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Pharmacology Exam Test Bank: 245 Questions & Answers with Rationales, Exams of Pharmacology

Western Governors University (WGU)Pharmacology

A pharmacology proctored exam test bank with 245 real questions and answers, complete with rationales. It covers various medications and their effects, focusing on nursing actions and client monitoring. The questions address drug administration, expected effects, adverse reactions, and potential toxicities. It is designed to help nursing students prepare for pharmacology exams by providing detailed explanations and rationales for each answer. This resource is useful for understanding key concepts in pharmacology and improving test-taking skills. It is rated a+.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/10/2025

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2025 ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM TEST
BANK|245 REAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES|RATED A+
1) A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum
calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as
prescribed to the client?
1. Calcium chloride
2. Calcium gluconate
3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
4. Large doses of vitamin D
3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
Rationale:
The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing
hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment
of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcaemia. In hyperkalemia, large doses of
vitamin D need to be avoided.
Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption
and lowering the serum calcium concentration.
2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia.
The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item?
1. Milk
2. Water
3. Apple juice
4. Orange juice
4.
Orange
juice
Rational
e:
Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed
to administer the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milk
may affect absorption of the iron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice
contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple juice.
3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors
the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic
toxicity from this medication?
1. Tinnitus
2. Diarrhea
3. Constipation
4. Decreased respirations
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Download Pharmacology Exam Test Bank: 245 Questions & Answers with Rationales and more Exams Pharmacology in PDF only on Docsity!

2025 ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM TEST

BANK|245 REAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH

RATIONALES|RATED A+

  1. A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client?
  1. Calcium chloride
  2. Calcium gluconate
  3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
  4. Large doses of vitamin D
  5. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Rationale: The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcaemia. In hyperkalemia, large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration. 2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6 - year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item?
  6. Milk
  7. Water
  8. Apple juice
  9. Orange juice

Orange juice Rational e: Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed to administer the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milk may affect absorption of the iron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple juice. 3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication?

  1. Tinnitus
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Constipation
  4. Decreased respirations
  1. Tinnit us Rational e : Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological disturbances. Constipation and diarrhea are not associated with salicylism. 4.) The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied:
  2. Immediately before swimming
  3. 15 minutes before exposure to the sun
  4. Immediately before exposure to the sun
  5. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun Rationale: Sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun so that they can penetrate the skin. All sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming or sweating. 5.) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
  6. Notifying the registered nurse
  7. Discontinuing the medication
  8. Informing the client that this is normal
  9. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site
  10. Informing the client that this is normal Rationale: Mafenide acetate is bacteriostatic for gram-negative and gram-positive organisms and is used to treat burns to reduce bacteria present in avascular tissues. The client should be informed that the medication will cause local discomfort and burning and that this is a normal reaction; therefore options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect 6.) The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred?
  11. Hyperventilation
  12. Elevated blood pressure
  13. Local pain at the burn site
  14. Local rash at the burn site
  15. Hyperventilati on

e: Topical corticosteroids can be absorbed into the systemic circulation. Absorption is higher from regions where the skin is especially permeable (scalp, axilla, face, eyelids, neck, perineum, genitalia), and lower from regions in which permeability is poor (back, palms, soles). 10.) The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for:

  1. Acne
  2. Eczema
  3. Hair loss
  4. Herpes simplex
  5. Acne Rational e: Azelaic acid is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. The acid appears to work by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. W 11.) The health care provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial- thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatments?
  6. "The medication is an antibacterial."
  7. "The medication will help heal the burn."
  8. "The medication will permanently stain my skin."
  9. "The medication should be applied directly to the wound."
  10. "The medication will permanently stain my skin." Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is an antibacterial that has a broad spectrum of activity against gram- negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, and yeast. It is applied directly to the wound to assist in healing. It does not stain the skin. 12.) A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. During an inspection of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the rate of infusion of the medication has slowed. The nurse should take which appropriate action?
  11. Notify the registered nurse.
  12. Administer pain medication to reduce the discomfort.
  13. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate, as prescribed.
  14. Elevate the extremity of the IV site, and slow the infusion.
  15. Notify the registered nurse. Rationale:

When antineoplastic medications (Chemotheraputic Agents) are administered via IV, great care must be taken to prevent the medication from escaping into the tissues surrounding the injection site, because pain, tissue damage, and necrosis can result. The nurse monitors for signs of extravasation, such as redness or swelling at the insertion site and a decreased infusion rate. If extravasation occurs, the registered nurse needs to be notified; he or she will then contact the health care provider. 13.) The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed?

  1. Echocardiography
  2. Electrocardiography
  3. Cervical radiography
  4. Pulmonary function studies
  5. Pulmonary function studies Rationale: Bleomycin is an antineoplastic medication (Chemotheraputic Agents) that can cause interstitial pneumonitis, which can progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary function studies along with hematological, hepatic, and renal function tests need to be monitored. The nurse needs to monitor lung sounds for dyspnea and crackles, which indicate pulmonary toxicity. The medication needs to be discontinued immediately if pulmonary toxicity occurs. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to the specific use of this medication. W 14.) The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication?
  6. Clotting time
  7. Uric acid level
  8. Potassium level
  9. Blood glucose level
  10. Uric acid level Rationale: Busulfan (Myleran) can cause an increase in the uric acid level. Hyperuricemia can produce uric acid nephropathy, renal stones, and acute renal failure. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not specifically related to this medication. 15.) The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The nurse who is assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that which side effect is specifically associated with this medication?
  11. Alopecia
  12. Chest pain
  13. Pulmonary fibrosis
  14. Orthostatic hypotension
  15. Orthostatic
  1. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations
  2. That it is not necessary to consult HCPs before receiving a flu vaccine at the local health fair
  3. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations Rationale: Because antineoplastic medications lower the resistance of the body, clients must be informed not to receive immunizations without a HCP's approval. Clients also need to avoid contact with individuals who have recently received a live virus vaccine. Clients need to avoid aspirin and aspirin-containing products to minimize the risk of bleeding, and they need to avoid alcohol to minimize the risk of toxicity and side effects. 17.) The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication?
  4. Diarrhea
  5. Hair loss
  6. Chest pain
  7. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes
  8. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes Rationale: A side effect specific to vincristine is peripheral neuropathy, which occurs in almost every client. Peripheral neuropathy can be manifested as numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Depression of the Achilles tendon reflex may be the first clinical sign indicating peripheral neuropathy. Constipation rather than diarrhea is most likely to occur with this medication, although diarrhea may occur occasionally. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic medications. Chest pain is unrelated to this medication. 18.) The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The nurse consults with the registered nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following is documented in the client's history?
  9. Pancreatitis
  10. Diabetes mellitus
  11. Myocardial infarction
  12. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  13. Pancreatiti s Rationale: Asparaginase (Elspar) is contraindicated if hypersensitivity exists, in pancreatitis, or if the client has a history of pancreatitis. The medication impairs pancreatic function and pancreatic function tests should be performed before therapy begins and when a week or more has elapsed between administration of the doses. The client needs to be monitored for signs of pancreatitis, which include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The conditions noted in options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with this medication. W

19.) Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:

  1. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
  2. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
  3. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
  4. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.
  5. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antineoplastic medication that competes with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Tamoxifen is used to treat metastatic breast carcinoma in women and men. Tamoxifen is also effective in delaying the recurrence of cancer following mastectomy. Tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response. W 20.) The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?
  6. Glucose level
  7. Calcium level
  8. Potassium level
  9. Prothrombin time
  10. Calcium level Rationale: Tamoxifen may increase calcium, cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. Before the initiation of therapy, a complete blood count, platelet count, and serum calcium levels should be assessed. These blood levels, along with cholesterol and triglyceride levels, should be monitored periodically during therapy. The nurse should assess for hypercalcemia while the client is taking this medication. Signs of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypotonicity of muscles, and deep bone and flank pain. W 21.) A nurse is assisting with caring for a client with cancer who is receiving cisplatin. Select the adverse effects that the nurse monitors for that are associated with this medication. Select all that apply.
  11. Tinnitus
  12. Ototoxicity
  13. Hyperkalemia
  14. Hypercalcemia
  15. Nephrotoxicity
  16. Hypomagnesemia
  17. Tinnitus
  18. Ototoxicity
  19. Nephrotoxicity
  20. Hypomagnesemia
  1. Injects air into NPH insulin vial first
  2. Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial
  3. Withdraws the NPH insulin first Rationale: When preparing a mixture of regular insulin with another insulin preparation, the regular insulin is drawn into the syringe first. This sequence will avoid contaminating the vial of regular insulin with insulin of another type. Options 2, 3, and 4 identify the correct actions for preparing NPH and regular insulin. W 25.) A home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of insulin. The nurse tells the client to:
  4. Freeze the insulin.
  5. Refrigerate the insulin.
  6. Store the insulin in a dark, dry place.
  7. Keep the insulin at room temperature.
  8. Refrigerate the insulin. Rationale: Insulin in unopened vials should be stored under refrigeration until needed. Vials should not be frozen. When stored unopened under refrigeration, insulin can be used up to the expiration date on the vial. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. W 26.) Glimepiride (Amaryl) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. A nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?
  9. Alcohol
  10. Organ meats
  11. Whole-grain cereals
  12. Carbonated beverages
  13. Alcoho l Rational e: When alcohol is combined with glimepiride (Amaryl), a disulfiram-like reaction may occur. This syndrome includes flushing, palpitations, and nausea. Alcohol can also potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Clients need to be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication. The items in options 2, 3, and 4 do not need to be avoided. W 27.) Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?
  14. Neuralgia
  1. Insomnia
  1. Prednisone
  1. Phenelzine (Nardil)
  2. Atenolol (Tenormin)
  3. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
  4. Prednison e Rationale: Prednisone may decrease the effect of oral hypoglycemics, insulin, diuretics, and potassium supplements. Option 2, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, and option 3, a β-blocker, have their own intrinsic hypoglycemic activity. Option 4 decreases urinary excretion of sulfonylurea agents, causing increased levels of the oral agents, which can lead to hypoglycemia. W 31.) A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been prescribed for the client and the nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary?
  5. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it."
  6. "I need to take the medication every day at the same time."
  7. "I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet."
  8. "If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my doctor."
  9. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it." Rationale: Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken unless the client consults with the health care provider (HCP). The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and should be instructed not to stop the medication. A slight weight gain as a result of an improved appetite is expected, but after the dosage is stabilized, a weight gain of 5 lb or more weekly should be reported to the HCP. Caffeine-containing foods and fluids need to be avoided because they may contribute to steroid-ulcer development. W 32.) Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?
  10. Decreased urinary output
  11. Decreased blood pressure
  12. Decreased peripheral edema
  13. Decreased blood glucose level
  14. Decreased urinary output Rationale: Desmopressin promotes renal conservation of water. The hormone carries out this action by acting on the collecting ducts of the kidney to increase their permeability to water, which results in increased water reabsorption. The therapeutic effect of this medication would be manifested by a decreased urine output. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the effects of this medication. W
  1. An episode of diarrhea
  2. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage
  3. An episode of diarrhea Rationale: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent. It is used to manage acute and also chronic diarrhea in conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease. Loperamide also can be used to reduce the volume of drainage from an ileostomy. It is not used for the conditions in options 1, 2, and 4. W 36.) The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?
  4. Paralytic ileus
  5. Incisional pain
  6. Urinary retention
  7. Nausea and vomiting
  8. Nausea and vomiting Rationale: Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. The other options are incorrect. W 37.) The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?
  9. Weight loss
  10. Relief of heartburn
  11. Reduction of steatorrhea
  12. Absence of abdominal pain
  13. Reduction of steatorrhea Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme used in clients with pancreatitis as a digestive aid. The medication should reduce the amount of fatty stools (steatorrhea). Another intended effect could be improved nutritional status. It is not used to treat abdominal pain or heartburn. Its use could result in weight gain but should not result in weight loss if it is aiding in digestion. W 38.) An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
  14. Tremors
  15. Dizziness
  16. Confusion
  17. Hallucinations

Confusion Rationale: Cimetidine is a histamine 2 (H2)-receptor antagonist. Older clients are especially susceptible to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent of these is confusion. Less common central nervous system side effects include headache, dizziness, drowsiness, and hallucinations. W 39.) The client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse schedules the medication for which times?

  1. With meals and at bedtime
  2. Every 6 hours around the clock
  3. One hour after meals and at bedtime
  4. One hour before meals and at bedtime
  5. One hour before meals and at bedtime Rationale: Sucralfate is a gastric protectant. The medication should be scheduled for administration 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. The medication is timed to allow it to form a protective coating over the ulcer before food intake stimulates gastric acid production and mechanical irritation. The other options are incorrect. W 40.) The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted?
  6. Resolved diarrhea
  7. Relief of epigastric pain
  8. Decreased platelet count
  9. Decreased white blood cell count
  10. Relief of epigastric pain Rationale: The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is prone to gastric mucosal injury. Misoprostol is a gastric protectant and is given specifically to prevent this occurrence. Diarrhea can be a side effect of the medication, but is not an intended effect. Options 3 and 4 are incorrect. W 41.) The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?
  11. Diarrhea
  12. Heartburn
  13. Flatulence
  14. Constipation

44.) A client is receiving acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), 20% solution diluted in 0.9% normal saline by nebulizer. The nurse should have which item available for possible use after giving this medication?

  1. Ambu bag
  2. Intubation tray
  3. Nasogastric tube
  4. Suction equipment
  5. Suction equipment Rationale: Acetylcysteine can be given orally or by nasogastric tube to treat acetaminophen overdose, or it may be given by inhalation for use as a mucolytic. The nurse administering this medication as a mucolytic should have suction equipment available in case the client cannot manage to clear the increased volume of liquefied secretions. W 45.) A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin (Humibid) every 4 hours, as needed. The nurse determines that the client understands the most effective use of this medication if the client states that he or she will:
  6. Watch for irritability as a side effect.
  7. Take the tablet with a full glass of water.
  8. Take an extra dose if the cough is accompanied by fever.
  9. Crush the sustained-release tablet if immediate relief is needed.
  10. Take the tablet with a full glass of water. Rationale: Guaifenesin is an expectorant. It should be taken with a full glass of water to decrease viscosity of secretions. Sustained-release preparations should not be broken open, crushed, or chewed. The medication may occasionally cause dizziness, headache, or drowsiness as side effects. The client should contact the health care provider if the cough lasts longer than 1 week or is accompanied by fever, rash, sore throat, or persistent headache. W 46.) A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for:
  11. Pupillary changes
  12. Scattered lung wheezes
  13. Sudden increase in pain
  14. Sudden episodes of diarrhea
  15. Sudden increase in pain Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may also be given to the postoperative client to treat respiratory depression. When given to the postoperative client for respiratory depression, it may

also reverse the effects of analgesics. Therefore, the nurse must check the client for a sudden increase in the level of pain experienced. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not associated with this medication. W 47.) A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

  1. Hypercalcemia
  2. Peripheral neuritis
  3. Small blood vessel spasm
  4. Impaired peripheral circulation
  5. Peripheral neuritis Rationale: A common side effect of the TB drug INH is peripheral neuritis. This is manifested by numbness, tingling, and paresthesias in the extremities. This side effect can be minimized by pyridoxine (vitamin B6) intake. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. W 48.) A client is to begin a 6 - month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to teach the client to:
  6. Drink alcohol in small amounts only.
  7. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately.
  8. Increase intake of Swiss or aged cheeses.
  9. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.
  10. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. Rationale: INH is hepatotoxic, and therefore the client is taught to report signs and symptoms of hepatitis immediately (which include yellow skin and sclera). For the same reason, alcohol should be avoided during therapy. The client should avoid intake of Swiss cheese, fish such as tuna, and foods containing tyramine because they may cause a reaction characterized by redness and itching of the skin, flushing, sweating, tachycardia, headache, or lightheadedness. The client can avoid developing peripheral neuritis by increasing the intake of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) during the course of INH therapy for TB. W 49.) A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:
  11. Should always be taken with food or antacids
  12. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
  13. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
  14. May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months
  15. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces Rationale: