AP Bio Organic Practice Test, Study notes of Organic Chemistry

AP Bio Organic Practice Test. Multiple Choice. Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

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AP Bio Organic Practice Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient
energy, a possible result is that
a.
an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.
b.
an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
c.
the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
d.
the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.
e.
the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.
____ 2. Atoms whose outer electron shells contain eight electrons tend to
a.
form ionic bonds in aqueous solutions.
b.
form covalent bonds in aqueous solutions.
c.
be stable and chemically nonreactive, or inert.
d.
be unstable and chemically very reactive.
e.
be isotopes and very radioactive.
Use the information extracted from the periodic table in Figure 2.2 to answer the following
questions.
Figure 2.2
____ 3. Based on electron configuration, which of these elements would exhibit chemical behavior most like
that of oxygen?
a.
carbon
b.
hydrogen
c.
nitrogen
d.
sulfur
e.
phosphorus
____ 4. Nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements is
correct about the atoms in ammonia ( )?
a.
Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge.
b.
The nitrogen atom has a strong positive charge.
c.
Each hydrogen atom has a slight negative charge.
d.
The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge.
e.
There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms.
____ 5. When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form
a.
equal numbers of isotopes.
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AP Bio Organic Practice Test

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient

energy, a possible result is that

a. an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.

b. an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.

c. the atom may become a radioactive isotope.

d. the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.

e. the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.

____ 2. Atoms whose outer electron shells contain eight electrons tend to

a. form ionic bonds in aqueous solutions.

b. form covalent bonds in aqueous solutions.

c. be stable and chemically nonreactive, or inert.

d. be unstable and chemically very reactive.

e. be isotopes and very radioactive.

Use the information extracted from the periodic table in Figure 2.2 to answer the following

questions.

Figure 2.

____ 3. Based on electron configuration, which of these elements would exhibit chemical behavior most like

that of oxygen?

a. carbon

b. hydrogen

c. nitrogen

d. sulfur

e. phosphorus

____ 4. Nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements is

correct about the atoms in ammonia ( )?

a. Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge.

b. The nitrogen atom has a strong positive charge.

c. Each hydrogen atom has a slight negative charge.

d. The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge.

e. There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms.

____ 5. When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form

a. equal numbers of isotopes.

b. ions.

c. polar covalent bonds.

d. nonpolar covalent bonds.

e. ionic bonds.

____ 6. What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?

a. a nonpolar covalent bond

b. a polar covalent bond

c. an ionic bond

d. a hydrogen bond

e. a hydrophobic interaction

____ 7. A covalent bond is likely to be polar when

a. one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other

atom.

b. the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.

c. the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same element.

d. it is between two atoms that are both very strong electron acceptors.

e. the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.

____ 8. Which of the following molecules contains the strongest polar covalent bond?

a. b. c. d. e.

____ 9. Which of the following explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another?

a. nonpolar covalent bond

b. polar covalent bond

c. ionic bond

d. hydrogen bond

e. hydrophobic interaction

____ 10. Which of the following is not considered to be a weak molecular interaction?

a. a covalent bond

b. a van der Waals interaction

c. an ionic bond in the presence of water

d. a hydrogen bond

e. A and B only

____ 11. Which of the following best describes chemical equilibrium?

a. Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the

reactants and products.

b. Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants.

c. Forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the

reactants equals the concentration of the products.

c. the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent

bonds.

d. the oxygen atom in a water molecule has a weak positive charge.

e. each of the hydrogen atoms in a water molecule is weakly negative in charge.

____ 18. What gives rise to the cohesiveness of water molecules?

a. hydrophobic interactions

b. nonpolar covalent bonds

c. ionic bonds

d. hydrogen bonds

e. both A and C

____ 19. Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water?

a. Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.

b. A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.

c. Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical

reactions. D) Water can act as a solvent.

d. The pH of water remains exactly neutral.

____ 20. Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?

a. Molecular collisions in the drink increase.

b. Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.

c. A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.

d. The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.

e. Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.

____ 21. Water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the

a. small size of the water molecules.

b. high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.

c. absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.

d. fact that water is a poor heat conductor.

e. inability of water to dissipate heat into dry air.

