APEA 3p Exam Prep: Comprehensive Study Guide with Questions and Answers - Prof. Yan, Exams of Nursing

This study guide offers multiple-choice questions and answers on medical topics for advanced practice nursing. It covers infectious diseases, prostate conditions, aortic regurgitation, cranial nerves, asthma, anticoagulation, pneumonia, giardiasis, ace inhibitors, thyroid disorders, bph, acne treatment, contraception, utis, copd, skin lesions, prostate pain, glucose management, leukemia, lymphatic drainage, migraine prophylaxis, stis, hypertension, antibiotic side effects, endocarditis, meningitis, vitamin deficiencies, gout, syphilis, thalassemia, acromegaly, sinusitis, rhinitis, bowel obstruction, osteosarcoma, trichomoniasis, and drug interactions. Designed to test medical knowledge, it's a valuable resource for students and practitioners, offering insights into clinical decision-making and patient management, enhancing diagnostic and therapeutic skills. This review aids exam preparation and improves clinical competence.

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2024/2025

Available from 08/09/2025

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2024 APEA 3p / APEA- Study
Guide Final Exam Questions and
Answers 2024 Study Guide
Question 1
This contagious disease causes fever, headache, stiff neck, photophobia, nausea, vomiting,
and altered mental status. What immunization prevents this?
a) Meningococcal vaccine โœ“
b) Pneumococcal vaccine
c) Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine
d) Varicella vaccine
Question 2
When palpating the prostate gland during the rectal exam, the prostate feels tender,
swollen, boggy and warm. This finding is consistent with:
a) A normal prostate gland
b) Acute bacterial prostatitis โœ“
c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
d) Carcinoma of the prostate
Question 3
Disorders in the kidneys and the ureters may cause pain in all of the following areas except
the:
a) Flank
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2024 APEA 3p / APEA- Study

Guide Final Exam Questions and

Answers 2024 Study Guide

Question 1

This contagious disease causes fever, headache, stiff neck, photophobia, nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status. What immunization prevents this? a) Meningococcal vaccine โœ“ b) Pneumococcal vaccine c) Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine d) Varicella vaccine

Question 2

When palpating the prostate gland during the rectal exam, the prostate feels tender, swollen, boggy and warm. This finding is consistent with: a) A normal prostate gland b) Acute bacterial prostatitis โœ“ c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia d) Carcinoma of the prostate

Question 3

Disorders in the kidneys and the ureters may cause pain in all of the following areas except the: a) Flank

b) Abdomen c) Back d) Suprapubic โœ“

Question 4

The typical presentation of severe acute aortic regurgitation (AR) includes sudden severe shortness of breath rapidly developing heart failure, and: a) Dry cough b) Chest pain c) Decreased blood pressure โœ“ d) Systolic murmur

Question 5

Which cranial nerves are responsible for eye movement? a) CN II, III, IV b) CN III, IV, VI โœ“ c) CN II, IV, VI d) CN III, IV, VII

Question 6

A common pathological finding in patient with asthma: a) Necrosis of small airway common pathological finding in patient with asthma b) Absence of goblet cells

c) If the patient is at least 18 years of age d) If the patient drinks alcohol โœ“

Question 11

A patient develops a cough secondary to an angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE). The most appropriate statement related to ACE-I cough is that the cough typically: a) Resolves within a week after stopping the ACE inhibitor โœ“ b) Resolves with splitting the daily dose to twice daily dosing c) Occurs with an angiotensin-II receptor blocker (ARB) d) Affects men more than women

Question 12

Examination of the hair reveals a fine silky appearance. This finding may be seen in patients that have: a) Hypothyroidism b) Hyperthyroidism โœ“ c) Type 2 diabetes d) Celiac disease

Question 13

An elderly male with benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH) should be advised to avoid antihistamines. What is the reason for this? a) Urinary incontinence b) Constipation

c) Orthostatic hypotension d) Urinary retention โœ“

Question 14

The addition of benzoyl peroxide to erythromycin for the topical treatment of acne: a) Improve the efficacy of erythromycin โœ“ b) Decrease the risk of desquamation c) Decreases the risk of resistance to erythromycin d) Increases the time patient can be exposed to sunlight

Question 15

Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in women with: a) Tension headaches b) Migraines with aura โœ“ c) Unilateral headaches d) Cluster headaches

Question 16

Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is recommended for very short-term use in patients with urinary tract infections (UTIs) because: a) Possible resistance b) Occurrence of hemolytic anemia โœ“ c) Gastritis

d) In the glans penis

Question 20

The medication that blocks the transportation of glucose across the intestines into the blood stream to target prandial blood glucose is: a) Metformin (Glucophage XR) b) Acarbose (Precose) โœ“ c) Rosiglitazone (Avandia) d) Glipizide (Glucotrol XL)

Question 21

Acute lymphocytic leukemia is usually diagnosed by: a) A completed blood count b) Magnetic resonance imaging c) A nuclear bone scan d) A bone marrow examination โœ“

Question 22

The right lymph duct drains lymphatic fluid from all the following except the: a) Right side of the head b) Right upper thorax c) Right arm d) Right leg โœ“

Question 23

Which agent is NOT useful in prophylactic treatment of migraine headaches? a) Sumatriptan (Imitrex) โœ“ b) Amitriptyline (elavil) c) Verapamil (verelan) d) Metoprolol (lopressor)

Question 24

A 40-year-old admits to multiple sex partners presents with several lesions over his body. Finding reveals hemorrhagic vesiculopustular lesions over the hands and feet. These lesions are most likely associated with: a) Gonococcemia โœ“ b) Infective endocarditis c) Hyperthyroidism d) Peripheral vascular disease

Question 25

Which antihypertensive would be appropriate to prescribe for a hypertensive patient (B/P 150/95) that is in her third trimester? a) Candesartan b) Lisinopril c) Methyldopa โœ“ d) Furosemide

What two vitamins and minerals should be included in oral multivitamins in women: a) Folic Acid and Vitamin C b) Iron and Vitamin B c) Vitamin D and Iron d) Folic Acid and Iron โœ“

Question 30

During an acute attack of gout, the nurse practitioner knows NOT to prescribe: a) Colchicine (Colcrys) b) Allopurinol (zyloprim) โœ“ c) Steroids d) NSAIDS

Question 31

A characteristic lesion observed in a male with primary syphilis is a: a) Group of small scattered vesicles b) Chancre โœ“ c) Papule of many shapes d) Non-tender penile indurated nodule

Question 32

An 84-year-old male with prostatic hypertrophy is at increased risk of: a) Constipation b) Fecal incontinence

c) Urinary tract infections โœ“ d) Prostate cancer

Question 33

Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the secondary stage of syphilis? a) Absence of symptoms b) Single painless lesion, chancre on the genital area c) Rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles โœ“ d) Poor muscle coordination

Question 34

A patient has newly diagnosed hypothyroidism. What are the patients TSH level expected to be? a) Higher than normal โœ“ b) Lower than normal c) Within normal range d) TSH is not used to diagnose hypothyroidism

Question 35

Why would a child diagnosed with beta thalassemia and hemosiderosis receive deferoxamine (desferal)? a) To prevent blood transfusion reactions b) To simulate red blood cell production

d) A deviated septum

Question 39

Symptoms associated with small bowel obstruction usually include: a) Nausea and diarrhea b) Vomiting and pain โœ“ c) Hematemesis and bloody stool d) Indigestion and anorexia

Question 40

In a patient who has a history of migraine headaches, which characteristics is most common? a) Focal deficits b) Family history โœ“ c) Weakness d) Initial onset after age 35

Question 41

Osteosarcoma in a pediatric patient is most often diagnosed when there is: a) Pain in the affected bone โœ“ b) Pathologic fracture c) Repeat fracture d) Apophyseal avulsion

Question 42

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for trichomoniasis in a non- pregnant woman? a) Metronidazole (flagyl) โœ“ b) Doxycycline (Vibramycin) c) Clindamycin (Cleocin) d) Clotrimazole (lotrimin)

Question 43

The lymphatic ducts drain into the: a) arterial system b) venous system โœ“ c) vertebral bodies of the spine d) shoulder

Question 44

Which of the following drugs is not contraindicated for concurrent use with warfarin (Coumadin)? a) Amoxicillin (Amoxil) โœ“ b) Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) c) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) d) Clarithromycin (Biaxin)

Question 48

Papilledema is a cause for concern because it is suggestive of: a) Optic atrophy b) Microaneurysms c) Increased intracranial pressure โœ“ d) Retinal hemorrhage

Question 49

The American psychiatric association's diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorder defines Munchausen Syndrome By Proxy: a) a self-inflicted injury to gain attention b) a caregiver making up or causing an illness or injury in a person under his or her care โœ“ c) an abusive behavior that does not involve the caregiver d) a situation in which the abuser is often inattentive and uncaring toward the victim

Question 50

When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in the left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This means: a) have the patient returning in two weeks for a follow up vision screen b) dilate the eye and retest c) refer the patient to an ophthalmologist โœ“ d) document this as a normal finding

Question 51

On examination of the neck, a dome shaped lesion in the dermis forming a benign closed firm sac attached to the epidermis is noted on the right lateral side of the neck. The type of lesion is known as: a) Keloid b) Tophi c) A cutaneous cyst โœ“ d) Chondrodermatitis

Question 52

A patient presents with signs of chest pain, the nurse practitioner observes jugular venous distention. Their finding is consistent with: a) Hypertension b) Heart failure โœ“ c) Asthma d) Pneumonia

Question 53

Anticholinergics are indicated for the treatment of: a) Asymptomatic bacteriuria b) Renal insufficiency c) Urge incontinence โœ“ d) Overflow incontinence

Question 57

Which one of the following statements is true of Munchausen syndrome by proxy? a) The injury is self-inflicted as the patient is seeking attention from others b) Under the supervision of adults other than the abuser, the patient does not exhibit symptoms โœ“ c) The caregiver is usually not involved in the abusive behavior d) The abuser is often inattentive and uncaring towards the victim

Question 58

The client with iron deficiency anemia should be advised to take the iron supplement: a) With milk to avoid stomach upset b) With milk of magnesia at bedtime to avoid constipation c) On an empty stomach between meals โœ“ d) For 30 days to 5 weeks

Question 59

Headache warning signs that need prompt investigation include all of the following EXCEPT: a) new onset after age 50 b) aggravated or relieved by change of position c) precipitated by Valsalva maneuver d) Headache relieved with mild infrequent use of analgesics โœ“

Question 60

Which immunization reduces a patient's risk for infection with the virus that causes painful localized blistering rash? a) Smallpox vaccine b) Varicella vaccine (chicken Pox) c) Shingles (herpes zoster) vaccine โœ“ d) Meningococcal vaccine

Question 61

When treating a patient with asthma who is experiencing acute wheezing which medication should be given to relieve the symptom? a) Short acting bronchodilator โœ“ b) Long acting bronchodilator c) Inhaled corticosteroid d) Combination of methylxanthine and long acting bronchodilator

Question 62

Which of the following conditions is NOT a typical finding of hyperprolactinemia in a 47- year-old premenopausal woman? a) Hirsutism b) Gynecomastia โœ“ c) Oligomenorrhea d) Acne

Question 63