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AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
(VERIFIED REVISED FULL EXAM)
1. There are three types of wound healing. Choose the option that describes
secondary intention.A
A. The wound is approximated with no wound separation.
B. The wound is cleaned, debriefed and packed.
C. The wound is vascularized.
D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation
Ans>> D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation
2. An example of a simple drain is
Ans>> Penrose drain
3. Which statement is an accurate description of negative pressure wound
therapy?
A. Applies constant, positive wound pressure.
B. Promotes wound contracture.
A. Elective surgery is postponed until test confirm that the patient is not
infectious.
B. Room access is restricted until 95% of airborne particles have been filtered.
C. A multi-use bacterial filter is used on either the breathing circuit or endo-
tracheal tube.
D. The Center for Disease Control and Prevention and the AORN endorse the use of
powered air-purifying respirators during surgical procedures. Ans>> A. Elective surgery is postponed until test confirm that the patient is not infectious.
7. 1. Which statement is included in the Occupational Safety and Health Ad-
ministration' Bloodborne Pathogeon's Standards?
A. Food is permissible in restricted areas or semi-restricted areas.
B. Personnel working in restricted and semi-restricted areas should apply lip
balm to avoid cracked lips.
C. Personnel should wash their hands with soap after direct contact with blood,
bodily fluids or other potentially infectious materials.
D. Education on occupational exposure should be provided to healthcare
personnel ever 2 years. Ans>> C. Personnel should wash their hands with soap after direct contact with blood, bodily fluids or other potentially infectious materials.
8. Choose the option that describes the personal protective equipment (PPE)
necessary for healthcare personnel transporting a patient that requires con- tact precautions
A. PPE is required for all team members for each patient transport.
B. PPE is not required for patient transport.
C. PPE is required for all team members when patient transport is necessary.
D. PPE is required for designated team member when direct contact is neces- sary.
Ans>> B. PPE is not required for patient transport.
9. 1. Choose the term that describes the amount of the virus that is found in the
individual's blood.
A. Viral shedding.
B. Viral load.
C. Viral replication.
Ans>> B. Viral load
10. 1. Which element of the chain of infection describes a microorganism after exiting
an infectious reservoir?
A. Mode of transmission.
B. Susceptible host.
C. Portal of entry.
D. Infectious agent.
Ans>> A. Mode of transmission
11. 1. Which gowning and gloving action would a scrub nurse preform?
A. Changing gloves every 90-150 minutes or after contact with bone cement.
B. Drying arms and hands by waving them in the air.
C. Gloving after team members only when the hand is exposed and the sterile gown
cuff is at the wrist.
D. Wearing double gloves that are extra loose to avoid numbness.
Ans>> A. Changing gloves every 90-150 minutes or after contact with bone cement.
12. 1. Which barrier level gown would you choose if you anticipated high risk of
exposure?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
Ans>> D. Level 4
13. 1. Which of the following statements regarding surgical attire is COR- RECT?
A. Personnel don a head covering before entering unrestricted areas.
B. Masks are required in semi-restricted areas.
C. Personnel remove all hand and wrist jewelry before preforming hand hy- giene.
D. Beard covers are only required in restricted areas.
Ans>> C. Personnel remove all hand and wrist jewelry before preforming hand hygiene.
14. 1. Which of the following statements regarding hand hygiene is INCOR- RECT?
A. Fingernails should be kept short and clean.
B. Personnel should follow the facility's policy and procedure regarding the use of
nail polish.
C. Hand hygiene is the single most effective infection prevention action.
D. Personnel should use personal hand lotion to maintain their skin integrity.-
Ans>> D. Personnel should use personal hand lotion to maintain their skin integrity.
15. 1. Knowing instrument names helps with
A. The count process
B. Predicting the next steps of the operative procedure.
C. Increasing time in the OR.
A. Robotic instruments are similar to laparoscopic instruments.
B. The robotic arms are part of the surgeon's consul.
C. The video cart contains equipment such as the camera monitor and light source.
D. The operating surgeon has control of the robotic instrument, camera and scope.
Ans>> B. The robotic arms are part of the surgeon's consul.
19. 1. A consideration that would NOT be considered in instrument assembly is
A. A patient population.
B. Type of surgery.
C. Tray weights.
D. Scheduling conflicts. Ans>>
D. Scheduling conflicts.
20. 1. Which of the following sterile towels is considered a drape?
A. Disposable cloth towels.
B. Reusable cloth towels.
C. Skin prep towel.
D. Impervious towel. Ans>>
D. Impervious towel.
21. 1. Before a central venous catheter insertion, the provider should
A. Use an area specific plastic drape.
B. Don a long sleeved jacket.
C. Don sterile gown and gloves.
D. Wipe the area with an alcohol wipe.
Ans>> C. Don sterile gown and gloves.
22. 1. Which statement about draping the sterile field is INCORRECT?
A. Scrubbed personnel remove and replace their gloves after draping.
B. There is an increased risk for contamination of the sterile personnel's gown and
gloves when dropping the sterile field.
C. The unscrubbed team member last apply the sterile drapes to create a sterile
field.
D. The draping process is carefully monitored by all team members.
Ans>> C. The unscrubbed team member last apply the sterile drapes to create a sterile field.
23. 1. The purpose of the surgical drape is to
A. Reduce the risk of hospital acquired infections.
B. Cover furniture for use by non-sterile personnel.
C. Allow the passage microbes between unsterile and sterile areas.
D. Provide a two sided sterile barrier.
Ans>> A. Reduce the risk of hospital acquired infections.
24. 1. Which of the following is a traffic rule that the scrub person should
observe?
A. Turn their back to the sterile field to get an instrument.
A. The neck to below the natural waist.
B. The chest to the level of the sterile field.
C. The shoulder to the proximal edge of the cuff.
D. 2 inches above the elbow to the distal edge of the cuff.
Ans>> B. The chest to the level of the sterile field.
29. 1. Instrument sets MUST not weigh more than
Ans>> 25lbs
30. 1. Choose the option that does NOT accurately depict concepts of imme- diate
use steam sterilization (IUSS).
A. An instrument for IUSS should be cleaned in the scrub sink.
B. A rigid enclosed container is used for IUSS cycle.
C. A biological indicator is run with an implant load.
D. Items are not stored for future procedures.
Ans>> A. An instrument for IUSS should be cleaned in the scrub sink.
31. 1. Which is an accurate statement regarding shelf-life?
A. A shelf-life is event related.
B. Shelf-life is time related.
C. Shelf-life is not affected by handling.
D. Shelf-life is not affected by storage temperature.
Ans>> A. A shelf-life is event related.
32. 1. Which statement related to biological indicators (BI) testing is true?
A. An unprocessed BI vial should produce a positive test after incubation.
B. Both BI vials are placed in the sterilizer together.
C. A sterilizer quality test is performed at least every six months.
D. Any BI type can be used for any sterilization method.
Ans>> A. An unprocessed BI vial should produce a positive test after incubation.
33. 1. Why is water temperature an important consideration when cleaning
instruments?
A. Cool water makes it harder to removed soil from the instrument cervices.
B. Cool water prevents blood coagulation.
C. Hot water makes blood easier to remove.
D. Hot water is the preferred temperature for manufactures.
Ans>> B. Cool water prevents blood coagulation.
34. 1. Personnel establishing the chain of custody for forensic evidence must do all
EXCEPT the following?
A. Adhere to regulatory requirements for evidence admission into a court of law.
B. Detail who collected the specimen and how it was handled.
C. Have accompanying documentation when the evidence is released to a law officer.
D. Store evidence in a personal locker until it can be handed over to the law officer.
Ans>> D. Store evidence in a personal locker until it can be handed over to the law officer.
D. Immerse the specimen into preservative until further instruction.
Ans>> C. Confirm the type of test that is be requested with the surgeon.
37. 1. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action for specimen han- dling on
the sterile field?
A. Cover the specimen or place in a sterile specimen container.
B. Label the covered or contained specimen.
C. Ensure that the specimen stays dry until the transfer off the sterile field.
D. Handle the specimen as little as possible.
Ans>> C. Ensure that the specimen stays dry until the transfer off the sterile field.
38. 1. The specimen transport container should
A. Display the patient's information for ease of specimen hand-over.
B. Have a biohazard label for fresh or frozen specimens only.
C. Be stored in the operating room until the specimen can be transported to the
pathology department.
D. Protect the integrity of the specimen.
Ans>> D. Protect the integrity of the specimen.
39. 1. Specimen management errors can result in
A. A lower incident of morbidity.
B. Potential litigation.
C. Increase in community trust.
D. Faster diagnostic results.
Ans>> B. Potential litigation.
40. 1. Which of the following is NOT a laser safety precaution?
A. Appropriate wave length eyewear is placed at the room's entrance.
B. The laser is kept in the active mode throughout the procedure.
C. Windows are covered prior to use.
D. The laser is tested before use.
Ans>> B. The laser is kept in the active mode through- out the procedure.
41. 1. A monopolar electrosurgical intervention for the patient with an implant- ed
electrical device (IED) is
A. Placement of the dispersive pad as close to the IED as possible.
B. Use of the ESU at the highest power setting for faster application.
C. Verification of the IED and its leads are between the ESU pencil and the
dispersive pad.
D. Inactivation of the IEU, when possible.
Ans>> D. Inactivation of the IEU, when possible.
42. 1. Disposable dispersive pads are
A. Multi-use.
B. Stamped with an expiration date.
C. Opened and adhered to the electro surgical unit cart handle during set-up.
D. Cut to size for pediatric patients.
Ans>> B. Stamped with an expiration date.
Ans>> D. Hypersensitivity.
47. 1. Choose the correct statement about general preoperative skin antisep- sis
application measure.
A. Dilute prep solutions to avoid patient chemical burns.
B. Allow position devices to absorb additional prep solution.
C. Apply the antiseptic to an area larger than the intended incisional site.
D. Begin the prep during patient positioning.
Ans>> C. Apply the antiseptic to an area larger than the intended incisional site.
48. 1. Which preoperative assessment option is NOT correct?
A. Discussion the presence of abrasions or lesions with the surgeon
B. Identify the most appropriate skin prep solution with the surgeon in the event
of a patient allergy
C. Check that the surgical site marking is visible after the prep is completed
D. Instruct the patient not to remove jewelry prior to surgery
Ans>> D. Instruct the patient not to remove jewelry prior to surgery
49. 1. Skin antisepsis products can be flammable. Which of the following
measures is NOT a recommended action?
A. Use towels to absorb solution accumulation during application
B. Warm the product before use
C. Allow the skin antiseptic to dry completely before draping
D. Clip hair at the surgical site before product application
Ans>> B. Warm the product before use
50. 1. Fall prevention in the OR includes
A. Using an OR bed rated for the patient's weight
B. Leaving the patient unattended while gathering supplies outside of the OR
C. Placing the patient safety strap 3" above the patient's knees
D. Unlocking the stretcher before the patient transfer to the OR bed
Ans>> A. Using an OR bed rated for the patient's weight
51. 1. LAST is a patient medical emergency that occurs when
A. A sedative bolus is injected intravenously
B. The airway is occluded
C. The local anesthetic blood threshold is exceeded
D. An unintended hypothermic event occurs Ans>>
C. The local anesthetic blood threshold is exceeded
52. 1. Surgical fires can occur on or in the patient in which element of the fire triangle
does a laser or electrical surgical device belong?
A. Fuel source
B. Ignition source
C. Oxidant source
D. Chemical source Ans>>
B. Ignition source