____ 22. Why does ice float in liquid water?

a. The liquid water molecules have more kinetic energy and thus support the ice.

b. The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.

c. Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.

d. Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the

water molecules of liquid water.

e. The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.

____ 23. The following question is based on Figure 3.1: solute molecule surrounded by a hydration shell of

water.

Figure 3.

Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule is most likely

a. positively charged.

b. negatively charged.

c. without charge.

d. hydrophobic.

e. nonpolar.

____ 24. Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are

a. nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.

b. nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules.

c. polar substances that repel water molecules.

d. polar substances that have an affinity for water.

e. charged molecules that hydrogen-bond with water molecules.

____ 25. The molar mass of glucose ( ) is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you

carry out to make a 0.5 M solution of glucose?

a. Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water

until the total volume of solution is 1 L.

b. Dissolve 90 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until

the total volume of the solution is 1 L.

c. Dissolve 180 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water

until the total volume of the solution is 1 L.

d. Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in 1 L of water.

e. Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water.

____ 26. A small birthday candle is weighed, then lighted and placed beneath a metal can containing 100 mL

of water. Careful records are kept as the temperature of the water rises. Data from this experiment

are shown on the graph. What amount of heat energy is released in the burning of candle wax?

d. e.

____ 28. A given solution contains 0.0001(10 ) moles of hydrogen ions [H ] per liter. Which of the

following best describes this solution?

a. acidic: H acceptor

b. basic: H acceptor

c. acidic: H donor

d. basic: H donor

e. neutral

____ 29. Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions [H ]?

a. gastric juice at pH 2

b. vinegar at pH 3

c. tomato juice at pH 4

d. black coffee at pH 5

e. household bleach at pH 12

____ 30. Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxyl ions [OH ]?

a. lemon juice at pH 2

b. vinegar at pH 3

c. tomato juice at pH 4

d. urine at pH 6

e. seawater at pH 8

____ 31. Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?

a. They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are

added to them.

b. They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are

added to them.

c. They maintain a constant pH of exactly 7 in all living cells and biological fluids.

d. They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to

them.

e. They are found only in living systems and biological fluids.

____ 32. Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by

a.

releasing H in acidic solutions.

b.

donating H to a solution when they have been depleted.

c. releasing OH in basic solutions.

d. accepting H when the are in excess.

e. Both B and D are correct.

____ 33. One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid. Carbonic

acid is a weak acid that when placed in an aqueous solution dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO

) and a hydrogen ion (H ). Thus,

If the pH of the blood increases, one would expect

a. a decrease in the concentration of and an increase in the concentration of

b. an increase in the concentration of and a decrease in the concentration of

c. a decrease in the concentration of and an increase in the concentration of

d. an increase in the concentration of and a decrease in the concentration of

____ 34. Research indicates that acid precipitation can damage living organisms by

a. buffering aquatic systems such as lakes and streams.

b.

decreasing the H concentration of lakes and streams.

c.

increasing the OH concentration of lakes and streams.

d. washing away certain mineral ions that help buffer soil solution and are essential

nutrients for plant growth.

e. both B and C

____ 35. Carbon dioxide (CO ) is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO + H O H CO.

Carbonic acid (H CO ) is a weak acid. Respiring cells release CO. What prediction can we make

about the pH of blood as that blood first comes in contact with respiring cells?

a. Blood pH will decrease slightly.

b. Blood pH will increase slightly.

c. Blood pH will remain unchanged.

d. Blood pH will first increase, then decrease as CO combines with hemoglobin.

e. They are lighter than water.

____ 41.

Figure 4.

What is the name of the functional group shown in Figure 4.4?

a. carbonyl

b. ketone

c. aldehyde

d. carboxyl

e. hydroxyl

____ 42. Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen?

a. an alcohol such as ethanol

b. a monosaccharide such as glucose

c. a steroid such as testosterone

d. an amino acid such as glycine

e. a hydrocarbon such as benzene

____ 43. Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?

a. ketone and aldehyde

b. carbonyl and carboxyl

c. carboxyl and amino

d. phosphate and sulfhydryl

e. hydroxyl and aldehyde

____ 44. Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional group?

a. amino

b. carbonyl

c. carboxyl

d. sulfhydryl

e. aldehyde

____ 45. Which functional groups can act as acids?

a. amine and sulfhydryl

b. carbonyl and carboxyl

c. carboxyl and phosphate

d. hydroxyl and aldehyde

e. ketone and amino

The following questions refer to the structures shown in Figure 4.5.

