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ALBERTA PROJECT MANAGER EXAM|
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Question 1 What is the primary purpose of project integration management? A. Managing payroll B. Coordinating all project components into a unified plan C. Hiring staff only D. Cost cutting only Correct Answer: B Rationale: Integration management ensures all project elements work together cohesively. Question 2 What is a project charter? A. Financial report B. Document authorizing the project and defining objectives C. Work schedule D. Risk log Correct Answer: B Rationale: A charter formally authorizes project initiation. Question 3 Who typically approves the project charter? A. Project team B. Project sponsor C. HR manager D. Accountant Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The sponsor provides formal authorization and funding. Question 4 What is project scope? A. Budget only B. Defined work required to complete the project C. Employee schedule D. Risk analysis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Scope defines what is included and excluded. Question 5 What is scope creep? A. Budget savings B. Uncontrolled expansion of project scope C. Risk reduction D. Schedule improvement Correct Answer: B Rationale: Scope creep occurs when requirements increase without approval. Question 6 What is Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? A. Budget tool B. Hierarchical decomposition of project work C. Risk register D. Contract document Correct Answer: B Rationale: WBS breaks work into manageable components.
Question 10 What is project constraint? A. Opportunity B. Limiting factor such as time, cost, or scope C. Bonus system D. Investment gain Correct Answer: B Rationale: Constraints restrict project flexibility. Question 11 What are the three core project constraints? A. HR, finance, marketing B. Scope, time, cost C. Risk, quality, communication D. Supply, demand, profit Correct Answer: B Rationale: Known as the project management triangle. Question 12 What is project deliverable? A. Budget report B. Tangible or intangible output C. Risk document D. Payroll file Correct Answer: B Rationale: Deliverables are project outputs. Question 13 What is project milestone?
A. Budget target B. Significant project checkpoint C. Payroll stage D. Risk event Correct Answer: B Rationale: Milestones mark key progress points. Question 14 What is rolling wave planning? A. Final planning only B. Progressive elaboration of plans C. Budget freeze D. Risk elimination Correct Answer: B Rationale: Planning is refined as project progresses. Question 15 What is expert judgment in project planning? A. Guessing B. Using experienced professionals’ input C. Automated calculation D. Payroll analysis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Expert input improves planning accuracy. Question 16 What is change control process? A. Hiring process B. Formal approval of project changes
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Governance ensures accountability and structure. Question 20 What is project management plan? A. Financial statement B. Comprehensive document guiding project execution C. Payroll report D. Risk log only Correct Answer: B Rationale: It integrates all subsidiary plans. Question 21 What is scope validation? A. Budget approval B. Formal acceptance of deliverables C. Risk analysis D. Hiring approval Correct Answer: B Rationale: Stakeholders confirm completed work. Question 22 What is product scope? A. Project cost B. Features and functions of the deliverable C. Team structure D. Schedule only Correct Answer: B Rationale: Defines what the product must do.
Question 23 What is project initiation? A. Closure phase B. Defining and authorizing project start C. Payroll phase D. Risk elimination Correct Answer: B Rationale: Initiation formally starts the project. Question 24 What is planning phase objective? A. End project B. Define how objectives will be achieved C. Hire staff only D. Conduct audit Correct Answer: B Rationale: Planning establishes roadmap. Question 25 What is execution phase? A. Planning only B. Performing project work C. Closing documentation D. Risk analysis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Execution involves carrying out the plan.
A. Independent factors B. Change in one constraint affects others C. Payroll rule D. HR policy Correct Answer: B Rationale: Time, cost, and scope are interdependent. Question 30 What is ultimate purpose of project integration? A. Separate systems B. Align all project components toward success C. Increase risk D. Reduce planning Correct Answer: B Rationale: Integration ensures cohesive project delivery. Question 31 What is the primary purpose of a project schedule? A. Track employee payroll B. Define task timelines and sequencing C. Approve budgets D. Assign job titles Correct Answer: B Rationale: A schedule organizes tasks over time to ensure timely project completion. Question 32 What is the critical path in project management? A. Cheapest set of tasks B. Longest sequence of dependent tasks determining project duration
C. Optional tasks D. Risk management plan Correct Answer: B Rationale: The critical path determines the shortest possible project duration. Question 33 What happens if a task on the critical path is delayed? A. No impact B. Project completion is delayed C. Budget decreases D. Scope reduces automatically Correct Answer: B Rationale: Delays on the critical path directly affect project finish date. Question 34 What is float (slack)? A. Extra budget B. Amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting project timeline C. Risk factor D. Resource cost Correct Answer: B Rationale: Float provides scheduling flexibility. Question 35 What is Gantt chart used for? A. Risk analysis B. Visualizing project schedule and progress
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Overruns indicate poor cost control. Question 39 What is earned value management (EVM)? A. Payroll tracking B. Method measuring project performance in cost and schedule C. HR system D. Risk elimination tool Correct Answer: B Rationale: EVM integrates scope, schedule, and cost performance. Question 40 What is planned value (PV)? A. Actual cost B. Budgeted cost of scheduled work C. Profit value D. Risk value Correct Answer: B Rationale: PV represents planned work value. Question 41 What is earned value (EV)? A. Budgeted cost of completed work B. Actual expenses C. Forecasted revenue D. Risk exposure Correct Answer: A Rationale: EV measures completed work value.
Question 42 What is actual cost (AC)? A. Planned budget B. Real cost incurred C. Estimated revenue D. Risk cost Correct Answer: B Rationale: AC reflects actual spending. Question 43 What is schedule variance (SV)? A. EV - PV B. AC - EV C. PV - AC D. Budget difference only Correct Answer: A Rationale: SV measures schedule performance. Question 44 What is cost variance (CV)? A. EV - AC B. PV - EV C. AC - PV D. Total budget Correct Answer: A Rationale: CV measures cost performance.
A. Ignoring risk B. Reducing probability or impact of risk C. Increasing risk D. Transferring employees Correct Answer: B Rationale: Mitigation reduces risk severity. Question 49 What is risk avoidance? A. Accepting risk B. Eliminating risk by changing plan C. Increasing exposure D. Transferring cost Correct Answer: B Rationale: Avoidance removes the risk entirely. Question 50 What is risk transfer? A. Ignoring risk B. Shifting risk to third party C. Increasing risk D. Accepting loss Correct Answer: B Rationale: Insurance is a common risk transfer method. Question 51 What is risk acceptance? A. Eliminating risk B. Acknowledging and accepting risk consequences
C. Reducing scope D. Increasing cost Correct Answer: B Rationale: Some risks are accepted when mitigation is not feasible. Question 52 What is resource leveling? A. Increasing budget B. Adjusting schedule to balance resource usage C. Eliminating tasks D. Hiring process Correct Answer: B Rationale: Balances workload to avoid over-allocation. Question 53 What is resource allocation? A. Budget distribution B. Assigning resources to tasks C. Risk reduction D. Payroll management Correct Answer: B Rationale: Resources are assigned based on project needs. Question 54 What is project crashing? A. Eliminating tasks B. Reducing project duration by adding resources C. Increasing risk D. Reducing scope automatically
Question 58 What is cost-reimbursable contract? A. Fixed payment B. Payment for actual costs plus fee C. No payment D. Bonus-only contract Correct Answer: B Rationale: Buyer reimburses seller for costs incurred. Question 59 What is procurement risk? A. Employee turnover B. Supplier failure or delay C. Tax increase D. HR conflict Correct Answer: B Rationale: Procurement risks affect project delivery. Question 60 What is ultimate goal of scheduling and cost control? A. Increase project complexity B. Deliver project on time, within budget, and within scope C. Increase risks D. Delay completion Correct Answer: B Rationale: Successful projects meet time, cost, and scope targets. Question 61 What is stakeholder management?
A. Managing payroll distribution B. Identifying, analyzing, and engaging project stakeholders C. Scheduling tasks only D. Cost reduction strategy Correct Answer: B Rationale: Stakeholder management ensures expectations are understood and managed throughout the project. Question 62 What is a project stakeholder? A. Only the project manager B. Any individual or group affected by the project C. Only investors D. Only HR staff Correct Answer: B Rationale: Stakeholders include anyone impacted by project outcomes. Question 63 What is stakeholder analysis? A. Budget review B. Identifying stakeholder influence and interest C. Risk elimination D. Payroll audit Correct Answer: B Rationale: Helps prioritize stakeholder engagement strategies. Question 64 What is a high-power, high-interest stakeholder strategy? A. Ignore them B. Manage closely and actively engage
