ACLS Post Test (2026/2027) | 50 Q&A with Expert Explanations | PDF, Exams of Medicine

INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD. ACLS Post Test with 50 actual questions and answers. Multiple-choice format with expert-verified explanations. Requires 90% passing score. Perfect for AHA ACLS certification and recertification prep. ACLS post test 2026, ACLS exam answers, AHA ACLS certification test, ACLS practice test 50 questions, ACLS post test expert explanation, Advanced cardiac life support exam, ACLS recertification prep, ACLS multiple choice, ACLS algorithms, American Heart Association ACLS, ACLS test bank, ACLS final exam, ACLS post test passing score 90%, ACLS question bank, ACLS megacode, ACLS pretest

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ACLS FINAL EXAM
Actual Questions and Answers
Expert-Verified explanation
This ACLS Certification Exam contains:
The ACLS Certification Exam has passing score of 90%
50 Questions and Answers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified explanation
Verified with trusted textbooks
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ACLS FINAL EXAM

Actual Questions and Answers

Expert-Verified explanation

This ACLS Certification Exam contains:

❖ The ACLS Certification Exam has passing score of 90%

❖ 50 Questions and Answers

❖ format set of multiple-choice

❖ Expert-Verified explanation

❖ Verified with trusted textbooks

1. Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm?

  • A. First-degree
  • B. Second-degree type I
  • C. Second-degree type II
  • D. Third-degree

****Answer:** C. Second-degree type II**

****Expert Explanation:**** Second-degree atrioventricular block type II, also known as Mobitz type II, typically shows a constant PR interval with sudden drops in QRS complexes. This can lead to significant bradycardia or asystole. Understanding the subtle differences between degrees of AV block is critical to effective management, particularly during cardiac emergencies (American Heart Association, 2020).

2. Your patient is in cardiac arrest and has been intubated. To assess

CPR quality, which should you do?

  • A. Monitor the patient's PETCO
  • C. Agonal gasps
  • D. Irregular, weak pulse rate

C. Agonal gasps**

****Expert Explanation:**** Agonal gasps are a sign of inadequate breathing and are often mistaken for normal respiration. They indicate severe neurological compromise, signaling a probable cardiac arrest and necessitating immediate intervention (Peberdy et al., 2010).

5. Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm?

  • A. Third-degree atrioventricular block
  • B. Second-degree atrioventricular block type I
  • C. First-degree atrioventricular block
  • D. Second-degree atrioventricular block type II

****Answer:** B. Second-degree atrioventricular block type I**

****Expert Explanation:**** Also known as Mobitz type I or Wenckebach, this block is characterized by progressively lengthening PR intervals until a QRS complex is dropped. Understanding these variations allows clinicians to predict potential deterioration in conduction and plan further actions (Cleveland Clinic, 2019).

6. To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do

you squeeze the bag?

  • A. Once every 3 to 4 seconds
  • B. Once every 5 to 6 seconds
  • C. Once every 10 seconds
  • D. Once every 12 seconds

****Answer:** B. Once every 5 to 6 seconds**

****Expert Explanation:**** In adults, the recommended ventilation rate is one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, corresponding to a general target of 10 to 12 breaths per minute. This rate helps avoid hyperventilation while maintaining adequate oxygenation (BLS Provider Manual, 2020).

7. In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method

to confirm and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube?

  • A. Arterial blood gases
  • B. Chest radiography
  • C. Continuous waveform capnography
  • C. Second-degree atrioventricular block type II
  • D. Third-degree atrioventricular block

****Answer:** D. Third-degree atrioventricular block**

****Expert Explanation:**** Third-degree atrioventricular block is characterized by complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular activity. Understanding the presence of complete heart block is vital for timely intervention to restore adequate perfusion (Zieman et al., 2012).

10. What is the recommended range from which a temperature should

be selected and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?

  • A. 26°C to 28°C
  • B. 29°C to 31°C
  • C. 32°C to 36°C
  • D. 37°C to 39°C

****Answer:** C. 32°C to 36°C**

****Expert Explanation:**** Targeted temperature management post-cardiac arrest helps mitigate neurological deficits and demonstrates improved outcomes. The optimal temperature range is between 32°C and 36°C for a duration of at least 24 hours (Nolan et al., 2015).

11. Which is the recommended first intravenous dose of amiodarone

for a patient with refractory ventricular fibrillation?

  • A. 100 mg
  • B. 150 mg
  • C. 250 mg
  • D. 300 mg

****Answer:** D. 300 mg**

****Expert Explanation:**** The recommended first dose of amiodarone for refractory ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia is 300 mg IV push. This high dose provides a significant likelihood of restoring normal rhythm in emergency settings (American Heart Association, 2020).

12. Which is the primary purpose of a medical emergency team or

rapid response team?

  • A. Improving care for patients admitted to critical care units
  • B. Improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration
  • C. Providing diagnostic consultation to emergency department patients
  • C. Review the patient's history
  • D. Treat hypertension

****Answer:** A. Alert the hospital**

****Expert Explanation:**** Early notification to the receiving hospital allows stroke teams to prepare for the patient's arrival, optimizing the treatment cascade and reducing overall treatment times (American Stroke Association, 2021).

15. A responder is caring for a patient with a history of congestive heart

failure. The patient is experiencing shortness of breath, a blood pressure of 68/50 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 190/min. Which best characterizes this patient's rhythm?

  • A. Perfusing ventricular tachycardia
  • B. Sinus tachycardia
  • C. Stable supraventricular tachycardia
  • D. Unstable supraventricular tachycardia

****Answer:** D. Unstable supraventricular tachycardia**

****Expert Explanation:**** The combination of low blood pressure and rapid heart rate indicates unstable SVT, where the patient’s compromised hemodynamics necessitate immediate interventions to stabilize them (American Heart Association, 2020).

16. Your rescue team arrives to find a 59-year-old man lying on the

kitchen floor. You determine that he is unresponsive. Which is the next step in your assessment and management of this patient?

  • A. Apply the AED
  • B. Check the patient's breathing and pulse
  • C. Open the patient's airway
  • D. Check for a medical alert bracelet

****Answer:** B. Check the patient's breathing and pulse**

****Expert Explanation:**** Confirming the patient’s unresponsiveness through checking for breathing and pulse is essential before initiating CPR or using an AED. This step helps you determine the immediate action (BLS Provider Manual, 2020).

19. What is an effect of excessive ventilation?

  • A. Decreased cardiac output
  • B. Decreased intrathoracic pressure
  • C. Increased perfusion pressures
  • D. Increased venous return

****Answer:** A. Decreased cardiac output**

****Expert Explanation:**** Hyperventilation can decrease venous return due to reduced intrathoracic pressure, leading to a drop in cardiac output and inadequate perfusion (BLS Provider Manual, 2020).

20. If a team member is about to make a mistake during a resuscitation

attempt, which best describes the action that the team leader or other team members should take?

  • A. Conduct a debriefing after the resuscitation attempt
  • B. Reassign the team tasks
  • C. Address the team member immediately
  • D. Remove the team member from the area

****Answer:** C. Address the team member immediately**

****Expert Explanation:**** Immediate intervention is crucial to patient safety during resuscitation. Swiftly correcting errors can prevent further complications and improve team dynamics (BLS Provider Manual, 2020).

21. Which best describes this rhythm?

  • A. Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
  • B. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
  • C. Supraventricular tachycardia
  • D. Ventricular fibrillation

****Answer:** A. Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia**

****Expert Explanation:**** Monomorphic VT shows consistent QRS complexes that indicate a single ectopic focus in the ventricle, important for guiding treatment approaches (Zipes & Jalife, 2014).

22. For STEMI patients, which best describes the recommended

maximum goal time for emergency department door-to-balloon inflation time for percutaneous coronary intervention?