Figure 4.

____ 46. Which of the structures is an impossible covalently bonded molecule?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

e. E

____ 47. What is the chemical mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?

a. phosphodiester linkages

b. hydrolysis

c. dehydration reactions

d. ionic bonding of monomers

e. the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers

____ 48. How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is 11 monomers

long?

a. 12

b. 11

c. 10

d. 9

e. 8

____ 49. A molecule with the chemical formula C 6 H 12 O 6 is probably a

a. carbohydrate.

b. lipid.

c. monosaccharide

d. carbohydrate and lipid only.

e. carbohydrate and monosaccharide only.

____ 50. Which of the following is true of cellulose?

a. It is a polymer composed of sucrose monomers.

b. It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells.

c. It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in animal cells.

d. It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.

e. It is a major structural component of animal cell plasma membranes.

____ 51. Which of the following statements is false for the class of biological molecules known as lipids?

a. They are soluble in water.

b. They are an important constituent of cell membranes.

a. 101

b. 100

c. 99

d. 98

e. 97

____ 58. Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?

a. peptide bonds

b. hydrogen bonds

c. disulfide bonds

d. phosphodiester bonds

e. A, B, and C

____ 59. Which type of interaction stabilizes the alpha (α) helix and the beta (β) pleated sheet structures of

proteins?

a. hydrophobic interactions

b. nonpolar covalent bonds

c. ionic bonds

d. hydrogen bonds

e. peptide bonds

____ 60. The tertiary structure of a protein is the

a. bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.

b. order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain.

c. unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.

d. organization of a polypeptide chain into an α helix or β pleated sheet.

e. overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide

subunits.

____ 61. A strong covalent bond between amino acids that functions in maintaining a polypeptide's specific

three-dimensional shape is a (an)

a. ionic bond.

b. hydrophobic interaction.

c. van der Waals interaction.

d. disulfide bond.

e. hydrogen bond.

____ 62. At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R groups) most

important?

a. primary

b. secondary

c. tertiary

d. quaternary

e. all of the above

____ 63. What would be an unexpected consequence of changing one amino acid in a protein consisting of

325 amino acids?

a. The primary structure of the protein would be changed.

b. The tertiary structure of the protein might be changed.

c. The biological activity or function of the protein might be altered.

d. Only A and C are correct.

e. A, B, and C are correct.

____ 64. Altering which of the following levels of structural organization could change the function of a

protein?

a. primary

b. secondary

c. tertiary

d. quaternary

e. all of the above

____ 65. What is the term used for a protein molecule that assists in the proper folding of other proteins?

a. tertiary protein

b. chaperonin

c. enzyme protein

d. renaturing protein

e. denaturing protein

____ 66. Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?

a. the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of

water

b. the synthesis of two amino acids, forming a peptide with the release of water

c. the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water

d. the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the utilization of water

e. the synthesis of a nucleotide from a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous

base with the production of a molecule of water

The following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated in Figure 5.8. Each molecule may

be used once, more than once, or not at all.

b. secondary level.

c. tertiary level.

d. quaternary level.

e. All structural levels are equally affected.

Short Answer

Refer to Figure 5.6 to answer the following questions.

Figure 5.

70. At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its

component amino acid?

71. Which bond is closest to the N-terminus of the molecule?

72. Which bond is closest to the carboxyl end of the molecule?

AP Bio Organic Practice Test

Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

  1. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  2. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  3. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
  4. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  5. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  6. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  7. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  8. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  9. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  10. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  11. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  12. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  13. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.4 SKL: Application/Analysis
  14. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions
  15. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  16. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.1 SKL: Application/Analysis
  17. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  18. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  19. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
  20. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
  21. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
  22. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
  23. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
  24. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  25. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
  26. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation
  27. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation
  28. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Application/Analysis
  29. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  30. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Application/Analysis
  31. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  32. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  33. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Application/Analysis
  34. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  35. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation
  36. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions
  37. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions
  38. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions
  39. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 4.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
  40. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 4.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension