. A characteristic of the immune system is the ability to recognize and react specifically to macromolecules that are foreign to the body. D The neural system transmits nerve impulses throughout the body. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 31 OBJ: 3 TRUE/FALSE 1. Blood provides protection from bacteria. ANS: T DIF: Recall REF: p. 20 OBJ: 2 2. Bone is calcified connective tissue. ANS: T DIF: Recall REF: p. 20 OBJ: 2 3. Osteoporosis affects men at an earlier age than women. ANS: F DIF: CoNmUpRreSheInsNioGnTB.COM OBJ: 2 REF: p. 24 4. Equilibrium is controlled by tiny organs, which are located in the middle ear. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 34 OBJ: 3 Chapter 03: Development of the Oral Facial Region Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which defines the term synchondrosis? a. The rod-shaped cartilage of the hyoid arch. b. The center of all growth and function in the mandible. c. A band of connective tissue containing osteogenic cells. d. A union of two bones that have been separated by cartilage. ANS: D Feedback A Reichert’s cartilage is the rod-shaped cartilage of the hyoid or second arch. B The body of the mandible is the mandibular center for growth and function. C Syndesmosis is a band of connective tissue containing osteogenic cells. D Correct. Synchondrosis is an articulation in which new cartilage is formed in the center of the suture, whereas peripheral cartilage is transformed into bone. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 45 OBJ: 2 2. Which type of bone protects the brain? a. Short b. Dermal c. Sesamoid d. Membrane ANS: D TEST BANK Feedback A Membrane (or flat) bones form a protective covering for the brain; short bones do not. B Membrane (or flat) bones form a protective covering for the brain; dermal bones do not. Feedback A The thymus gland arises from the third, not the first, branchial arch. B The thymus gland arises from the third, not the second, branchial arch. C Correct. The thymus gland arises from the third branchial arch. D The thymus gland arises from the third, not the fourth, branchial arch. DIF: Recall REF: p.N47 R I GOBBJ:.C1 M U S N T O 8. Which branchial arches form the hyoid bone? a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. IV and V ANS: B Feedback A The first and second branchial arches form the hyoid bone. B Correct. The second and third branchial arches form the hyoid bone. C The third and fourth branchial arches form the hyoid bone. D The fourth and fifth branchial arches form the hyoid bone. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 47 OBJ: 2 9. The primitive mouth is known as the . a. basion b. sella turcica c. stomodeum d. tympanic membrane ANS: C Feedback A The basion is part of the musculoskeletal system, located on the skull. B The sella turcica is a saddle-shaped depression in the sphenoid bone. C Correct. The stomodeum is the primitive mouth. D The tympanic membrane separates the external ear from the middle ear. DIF: Recall REF: p. 37 OBJ: 1 10. After the fifth prenatal week, the first and fifth branchial arches grow toward each other and over other arches. This overgrowth obscures the external pharyngeal grooves. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second is false. d. The first statement is false; the second is true. ANS: D Feedback A The first statement is false. The second and fifth branchial arches are responsible for the overgrowth and disappearance of the external pharyngeal grooves. B The second statement is true. C The first statement is false; the second is true. D Correct. The first statement is false; the second is true. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 38 OBJ: 2 TEST BANK 11. Which bones support the palatine shelf? a. Maxillary b. Temporal c. Zygomatic d. Mandibular ANS: A Feedback A Correct. The maxillary bones grow medially to support the palatine shelf. B The maxillary, not temporal, bones grow medially to support the palatine shelf. C The maxillary, not zygomatic, bones grow medially to support the palatine shelf. D The maxillary, not mandibular, bones grow medially to support the palatine shelf. DIF: Recall REF: p. 42 OBJ: 2 12. The stomodeum first appears in the week of prenatal development. a. second b. fourth c. sixth d. eighth ANS: B Feedback A The fourth week of prenatal development is marked by the development of the primitive mouth (stomodeum). B Correct. The stomodeum forms in the fourth week of prenatal development. C The fourth week of prenatal development is marked by the development of the primitive mouth (stomodeum). D The fourth week of prenatal development is marked by the development of the primitive mouth (stomodeum). DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 36 OBJ: 1 13. Meckel’s cartilage provides structure for the developing . a. maxilla b. mandible c. temporal bone d. zygomatic bone ANS: B Feedback A Meckel’s cartilage provides a framework for the developing mandible. B Correct. Meckel’s cartilage provides a framework for the developing mandible. C Meckel’s cartilage provides a framework for the developing mandible. D Meckel’s cartilage provides a framework for the developing mandible. TEST BANK DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 42-44 OBJ: 2 14. Blood vessels in the third pharyngeal arch form the . a. dorsal aorta b. common carotid arteries c. pulmonary blood vessels d. dorsal aorta, common carotid arteries, and pulmonary blood vessels ANS: B Feedback A The dorsal aorta arises from the fourth, not the third, pharyngeal arch. B Correct. The common carotid arteries arise from the third pharyngeal arch. B The tragus of the ear is not a landmark used to determine the cranial base. C The petrous portion of the temporal bone is not a landmark used to determine the cranial base. D Correct. The cranial base is identified by drawing a line from the nasal bone to sella turcica. Sella turcica is a transverse depression in the midline of the sphenoid bone, containiNngUtRheShIyNpoGpThyBsi.s CglOanMd (pituitary gland). A line from sella turcica to nasion to basion is used to determine facial growth. DIF: Recall REF: p. 41 OBJ: 2 19. The heart begins beating at the end of which week? a. Second b. Fourth c. Sixth d. Eighth ANS: B Feedback A The heart has not yet started beating by the end of the second week. B The heart begins beating at the end of the fourth week. C The heart has already started beating prior to the end of the sixth week. D The heart has already started beating prior to the end of the eighth week. DIF: Recall REF: p. 36 OBJ: 1 20. Each of the following sutures is a facial suture EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Frontomaxillary b. Sagittal c. Zygomaticomaxillary d. Zygomaticotemporal ANS: B Feedback A The frontomaxillary suture is a facial suture between the frontal and maxillary bones. B Correct. The sagittal suture is between the parietal bones. It is not a facial suture. C The zygomaticomaxillary suture is a facial suture between the zygomatic and maxillary bones. D The zygomaticotemporal suture is a facial suture between the zygomatic and temporal bones. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 45-46 OBJ: 2 21. Which type of facial suture has a beveled or overlapping junction? a. Simple b. Serrated c. Synchondrosis d. Squamosal ANS: D Feedback A A simple suture is an uncomplicated band of tissue between bony fronts. B A serrated suture is an iNnterRdigiItatinGg tyBp.e Cof sMuture. C A synchondrosis is not a sUutuSre oNf theTface. IOt has an interposing band of cartilage and is located in the midline. D Correct. A squamosal suture has a beveled or overlapping type junction. DIF: Recall REF: p. 44 OBJ: 2 22. A pharyngeal fistula opens to drain on the: a. cheek. b. buccal mucosa. c. side of the neck and the pharynx. d. chest. ANS: C Feedback A Pharyngeal fistulas do not open to drain on the cheek. B Pharyngeal fistulas do not open to drain on the buccal mucosa. C Correct. Pharyngeal cysts and fistulas contain pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells that produce mucous and may appear along the sides of the neck because the epithelial-lined pockets remain as a result of the overgrowth of the arches. These defects may also open in the pharynx. D Pharyngeal fistulas do not open to drain on the chest. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 44 OBJ: 1 23. Which gland regulates the body’s calcium balance? a. Thyroid b. Parathyroid c. Pancreas d. Adrenal ANS: B Feedback A The thyroid gland produces hormones important in growth, development, and metabolism. B Correct. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium balance throughout life. The third pharyngeal pouch becomes the inferior parathyroids and thymus, and the fourth becomes the superior parathyroids. C The pancreas produces insulin to regulate glucose levels in the blood. D The adrenal glands work in conjunction with the hypothalamus and pituitary gland to manufacture adrenaline, noradrenaline, and glucocorticoids. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 38 OBJ: 1 TRUE/FALSE 1. Sutures are fibrous joints. ANS: T DIF: CoNmpRreheInsioGn B.C M OBJ: 2 2. Facial muscles develop from the second pharyngeal arch. REF: pp. 44-46 ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 36 OBJ: 2 3. The nasal capsule contains the organ of smell. ANS: T DIF: Recall REF: p. 41 OBJ: 1 DIF: Recall REF: p. 50 OBJ: 1 3. A combination of genetic and factors are associated with palatal and facial clefts. a. social b. behavioral c. age-related d. environmental ANS: D Feedback A Social factors are not associated with palatal and facial clefts; genetic and environmental factors are associated with palatal and facial clefts. B Behavioral factors are not associated with palatal and facial clefts; genetic and environmental factors are associated with palatal and facial clefts. C Age-related factors are not associated with palatal and facial clefts; genetic and environmental factors are associated with palatal and facial clefts. D Correct. Genetic and environmental factors play a key role in the development of palatal and facial clefts. DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 4 4. Each cranial nerve innervates the tongue, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a.V b.VII c.VIII d.X ANS: C Feedback A The trigeminal (V) nerve innervates the tongue in conjunction with cranial nerves VII, IX, X, and XII. B The facial (VII) nerve innervates the tongue in conjunction with cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII. C Correct. The vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve transmits sound and equilibrium information from the innNeUr eRaSr tIoNthGeTbrBai.nC. IOt dMoes not innervate the tongue. D The vagus (X) nerve innervates the tongue in conjunction with cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and XII. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 54 OBJ: 3 5. Which best defines the term nasal fin? a. Oblique groove extending from the nostrils to the eyes b. Medial nasal process that composes part of the upper lip c. Zone of fusion that binds the maxillary and medial processes d. Wedge-shaped process that assists in the formation of the palate ANS: C Feedback A The oronasal optic groove is an oblique impression extending from the nostrils to the eyes. B The medial nasal process is called the philtrum. C Correct. The nasal fin is a zone of fusion that binds the maxillary and medial processes of the lip. D The primary palate is a wedge-shaped medial process, essential in the formation of the palate. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 50 OBJ: 1 6. The thyroid gland descends to the front of the trachea, attached to the tongue by the thyroglossal . a. duct b. cyst c. fistula d. swelling ANS: A Feedback A Correct. The thyroglossal duct connects the thyroid gland to the tongue during its migration to the front of the trachea. B The thyroglossal duct, not cyst, connects the thyroid gland to the tongue during its migration to the front of the trachea. C The thyroglossal duct, not fistula, connects the thyroid gland to the tongue during its migration to the front of the trachea. D The thyroglossal duct, not swelling, connects the thyroid gland to the tongue during its migration to the front of the trachea. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 55 OBJ: 2 7. Which best defines the term fusion? a. A separation of tissues b. The enzymatic action that results in self-destruction c. A merging of adjacent tissues during orofacial development d. The period of growth in wNhUicRhSthIeNfaGceTbBe.coCmOeMs recognizably human ANS: C Feedback A Fusion is best defined as a merging, rather than separation, of adjacent tissues. B Fusion is best defined as a merging of adjacent tissues. C Correct. Fusion is best defined as the merging of adjacent tissues. D Fusion is best defined as a merging of adjacent tissues. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 52 OBJ: 2 8. A swelling that opens on the surface of the neck is called a thyroglossal . a. cyst b. duct c. gland d. fistula ANS: D Feedback A A thyroglossal fistula, not cyst, opens on the surface of the neck. B A thyroglossal fistula, not duct, opens on the surface of the neck. C A thyroglossal fistula, not gland, opens on the surface of the neck. D Correct. A thyroglossal fistula opens on the surface of the neck. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 55 OBJ: 3 9. A cleft may occur in the . a. lip b. palate c. mandible d. lip, palate, and mandible ANS: D 14. In the fifth week, the frontal process becomes known as the: a. frontonasal process. b. philtrum. c. medial nasal process. d. lateral nasal process. ANS: A Feedback A Correct. The frontal area becomes known as the frontonasal process during the fifth week. The bilateral nasal placodes, or thickened areas of epithelium, appear on the upper border of the lip. They develop into nostrils as the tissues around these placodes grow, resulting in two slits opening into the oral pit. B During the fifth week, the nasal processes are limited to the middle of the upper lip, which causes the face to appear more human. The medial nasal process is called the philtrum. C During the fifth week, a ridge of tissue surrounds each nasal pit. The tissue medial to the pits is the medial nasal process. D During the fifth week, a ridge of tissue surrounds each nasal pit. The tissue lateral to the pits is the lateral nasal process. DIF: Recall REF: p. 50 OBJ: 1 15. The oral and nasal cavities are separated by the a. alveolar bone. b. anterior nasal spine. c. palate. d. nasal septum. ANS: C Feedback A Alveolar bone is the compact or dense bone that lines the tooth socket. B The anterior spine is located on the exterior surface of the skull at the base of the nose. TEST BANK C Correct. The palate is the tissue that separates the oral and nasal cavities and can be divided into a hard palate, which has a bony base, and the soft palate, which has a muscular base. D The nasal septum separates the airways in the nose. DIF: Recall REF: p. 52 OBJ: 2 16. The thyroid gland originates from a. foramen cecum. b. muscles of the occipital myotomes. c. the auricular hillocks. d. the palatine shelves. ANS: A Feedback A The thyroid gland develops as an epithelial proliferation from the foramen cecum on the surface of the tongue at the junction of the body and base. B The tongue originates from the muscles of the occipital myotomes. C The external ear arises from the auricular hillocks. D The palatine shelves form the palate, which separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity back to the nasopharynx. DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 3 17. Each of the following is part of Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Lingual tonsil b. Palatine tonsil c. Pharyngeal tonsil d. Foramen cecum ANS: D Feedback A The lingual tonsil forms part of the ring of tonsils in the pharynx known as Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring. B The palatine tonsil forms part of the ring of tonsils in the pharynx known as Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring. C The pharyngeal tonsil forms part of the ring of tonsils in the pharynx known as Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring. D Correct. Foramen cecum is not part of Waldeyer’s ring of tonsillar tissue. Foramen cecum is located on the surface of the tongue at the junction of the body and base. The thyroid gland develops as an epithelial proliferation from the foramen cecum. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 54 OBJ: 3 18. The word for programmed cell death during palatal shelf elevation and closure is a. fusion. b. merging. c. apoptosis. d. migration. ANS: C TEST BANK Feedback A Palatine shelf closure or fusion occurs when the palatine shelves have a final growth surge until they contact in the midline. B Merging occurs when the palatine shelves meet anteriorly and posteriorly from the initial point of contact. C Correct. Apoptosis. It occurs, for example, during lip fusion (with the destruction of the nasal fin) and in palatine shelf fusion (with the destruction of the midline epithelial barrier between left and right palatine shelves). D Migration occurs when the thyroid gland descends from its origin at foramen cecum on the surface of the tongue to the front of the trachea. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 52 OBJ: 2 19. In which direction do the palatine shelves grow on contact with the tongue in the seventh prenatal week? a. Upward b. Downward c. Anteriorly d. Posteriorly ANS: B Feedback A The palatine shelves do not grow upward when they contact the tongue. B Correct. When the palatine shelves contact the tongue, they grow downward along either side of the tongue. C The palatine shelves do not grow anteriorly when they contact the tongue. D The palatine shelves do not grow posteriorly when they contact the tongue. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 52 OBJ: 2 3. Odontoblasts are derived from which type of cell? a. Follicular b. Neural crest c. Ectodermal d. Oral epithelial ANS: B Feedback A Odontoblasts are derived from neural crest cells, not follicular cells. B Correct. Odontoblasts are derived from neural crest cells. C Odontoblasts are derived from neural crest cells, not ectodermal cells. D Odontoblasts are derived from neural crest cells, not oral epithelial cells. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 60-61 OBJ: 1 4. During root development, the epithelial diaphragm . a. fuses to the stratum intermedium b. surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp c. forms the cortical plate, which covers the mandible d. deposits an enamel matrix along the dentoenamel junction ANS: B Feedback A The epithelial diaphragm surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp during root development. B Correct. The epithelial diaphragm surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp during root development. C The epithelial diaphragm surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp during root development. D The epithelial diaphragm surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp during root development. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 68-69 OBJ: 2 5. operates as a blueprint or pattern to guide root formation. a. Predentin b. The primary cuticle TEST BANK c. Reduced enamel epithelium d. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath ANS: D Feedback A Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath, not predentin, determines the size, shape, and number of roots during formation. B Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath, not the primary cuticle, determines the size, shape, and number of roots during formation. C Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath, not reduced enamel epithelium, determines the size, shape, and number of roots during formation. D Correct. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath, not predentin, determines the size, shape, and number of roots during formation. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 68-69 OBJ: 2 6. Which of the following best defines the term reduced enamel epithelium? a. Noncalcified cementum b. Material deposited by odontoblasts in response to trauma c. Fused layer of ameloblasts, enamel epithelium, and stratum intermedium d. Layer of outer root sheath cells that disperse into small clusters around the root ANS: C Feedback A Noncalcified cementum is called cementoid. B Tertiary dentin is deposited by odontoblasts in response to trauma. C Correct. The reduced enamel epithelium is a fused layer of ameloblasts, epithelium, and stratum intermedium, which covers the enamel until eruption. D Epithelial rests are formed when the outer root sheath disperses into small clusters around the root. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 67 OBJ: 2 7. Which cells of the enamel organ assist ameloblasts in forming enamel? a. Stellate reticulum b. Stratum intermedium c. Inner enamel epithelial d. Outer enamel epithelial ANS: B Feedback A The stratum intermedium cells support ameloblasts in forming enamel. B Correct. The stratum intermedium cells support ameloblasts in forming enamel. C The stratum intermedium cells support ameloblasts in forming enamel. D The stratum intermedium cells support ameloblasts in forming enamel. DIF: Comprehension NURSINGRTEBF:.CppO. 6M0-61 OBJ: 1 8. Predentin calcifies to form dentin within hours. a. 12 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72 ANS: B Feedback A Predentin calcifies to form dentin 24 (not 12) hours after deposition, predentin calcifies to form dentin. B Correct. Predentin calcifies to form dentin 24 hours after deposition. C Predentin calcifies to form dentin 24 (not 48) hours after deposition. D Predentin calcifies to form dentin 24 (not 72) hours after deposition. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 63 OBJ: 2 9. Which two cellular layers fuse to form the root sheath? a. Ameloblast and odontoblast cells b. Cementoid and epithelial rest cells c. Inner and outer enamel epithelial cells d. Stratum intermedium and stellate reticulum cells C Accessory root canals connect the pulp tissue to the periodontal ligament as opposed to connecting dentin to alveolar bone proper. D Accessory root canals connect the pulp tissue to the periodontal ligament as opposed to connecting enamel to junctional epithelium. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 73 OBJ: 3 14. Which sequence reflects the correct order of appearance? a. Predentin, ameloblasts, enamel, odontoblasts b. Ameloblasts, enamel, odontoblasts, predentin c. Ameloblasts, odontoblasts, predentin, enamel d. Odontoblasts, enamel, ameloblasts, predentin ANS: C Feedback A Ameloblasts appear first, followed by odontoblasts, predentin, and enamel. B Ameloblasts appear first, followed by odontoblasts, predentin, and enamel. C Correct. Ameloblasts appear first, followed by odontoblasts, predentin, and enamel. D Ameloblasts appear first, followed by odontoblasts, predentin, and then enamel. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 60-62 OBJ: 2 15. After the enamel organ differentiates, the dental lamina begins to . a. divide b. reform c. expand d. degenerate ANS: D Feedback A The dental lamina degenerates, not divide, after the enamel organ differentiates. B The dental lamina degenerates, not reform, after the enamel organ differentiates. C The dental lamina degenerates, not expand, after the enamel organ differentiates. D Correct. The dental lamina degenerates after the enamel organ differentiates. DIF: Comprehension N R I GREBF:.Cpp. 6M0-62 OBJ: 2 U S N T O 16. Which of the following best defines the primary cuticle? a. Mineralized, mature enamel. b. A cell junction complex, which attaches one ameloblast to another. c. An organic substance secreted on the surface of enamel by ameloblasts. d. An unmineralized protein secreted by ameloblasts in a young enamel matrix. ANS: C Feedback A A mature, mineralized enamel matrix is called enamelin. B A complex that attaches one ameloblast to another is a desmosome. C Correct. The primary cuticle is an organic layer secreted on the surface of the enamel by ameloblasts. D Amelogenin is an unmineralized protein in a young enamel matrix. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 67 OBJ: 2 17. Enamel forms from which type of cells? a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. Dental papilla ANS: A Feedback A Correct. The first sign of tooth formation is the proliferation of ectodermal cells overlying specific areas of the oral ectoderm where the homeobox MSX-1 can be localized. B Mesoderm forms muscle and bone, not enamel. C Endoderm forms gastrointestinal tract epithelium and associated glands, not enamel. D Ectomesemchyme forms the dental papilla, which becomes the dental pulp when surrounded by mineralized tissue. DIF: Recall REF: p. 59 OBJ: 1 18. Which is a genetic disorder that makes teeth susceptible to excessive wear? a. Cleft lip b. Cleft palate c. Dentinogenesis imperfecta d. Thyroglossal duct cyst ANS: C Feedback A Cleft lip is the most common facial malformation, however, it is not associated with excessive wear of teeth. B Cleft palate is less common than cleft lip or a combination of cleft lip and palate, but it is not associated wNitUhRexScIesNsiGveTtBoo.thCwOeMar. C Correct. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder of tooth development, which often makes the teeth susceptible to excessive wear. Improper mineralization of the dentin extracellular matrix causes the dentin to be compressible and results in the enamel chipping off. The dentinoenamel junction is much less scalloped and contributes to the enamel chipping also. D Thyroglossal duct cyst is found along the route of descent of the thyroid tissue. It appears as a swelling and is commonly found in the area of the hyoid bone. DIF: Recall REF: p. 73 OBJ: 2 19. Which type of bone forms between the roots of multirooted teeth? a. Alveolar bone proper b. Lamina dura c. Haverisan bone d. Interradicular ANS: D Feedback A Alveolar bone proper is a thin lamina of bone that lines the tooth sockets, supports the roots of teeth, and gives attachment to principal fibers of the periodontal ligament. B Lamina dura is a thin layer of hard compact bone lining the tooth sockets. It is used in dental imaging to designate a thin radiopaque line. C Haversian bone is compact bone containing tubular channels with blood vessels, nerves, and bone cells surrounded by concentrically located lacunae. D Correct. Interradicular bone forms between the roots of multirooted teeth. DIF: Recall REF: p. 71 OBJ: 3 ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 591 OBJ: 1 11. A patient with oligodontia is congenitally missing more than six permanent teeth. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 59 OBJ: 1 Chapter 06: Eruption and Shedding of Teeth Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best defines ankylosis? a. A fusion of tooth roots to the bony socket b. A process that leads to tooth eruption c. The removal of bone overlying the bony crypt d. The eruption of a tooth into a space occupied by an opposing tooth ANS: A Feedback A Correct. Ankylosis is the fusion of tooth roots to the bony socket. B Ankylosis is root fusion, which is associated with a lack of eruption. C Ankylosis is root fusion, which is associated with a lack of eruption. D Ankylosis is root fusion, which is associated with a lack of eruption. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 84 OBJ: 1 2. Which of the following occurs when root formation begins? a. The epithelial root sheath proliferates. b. The tooth’s crown tip enters the oral cavity. c. Fibrous tissue surrounding the follicle increases. d. Reduced enamel epitheliuNmUcRoSntIacNtsGaTndBf.uCseOs wMith the oral epithelium. ANS: A Feedback A Correct. The proliferation of the epithelial root sheath is the first step in root formation. B The proliferation of the epithelial root sheath initiates root formation. C The proliferation of the epithelial root sheath initiates root formation. D The proliferation of the epithelial root sheath initiates root formation. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 76-77 OBJ: 2 3. The mesiodistal size difference between a primary molar and a permanent premolar is called the . a. leeway space b. furcation zone c. parietal plexus d. incisor liability ANS: A Feedback A Correct. The leeway space is the mesiodistal size difference between a primary molar and a permanent premolar. B The leeway space, not furcation zone, is the mesiodistal size difference between a primary molar and a permanent premolar. C The leeway space, not parietal plexus, is the mesiodistal size difference between a primary molar and a permanent premolar. D The leeway space, not incisor liability, is the mesiodistal size difference between a primary molar and a permanent premolar. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 85-86 OBJ: 2 4. Which permanent tooth develops without a primary predecessor? a. Molar b. Incisor c. Canine d. Premolar ANS: A Feedback A Correct. The permanent molar has no primary predecessor. B The primary incisor precedes the permanent incisor. C The primary canine precedes the permanent canine. D The primary molar precedes the permanent premolar. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 76 OBJ: 1 5. The mixed dentition phase ocNcUurRs SfroImNaGpTprBo.xiCmOatMely years of age. a. birth to 2 b. 3 to 6 c. 8 to 12 d. 13 to 18 d. Fibroblast eruptive and osteoclast functional phases ANS: C Feedback A Hard tissue resorption is not comprised of the mineral and collagen phases. B The prefunctional and functional phases comprise the phases of tooth eruption. C Correct. Hard tissue resorption occurs during the extracellular and intracellular phases. D There is no such thing as the fibroblast eruptive phase. DIF: Comprehension N R I G B.C M REF: pp. 78-80 OBJ: 1 11. Which of the following is the origin of osteoclasts? a. Fibroblasts b. Monocytes c. Amino acids d. Root resorption ANS: B Feedback A Osteoclasts arise from monocytes, not fibroblasts, of the circular bloodstream. B Correct. Osteoclasts arise from monocytes of the circular bloodstream. C Osteoclasts arise from monocytes, not amino acids, of the circular bloodstream. D Root resorption results from the action of osteoclasts that arise from monocytes. DIF: Recall REF: pp. 78-80 OBJ: 2 12. Which of the following is clinically seen as tooth eruption? a. Light and dark bands b. Interlocking of the rods c. Blanching of the mucosa d. Crystallization of the enamel rods ANS: C Feedback A Tooth eruption is seen as blanching of the mucosa. B Tooth eruption is seen as blanching of the mucosa. C Correct. Tooth eruption is seen as blanching of the mucosa. D Tooth eruption is seen as blanching, not crystallization of the enamel rods, of the mucosa. DIF: Recall REF: pp. 78-80 OBJ: 3 13. Specialcells destroy collagen fibers by ingestion. a. fibroblast b. osteoclast c. osteoblast d. amino acid ANS: A Feedback A Correct. Special fibroblast cells ingest collagen fibers. B Osteoclast cells remodel the alveolar bone. C Osteoblast and osteoclast cells remodel the alveolar bone. D Amino acid results from the breakdown of these fibers. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 78-80 OBJ: 2 N R I G B.C M 14. Tooth eruption requires formation of the eruption a. ruffled border. b. diphyodont. c. pathway. d. leeway space. ANS: C Feedback A The osteoclast’s cell membrane is in contact with the bone and becomes modified by an enfolding process termed the ruffled border. B Humans are considered diphyodonts because they possess two dentitions, primary and permanent. C Correct. The dental follicle changes and forms a pathway for the erupting teeth. A zone of degenerating connective tissue fibers and cells immediately overlying the teeth appears first. The altered tissue area overlying the teeth becomes visible as an inverted triangular area known as the eruption pathway. D The difference in the mesial distal dimension between the primary molars and the permanent premolars is called the leeway space. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 78-80 OBJ: 1 15. Final maturation of the periodontal ligament (PDL) fibers occurs a. at the cap stage of tooth formation. b. when the teeth first erupt through the gingiva. c. when the teeth reach functional occlusion. d. when the root is half formed. ANS: C Feedback A Final maturation of PDL fibers does not occur when the tooth is at the cap stage of tooth formation. B Final maturation of PDL fibers does not occur when the tooth first erupts through the gingiva. C Correct. The PDL fibers gain their mature orientation after the teeth attain functional occlusion. D Teeth begin to move occlusally when the root is about half formed. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 81 OBJ: 1 16. Fusion of the tooth (reduced enamel epithelium) with the oral epithelium forms which type of connection? a. Periodontal ligament b. Junctional epithelium c. Trabeculae d. Fundic ANS: B Feedback A The periodontal ligament connects alveolar bone with cementum on the tooth root surface. B Correct. The reduced enamel epithelium fuses with the oral ectoderm to form the junctional epithelium, which attaches to the developmental cuticle by hemidesmosomes formed 3. The prefunctional eruptive phase is characterized by dormancy in the tissues overlying, surrounding, and underlying the teeth. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 78 OBJ: 1 4. Shedding is the loss of mixed dentition caused by resorption of the roots. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 84 OBJ: 1 5. Eruptive movement of posterior teeth occurs occlusally through the bony crypt of the jaws to reach the mucosa. TEST BANK ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 76 OBJ: 1 6. Active osteoclasts are multinucleated. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 78-80 OBJ: 1 7. Osteoblasts are the active cells in both the formation and degradation of the collagen fibers. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 81 OBJ: 2 8. The eruption process is rapid and continuous. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 78-80 OBJ: 2 9. During eruption, the epithelial attachment shifts to the cervical area. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 78-80 OBJ: 1 10. Enamel is about twice as thick in permanent teeth as it is in primary teeth. ANS: T DIF: Recall REF: p. 87 OBJ: 1 11. Primary and permanent teeth have a similar enamel prism structure, except at the tooth surface. ANS: T DIF: Recall REF: p. 87 OBJ: 1 Chapter 07: Enamel Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Ameloblasts produce as they migrate. a. cementoid b. enamel rods c. epithelial rests d. dentinal tubules ANS: B Feedback A Cementoblasts produce cementoid as they migrate. B Correct. Ameloblasts form enamel rods. C Epithelial rests originate from the root sheath. D Odontoblasts produce dentinal tubules as they migrate. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 89 OBJ: 1 2. Which of the following best defines incremental lines? a. Ridges visible on the surface of enamel b. Termination of dentinal tubules in enamel c. Alternating dark and light bands of enamel rod groups d. Lines that result from theNrhUyRthSmIicNrGecTurBre.nCt dOeMposition of enamel ANS: D Feedback A Incremental lines result from rhythmic deposition. They are not ridges. B Incremental lines result from rhythmic deposition, not tubule termination. C Incremental lines result from rhythmic deposition. They are not bands. D Correct. Incremental lines result from rhythmic deposition. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 OBJ: 1 3. Which of the following best defines perikymata? a. Termination of dentinal tubules in enamel. b. Alternating dark and light bands of enamel rod groups. c. Head d. Sheath ANS: B Feedback A The enamel rod core, noNt UtaRil,SisIrNicGh TinBa.paCtiOteMand sensitive to demineralization. B Correct. The enamel rod core is rich in apatite and sensitive to demineralization. C The enamel rod core, not head, is rich in apatite and sensitive to demineralization. D The enamel rod core, not sheath, is rich in apatite and sensitive to demineralization. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 95 OBJ: 3 9. Which of the following best defines the neonatal line? a. An accentuated incremental line. b. A defect caused by the misdirection of enamel rods. c. Light and dark enamel rod groups, made visible with light. d. A series of dark growth rings noticeable in the cross section of enamel. ANS: A Feedback A Correct. The neonatal line is an accentuated line of Retzius (incremental line). B The neonatal line is an accentuated line of Retzius (incremental line). C The neonatal line is an accentuated line of Retzius (incremental line). D The neonatal line is an accentuated line of Retzius (incremental line). DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 OBJ: 2 10. Which statement is true? a. Tubular defects are associated with enamel lamellae. b. Lamellae provide increased resistance to dental caries. c. Breathing cold air is a risk factor in developing enamel lamellae. d. Enamel lamellae are microscopic cracks in the surface of enamel. ANS: C Feedback A Enamel lamellae are not tubular defects; they extend around the crown. B Lamellae increase susceptibility to dental caries. C Correct. Cold air (extreme temperatures) may cause enamel lamellae. D Enamel lamellae are not microscopic; they are visible to the naked eye. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 OBJ: 1 11. An enamel houses a small extension of a living odontoblast. a. rod b. tuft c. spindle d. lamellae ANS: C Feedback A Enamel spindles house pNaUrtRoSf aIlNivGinTg Bod.oCntOobMlast; enamel rods do not. B Enamel spindles house part of a living odontoblast; enamel tufts do not. C Correct. Enamel spindles house part of a living odontoblast. D Enamel spindles house part of a living odontoblast; enamel lamellae do not. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 92-94 OBJ: 1 12. Which of the following does not facilitate the spread of dental caries? a. Enamel tufts b. Enamel lamellae c. Incremental lines d. Prismless enamel ANS: D Feedback A Enamel tufts, lamellae, and incremental lines facilitate the spread of dental caries. B Enamel tufts, lamellae, and incremental lines facilitate the spread of dental caries. C Enamel tufts, lamellae, and incremental lines facilitate the spread of dental caries. D Correct. The prismless zone of enamel is characterized by its enhanced integrity. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 95 OBJ: 2 13. A developmental defect at the dentinoenamel junction of enamel that is filled with organic material is called (a/an) a. enamel rod. b. enamel tuft. c. enamel lamellae. d. enamel spindle. ANS: B Feedback A Enamel is composed of rods that extend from their site of origin, at the dentinoenamel junction to the enamel outer surface. B Correct. Enamel tufts are located at the dentinoenamel junction and appear at right angles to it. Tufts form between groups of enamel rods, which are oriented in slightly different directions at the dentinoenamel junction. C Enamel lamellae are cracks in the surface of enamel that are visible to the naked eye. Lamellae extend from the surface of enamel toward the dentinoenamel junction. D Enamel spindles arise at the dentinoenamel junction and extend into enamel. These spindles are extensions of dentinal tubules that pass through the junction into enamel. 14. 14. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 OBJ: 1 N R I G B.C M Two ameloblast cells form the enamel rod a. head. b. neck. c. body. d. tail. ANS: B Feedback A One ameloblast forms the enamel rod head. B Correct. A part of two ameloblasts form the neck of the enamel rod. C The body is not a part of an enamel rod. The three parts of an enamel rod are head, neck, and tail. D One ameloblast forms the enamel rod tail. 9. Enamel rods extend perpendicular to the dentoenamel junction, but curve slightly toward the cusp tip. ANS: T DIF: Recall REF: p. 89 OBJ: 1 10. Hunter-Schreger bands extend through half- to two-thirds of the enamel. ANS: T DIF: CoNmUpRreSheInsNioGn TB.COM OBJ: 1 REF: p. 89 11. Incremental lines result from the rhythmic, recurrent deposition of enamel. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 OBJ: 1 12. Enamel lamellae are not tubular defects, but leaf-like tracts. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 OBJ: 1 13. Prismless enamel is characterized by numerous and pronounced Hunter-Schreger bands. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 95-96 OBJ: 3 14. Enamel is an impermeable tissue. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 95 OBJ: 2 15. In the Hunter-Schreger phenomenon, adjacent rod groups lie at right angles to each other. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 89-91 OBJ: 1 16. Etching the surface of enamel stimulates remineralization. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 95 OBJ: 3 Chapter 08: Dentin Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best defines sclerotic dentin? a. The dentinal matrix that immediately surrounds the dentinal tubule. b. The first dentin formed and deposited at the dentinoenamel junction. c. Dentin directly underlying mantle dentin, comprising the bulk of primary dentin. d. Obliterated tubules, found mainly in areas of attrition, abrasion, fracture, and caries. ANS: D Feedback A Obliterated tubules are a defining characteristic of sclerotic dentin. B Obliterated tubules are a defining characteristic of sclerotic dentin. C Obliterated tubules are a defining characteristic of sclerotic dentin. D Correct. Obliterated tubules are a defining characteristic of sclerotic dentin. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 103 OBJ: 1 2. The granular layer of Tomes is located in the. a. dentin of the root b. dentin of the crown c. periodontal ligament d. cementum of the root ANS: A TEST BANK Feedback A Correct. The granular layer of Tomes is a thin layer of dentin underlying the cementum of the root. B The granular layer of Tomes is a thin layer of dentin underlying the cementum of the root, not the crown. C The granular layer of Tomes is a thin layer of dentin underlying the cementum of the root, not the periodontal ligament. D The granular layer of Tomes is a thin layer of dentin, not cementum. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 105 OBJ: 1 3. Which type of dentin forms to protect and maintain the vitality of the pulp? a. Mantle b. Sclerotic c. Peritubular d. Reactionary ANS: D Feedback A Reactionary, not mantle, dentin is protective to the pulp and restores vitality. B Reactionary, not sclerotic, dentin is protective to the pulp and restores vitality. C Reactionary, not, peritubular, dentin is protective to the pulp and restores vitality. D Correct. Reactionary dentin is protective to the pulp and restores vitality. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 108 OBJ: 1 4. Which type of dentin separates mantle dentin from circumpulpal dentin? a. Granular b. Globular c. Transparent d. Reactionary ANS: B Feedback A A zone of globular, not granular, dentin separates mantle and circumpulpal dentin. B Correct. A zone of globular dentin separates mantle and circumpulpal dentin. C A zone of globular, not transparent, dentin separates mantle and circumpulpal dentin. D A zone of globular, not reactionary, dentin separates mantle and circumpulpal dentin. DIF: Comprehension NURSINGRTEBF:.Cp.O98M OBJ: 1 5. Mineralized tubules are associated with which type of dentin? c. enamelin d. hydroxyapatite ANS: B Feedback A Collagen fiber, not water, is the primary organic component of dentin. B Correct. Collagen is the primary organic component of dentin. C Enamelin is the main organic component of enamel, not dentin. D Hydroxyapatite is the main inorganic component of dentin. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 98 OBJ: 1 11. Which type of dentin bordersNtUheRpSulIpN? GTB.COM a. Globular b. Predentin c. Reactionary d. Circumpulpal ANS: B Feedback A Predentin borders the pulp chamber; globular dentin lies between mantle and circumpulpal dentin. B Correct. Predentin borders the pulp chamber. C Predentin borders the pulp chamber; reactionary dentin lies beneath a traumatized area. D Predentin borders the pulp chamber; circumpulpal dentin lies beneath mantle and globular dentin. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 98 OBJ: 1 12. Which type of dentin is formed prior to tooth function and is the major component of the crown and root of the tooth? a. Mantle dentin b. Circumpulpal dentin c. Secondary dentin d. Tertiary dentin ANS: B Feedback A Primary mantle dentin is deposited first, in a band about 150 µm wide and is mineralized by matrix vesicles and not a mineralization front. B Correct. Primary dentin is the major component of the crown and root and consists a thin layer of mantle dentin, globular dentin (disturbed dentin), and circumpulpal dentin. Circumpulpal dentin is the bulk of dentin. C Secondary dentin forms as teeth begin to function. It is normal circumpulpal dentin, however, the primary form is the bulk of dentin. D Tertiary dentin is formed in response to injury or trauma. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 98 OBJ: 1 13. Odontoblastic injury during a cavity preparation usually results in which of the following forms of dentin? a. Primary mantle dentin b. Primary globular dentin c. Secondary dentin d. Tertiary dentin ANS: D Feedback A Mantle dentin is a thin lNayerRdepIosiGted Bw.heCn thMe tooth is first forming. B Globular dentin is a zone Uof dSistuNrbedTdentinO. Mantle dentin is separated from the circumpulpal dentin by globular dentin. C Secondary dentin forms as teeth begin function and is normal circumpulpal dentin. D Correct. When caries or mechanical trauma affects the pulp, dentin is deposited underlying that area and is termed reactionary/response, reparative, or tertiary dentin. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 98 OBJ: 1 14. Which term is preferred to describe when newly recruited (replacement) odontoblasts begin depositing dentin? a. Reactionary dentin b. Response dentin c. Reparative dentin d. Secondary dentin ANS: C Feedback A Reactionary/response dentin should be used when original odontoblasts function in deposition. B Reactionary/response dentin should be used when original odontoblasts function in deposition. C Recent terminology suggests that the term reparative dentin be used when newly recruited odontoblasts begin depositing dentin. D Secondary dentin is all the dentin formed after a tooth is in function and is differentiated from tertiary dentin which is formed in response to pulpal stimulation. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 101 OBJ: 1 15. The defining characteristic of globular dentin is a. interglobular spaces. b. lamellae. c. The presence of ameloblasts. d. sclerotic dentin. ANS: A Feedback A Correct. Globular dentin contains hypomineralized areas between the globules, termed interglobular spaces. B Lamellae are visible cracks on the surface of enamel. C Ameloblasts form enamel and are not associated with the formation of dentin. D Sclerotic dentin is the term for dentin with tubules that are completely obliterated. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 102 OBJ: 1 N R I G B.C M 16. Incremental lines in dentin are also known as a. lines of von Ebner. b. the smear layer. c. the granular layer of Tomes. d. canaliculi. ANS: A Feedback A Correct. All dentin is deposited incrementally. This means that as a certain amount of dentin matrix is deposited daily, a hesitation in activity follows. Lines formed over several days are believed to be the ones described by von Ebner. B The smear layer is composed of the fine particles of cut dentinal debris that are produced by cavity preparation. 13. Dentinal tubules contain odoNntUobRlaSstIpNroGcTesBse.s,CnOerMve terminals, and dentinal fluid. ANS: T DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 106 OBJ: 2 Chapter 09: Dental Pulp Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not found in the central part of the pulp? a. Fibroblasts b. Cementoblasts c. Collagen fibers d. Veins and arteries ANS: B Feedback A Fibroblasts, collagen fibers, veins, and arteries are all found in the central region of the pulp; cementoblasts are not. B Correct. Cementoblasts are not located in the central region of the pulp. C Fibroblasts, collagen fibers, veins, and arteries are all found in the central region of the pulp; cementoblasts are not. D Fibroblasts, collagen fibers, veins, and arteries are all found in the central region of the pulp; cementoblasts are not. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 113 OBJ: 1 2. In which theory is pain the result of odontoblastic movement into nerve endings? a. Transduction b. Hydrodynamic c. Pain transmission d. Direct innervation ANS: B TEST BANK Feedback A The hydrodynamic, not transduction, theory is defined by odontoblastic movement into pulpal and intratubular nerve endings. B Correct. The hydrodynamic theory proposes that the sensation of pain results when an odontoblast moves, contacting nerve endings. C The hydrodynamic, not transmission theory, is defined by odontoblastic movement into pulpal and intratubular nerve endings. D The hydrodynamic, not innervation theory, is defined by odontoblastic movement into pulpal and intratubular nerve endings. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 111 OBJ: 1 3. Which of the following best defines the zone of Weil? a. Cell-free region b. High cell density c. Concentrated plexus of nerves d. Large veins, arteries, and pericytes Feedback A Correct. The zone of Weil is characterized as a cell-free region. B The zone of Weil is characterized as a cell-free, not cell-rich, region. C The zone of Weil is characterized as a cell-free region, as opposed to a region with a concentrated plexus of nerves. D The zone of Weil is characterized as a cell-free, not vascular, region. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 113 OBJ: 1 4. Most pulpal nerve endings are located in which area? a. Pulp horns b. Central pulp c. Apical foramen d. Dentinoenamel junction ANS: A Feedback A Correct. Most pulpal nerve endings terminate in the odontogenic region of the pulp horns. B Most pulpal nerve endings terminate in the odontogenic region of the pulp horns. C Most pulpal nerve endings terminate in the odontogenic region of the pulp horns. D Most pulpal nerve endings terminate in the odontogenic region of the pulp horns. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 111-112 OBJ: 1 10. Inflammation of the pulp may spread to the _. a. dentin b. enamel c. predentin d. periodontium ANS: D Feedback A Inflammation can spread from the pulp to the periodontium, not dentin. B Inflammation can spread from the pulp to the periodontium, not enamel. C Inflammation can spread from the pulp to the periodontium, not predentin. D Correct. Pulpal inflammation can spread to the periodontium. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 114 OBJ: 3 11. Pulpal capillaries are lined with . a. epithelial cells b. endothelial cells c. myelinated axons d. nonmyelinated axons ANS: B TEST BANK Feedback A Capillaries are lined with endothelial, not epithelial, cells B Correct. Capillaries are lined with endothelial cells. C Capillaries are lined with endothelial cells, not myelinated axons. D Capillaries are lined with endothelial cells, not nonmyelinated axons. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 117 OBJ: 2 12. The apical foramen is slightly larger in teeth. a. anterior b. posterior c. maxillary d. mandibular ANS: C Feedback A The apical foramen is slightly larger in maxillary, not anterior, teeth. B The apical foramen is slightly larger in maxillary, not posterior, teeth. C Correct. Maxillary teeth have a slightly larger apical foramen. D The apical foramen is slightly larger in maxillary, not mandibular, teeth. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 113 OBJ: 1 13. The largest blood vessels found in the dental pulp are a. arterioles. b. terminal arterioles. c. precapillaries. d. capillaries. ANS: A Feedback A Correct. The diameter of the arterioles in the dental pulp varies from 50 to 100 µm, which equals the size of arterioles in other areas of the body. B Terminal arterioles in the dental pulp have diameters of 10 to 15 µm. C Precapillaries measuring 8 to 12 µm are present in the peripheral pulp. D Capillaries measuring 8 to 10 µm are present in the peripheral pulp. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 120-121 OBJ: 2 14. The appearance of an odontoblast in the area of the pulp horns of the pulp is a. short. b. cuboidal. c. palisaded. d. stratified. ANS: C TEST BANK Feedback A Root pulp odontoblasts are short and cuboidal in the middle area of the pulp. B Root pulp odontoblasts are short and cuboidal in the middle area of the pulp. C Correct. Odontoblasts in the area of the pulp horns appear palisaded (pseudostratified) in contrast to their appearance in the remainder of the coronal area. D Odontoblasts in the area of the pulp horns appear to be stratified, however, they are pseudostratified, meaning all cells touch predentin. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 113 OBJ: 1 15. The largest part of the odontoblast is the a. nucleus. b. Golgi apparatus. c. process. d. mitochondria. ANS: C Feedback A An active odontoblast has a large nucleus in the basal part, however, the nucleus is found within the odontoblast. B An active odontoblast has a Golgi apparatus in its apical part. C The process of the odontoblast is the largest part of the cell, extending from the pulp to the dentinoenamel junction. The process could be several millimeters long in the crown of the tooth, but it is shorter in the root. D Abundant mitochondria are scattered throughout the cell body of the odontoblast, but they are contained within the odontoblast. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 113 OBJ: 1 16. The largest blood vessels associated with odontoblasts are under control by neurons of the a. preganglionic parasympathetic autonomic nervous system. b. postganglionic parasympathetic autonomic nervous system. c. preganglionic sympathetic autonomic nervous system. d. postganglionic sympathetic autonomic nervous system. ANS: D Feedback