  • A. 180 minutes
  • B. 150 minutes
  • D. Continue CPR while the defibrillator charges

****Answer:** D. Continue CPR while the defibrillator charges**

****Expert Explanation:**** Maintaining chest compressions during defibrillator charging enhances coronary perfusion and is recommended to improve overall outcomes (American Heart Association, 2020).

25. Which best describes an action taken by the team leader to avoid

inefficiencies during a resuscitation attempt?

  • A. Assign most tasks to the more experienced team members
  • B. Perform the most complicated tasks
  • C. Clearly delegate tasks
  • D. Assign the same tasks to more than one team member

****Answer:** C. Clearly delegate tasks**

****Expert Explanation:**** Clear delegation of tasks helps streamline actions within the team, ensuring everyone knows their responsibilities and can work effectively during emergencies (BLS Provider Manual, 2020).

26. Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized

oropharyngeal airway?

  • A. Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible
  • B. Measure from the thyroid cartilage to the bottom of the earlobe
  • C. Estimate by using the formula Weight (kg)/8 + 2
  • D. Estimate by using the size of the patient's finger

****Answer:** A. Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible**

****Expert Explanation:**** Correct sizing of an oropharyngeal airway is critical for maintaining airway patency. Measuring from the mouth to the mandible provides the best fit, preventing trauma and obstruction (American Heart Association, 2020).

27. You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with chest discomfort. His

blood pressure is 92/50 mm Hg, his heart rate is 92/min, his nonlabored respiratory rate is 14 breaths/min, and his pulse oximetry reading is 97%. Which assessment step is most important now?

  • A. Evaluating the PETCO2 reading
  • B. Requesting a chest x-ray
  • C. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG
  • D. Requesting laboratory testing

****Answer:** C. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG**

****Expert Explanation:**** A 12-lead ECG is crucial for identifying any acute coronary events, providing immediate guidance for appropriate acute management and interventions (American College of Cardiology, 2021).

28. A patient in respiratory distress and with a blood pressure of 70/

mm Hg presents with the lead ECG II shown here. Which is the appropriate treatment?

  • A. Administering adenosine 6 mg IV push
  • B. Performing synchronized cardioversion

****Expert Explanation:**** Maintaining targeted temperature management for at least 24 hours post-ROSC has been shown to improve neurological outcomes and reduce mortality (Nolan et al., 2015).

30. Three minutes into a cardiac arrest resuscitation attempt, one

member of your team inserts an endotracheal tube while another performs chest compressions. Capnography shows a persistent waveform and a PETCO2 of 8 mm Hg. What is the significance of this finding?

  • A. Chest compressions may not be effective
  • B. The endotracheal tube is in the esophagus
  • C. The patient meets the criteria for termination of efforts
  • D. The team is ventilating the patient too often (hyperventilation)

****Answer:** A. Chest compressions may not be effective**

****Expert Explanation:**** A low PETCO2 reading is indicative of inadequate chest compressions and poor perfusion. It can guide resuscitation efforts towards improving hemodynamic efficacy (American Heart Association, 2020).

31. Which is the recommended oral dose of aspirin for a patient with a

suspected acute coronary syndrome?

  • A. 40 mg
  • B. 81 mg
  • C. 160 to 325 mg
  • D. 350 to 650 mg

****Answer:** C. 160 to 325 mg**

****Expert Explanation:**** Aspirin is critical for preventing further platelet aggregation during an acute coronary syndrome episode, and the recommended dose can range from 160 to 325 mg depending on clinical guidelines (American Heart Association, 2020).

32. A team member is unable to perform an assigned task because it is

beyond their scope of practice. Which action should the team member take?

  • A. Ask for a new task or role
  • B. Assign it to another team member
  • C. Do it anyway
  • D. Seek expert advice

****Answer:** A. Ask for a new task or role**

****Expert Explanation:**** It is essential for team members to understand their limitations and to seek clarification regarding assigned tasks to ensure patient safety and effective teamwork (Institute for Healthcare Improvement, 2014).

33. As the team leader, when do you tell the chest compressors to

switch?

  • A. Only when they tell you that they are fatigued
  • B. About every 2 minutes
  • C. About every 5 minutes