5 Questions on Functional Analysis with Solution - Homework 4 | MATH 640, Assignments of Mathematics

Material Type: Assignment; Professor: Kaliuzhnyi-Verbovetskyi; Class: Functional Analysis; Subject: Mathematics; University: Drexel University; Term: Spring 2009;

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WA 4: Solutions
1. Let the function fon [0,1] be defined as
f(x) = 1
qif x=p
qwhere pand qare coprime integers,0pq,
0 if xis irrational or x=0.
(a) Prove that fis continuous at every irrational point and at 0, and that fis
discontinuous at every rational point of the interval (0,1];
(b) Is fRiemann integrable? If so, find R
1
R
0
f(x)dx.
(c) Is fLebesgue integrable? If so, find R
[0,1]
f.
Solution. (a) Let x0be irrational or 0. Given > 0, there is only a finite number
of proper rational fractions p/q such that 1/q (those are fractions with q1/
and 0 p<q). Let δbe the distance from x0to the closest rational number with
this property. Then if x=p/q is such that |xx0|< δ then |f(x)f(x0)|= 1/q < ,
and if xis irrational and |xx0|< δ then |f(x)f(x0)|= 0 < . Thus, fis
continuous at x0.
If x0=p/q (0,1] then there are irrational numbers xarbitrary close to x0,
and |f(x)f(x0)|= 1/q > 0. Therefore, fis discontinuous at x0.
(b) Since the set of discontinuities of fcoincides with the set of rational num-
bers in (0,1], and thus countable, and any countable set has measure zero, by the
Lebesgue theorem fis Riemann integrable. Since
R
1
Z
0
f(x)dx =RZ1
0
f(x)dx = sup s,
where sare lower Darboux sums, and for any partition of [0,1] there are irrational
points in each subinterval, we have s= 0 for all s, and therefore R
1
R
0
f(x)dx = 0.
(c) Since fis Riemann integrable, fis also Lebesque integrable, and
Z
[0,1]
f=R
1
Z
0
f(x)dx = 0.
2. Show that if fis measurable real-valued function and gis a continuous
function defined on (−∞,) then the composition gfis measurable.
Solution. For any extended real number α, the set
{x:g(x)> α}=g1(α, )
is open (as a pre-image of an open set under a continuous mapping), and therefore
can be represented as a finite or countable union of disjoint intervals (an, bn). Since
the set
{x:an< f(x)< bn}=f1(an, bn)
1
pf3
pf4
pf5

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WA 4: Solutions

  1. Let the function f on [0, 1] be defined as

f (x) =

q if^ x^ =^

p q where^ p^ and^ q^ are coprime integers,^0 ≤^ p^ ≤^ q, 0 if x is irrational or x=0.

(a) Prove that f is continuous at every irrational point and at 0, and that f is discontinuous at every rational point of the interval (0, 1];

(b) Is f Riemann integrable? If so, find R

∫^1

0

f (x) dx.

(c) Is f Lebesgue integrable? If so, find

[0,1]

f.

Solution. (a) Let x 0 be irrational or 0. Given  > 0, there is only a finite number of proper rational fractions p/q such that 1/q ≥  (those are fractions with q ≤ 1 / and 0 ≤ p < q). Let δ be the distance from x 0 to the closest rational number with this property. Then if x = p/q is such that |x−x 0 | < δ then |f (x)−f (x 0 )| = 1/q < , and if x is irrational and |x − x 0 | < δ then |f (x) − f (x 0 )| = 0 < . Thus, f is continuous at x 0. If x 0 = p/q ∈ (0, 1] then there are irrational numbers x arbitrary close to x 0 , and |f (x) − f (x 0 )| = 1/q > 0. Therefore, f is discontinuous at x 0. (b) Since the set of discontinuities of f coincides with the set of rational num- bers in (0, 1], and thus countable, and any countable set has measure zero, by the Lebesgue theorem f is Riemann integrable. Since

R

∫^1

0

f (x) dx = R

0

f (x) dx = sup s,

where s are lower Darboux sums, and for any partition of [0, 1] there are irrational

points in each subinterval, we have s = 0 for all s, and therefore R

∫^1

0

f (x) dx = 0.

(c) Since f is Riemann integrable, f is also Lebesque integrable, and

[0,1]

f = R

∫^1

0

f (x) dx = 0.

  1. Show that if f is measurable real-valued function and g is a continuous function defined on (−∞, ∞) then the composition g ◦ f is measurable.

Solution. For any extended real number α, the set

{x : g(x) > α} = g−^1 (α, ∞)

is open (as a pre-image of an open set under a continuous mapping), and therefore can be represented as a finite or countable union of disjoint intervals (an, bn). Since the set

{x : an < f (x) < bn} = f −^1 (an, bn) 1

is measurable for any n, the set

{x : g(f (x)) > α} =

n

f −^1 (an, bn)

is measurable. Therefore, g ◦ f is a measurable function.

  1. An extended real-valued function f is called lower semicontinuous at the point y if f (y) 6 = −∞ and f (y) ≤ lim x→y

f (x). Similarly, f is called upper semicon-

tinuous at the point y if f (y) 6 = +∞ and f (y) ≥ lim x→y f (x). We say that f is lower

(upper) semicontinuous on an interval if it is lower (upper) semicontinuous at each point of the interval. Clearly, f is upper semicontinuos if and only if −f is lower semicontinuous. (a) Let f (y) be finite. Prove that f is upper semicontinuous at y if and only if given  > 0, there is a δ > 0 such that f (y) ≥ f (x) −  for all x with |x − y| < δ. (b) A function f is continuous (at a point of in an interval) if and only if it is both upper and lower semicontinuous (at a point of in an interval). (c) A step function φ on [a, b] is upper semicontinuous if and only if for a partition a = x 0 < x 1 < · · · < xn = b defining φ and for each i = 0,... , n the value φ(xi) is greater than or equal to the maximal of the two values assumed on (xi− 1 , xi) and (xi, xi+1) (for the endpoints x 0 = a and xn = b, one of the two subintervals is void). (d) A function f on [a, b] is upper semicontinuous if and only if there is a mono- tone decreasing sequence {φn} of upper semicontinuous step functions on [a, b] such that for each x ∈ [a, b], f (x) = lim n φn(x).

Solution. (a) follows from the equivalence of two definitions of a lower (resp., upper) limit. (b) f is continuous at y if and only if

f (y) = lim x→y f (x) = lim x→y f (x) = lim x→y f (x).

This implies that f is both lower semicontinuous and upper semicontinuous at y. Conbversely, if f is both lower semicontinuous and upper semicontinuous at y then

lim x→y f (x) ≤ f (y) ≤ lim x→y f (x) ≤ lim x→y f (x).

Therefore, we have all equalities in this chain of inequalities, and f is continuous at y. (c) If φ(x) = ci− 1 for x ∈ (xi− 1 , xi) and φ(x) = ci for x ∈ (xi, xi+1) then, clearly,

xlim→x i φ(x) = max{ci− 1 , ci}. Therefore, φ is upper semicontinuous at xi if and only

if φ(xi) ≥ max{ci− 1 , ci}. If y is an interior point of any subinterval (xi, xi+1) in the partition for φ then φ is continuous at y, and hence, by part (b) φ is always upper semicontinuous at such a y.

at y then, by the result of Problem 3(a), given  > 0 there exists a δ > 0 such that f (y) ≥ sup |x−y|<δ

f (x) − . Therefore,

f (y) ≥ inf δ> 0

sup |x−y|<δ

f (x) −  = h(y) − .

Since  > 0 was arbitrary, f (y) = h(y). The statement for g is proved analogously. (b) Since f is bounded, h(y) 6 = ∞ for every y ∈ [a, b]. Given such y, for every δ > 0 one has

lim x→y h(x) ≤ lim x→y sup |t−x|<δ

f (t) ≤ sup |x−y|<δ

sup |t−x|<δ

f (t) = sup |t−y|< 2 δ

f (t).

Therefore, lim x→y h(x) ≤ inf δ> 0 sup |t−y|< 2 δ

f (t) = h(y),

i.e., h is upper semicontinuous. The statement for g is proved analogously.

  1. (a) Let f be bounded function on [a, b], and let h be its upper envelope. Then

R

∫ (^) b a f^ (x)dx^ =^

∫ (^) b a h. Hint: Use the following line of reasoning, and explain the details. If φ ≥ f is a step function, then φ ≥ h except at a finite number of points, and so

∫ (^) b a h^ ≤ R

∫ (^) b a f^ (x)dx. But there is a sequence^ {φn}^ of step functions such that^ φn^ ↓^ h^ (see Problem 3). By the Bounded Convergence Theorem, we have

∫ (^) b a h^ = lim^

∫ (^) b a φn^ ≥ R

∫ (^) b a f^ (x)dx. (b) Use part (a) to prove the Lebesque theorem: a bounded function f on [a, b] is Riemann integrable if and only if the set of points at which f is discontinuous has measure zero.

Solution. (a) If φ ≥ f is a step function then h(y) = inf δ> 0 sup |x−y|<δ

f (x) ≤ inf δ> 0 sup |x−y|<δ

φ(x) = φ(y)

except, maybe, when y is a partition point for the step function φ. Thus, φ ≥ h except at a finite number of points. We know from Problem 3(d) that there is a sequence {φn} of step functions such that φn ↓ h. Then h is measurable as a limit of measurable functions. Since φ 1 ≥ φn ≥ h for every n, we have |φn| ≤ |φ 1 | + |h|. Since |h| is bounded by the same constant as |f |, |h| is Lebesque integrable, and we also have that |φ 1 | is Lebesgue integrable. Thus, |φ 1 | + |h| is Lebesgue integrable. Therefore, we can apply the Lebesgue convergence theorem, and get

∫ (^) b

a

h = lim n→∞

∫ (^) b

a

φn = lim n→∞

R

∫ (^) b

a

φn(x) dx

= inf φ≥h

R

∫ (^) b

a

φ(x) dx

= inf φ≥f

R

∫ (^) b

a

φ(x) dx

= R

∫ (^) b

a

f (x)dx.

(b) The analogue of part (a) for the lower envelope g of f can be established analogously. Then ∫ (^) b

a

g = R

∫ (^) b

a

f (x)dx ≤ R

∫ (^) b

a

f (x)dx =

∫ (^) b

a

h.

The function f is Riemann integrable if and only if this inequality is an equality. This, in turn, happens if and only if

∫ (^) b a (h^ −^ g) = 0. Since^ h^ −^ g^ ≥^ 0 this is possible if and only if h = g almost everywhere. By Problem 4(a), this, in turn, means that f is continuous at all points of [a, b] except on the set of measure zero.