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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD – Complete APEA Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) Certification Exam Review Questions Bank for the 2026/2027 academic year. Includes high-yield practice MCQs with expert explanations covering primary care, pharmacology, infectious diseases, psychiatric disorders, and clinical decision-making. Ideal for FNP students preparing for certification exams and strengthening board exam readiness. APEA FNP exam questions, APEA FNP QBank, FNP certification exam review, APEA FNP practice questions, family nurse practitioner exam prep, APEA FNP study guide, FNP board exam questions, APEA nurse practitioner review, FNP certification practice test, nurse practitioner board exam prep, APEA FNP answers, family NP exam questions, FNP clinical exam practice, APEA FNP test bank, nurse practitioner certification review, FNP exam preparation, advanced practice nursing exam, APEA FNP MCQs, family nurse practitioner study guide, FNP board review questions, nurse practitioner exam questions
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a comprehensive list of practice questions for the APEA FNP certification exam. These resources are designed to help advanced practice nursing students prepare for their exams
providing questions & expert answers How do patients with aortic regurgitation typically present? Correct Answer: they will have a long asymptomatic period followed by exercise intolerance, then dyspnea at rest. The left ventricle eventually fails unless the aortic valve is replaced. What does the rash of fifth disease (a viral exanthem) look like? Correct Answer: maculopapular rash that blanches easily and may be accompanied by joint aches What cardiac abnormalities are expected to be heard on auscultation of a pregnant patient? Correct Answer: a venous hum murmur and an S Gestational diabetes screening occurs between what weeks gestation? Correct Answer: 24 - 48 When you ask the patient to take a deep breath in and then palpate over the RUQ abdomen. Positive when pain is elicited. This is a sign of ___________. Correct Answer: Murphy's sign; cholecystitis
Within 6 months of being started on a TCA or SSRI, what is a common side effect that occurs? Correct Answer: weight gain When does otitis media with effusion usually occur? Correct Answer: either before or after an episode of acute otitis media. This effusion is not infected fluid but it is considered a breeding ground for bacteria. This should not be treated with antibiotics. The medical term for jock itch Correct Answer: tinea cruris Tinea cruris "jock itch" is a common __________ infection and should be treated with what? Correct Answer: fungal; OTC antifungal cream What are teaching points for males to avoid contracting tinea cruris? Correct Answer: dry off after swimming and don't stay in a wet bathing suit Tinea cruris can affect the inner thighs but never what else? Correct Answer: the penis or scrotum
On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence of a bacterial infection? Correct Answer: cocci and rods On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence of a candidal infection? Correct Answer: yeasts What are dermatophytes? Correct Answer: fungi On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence of a dermatophytic (fungal) infection? Correct Answer: hyphae that are long, thin, and branching (such as in the case of tinea pedis, tinea cruris, and tinea corporis) The medical term for ringworm Correct Answer: tinea corporis What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia in peds? Correct Answer: RSV Viral pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia in children of what ages? Correct Answer: 6 months to 5 years
The only type of incontinence that would not benefit from pelvic floor therapy is what? Correct Answer: overflow incontinence What do the skin manifestations of a penicillin allergy look like? Correct Answer: hives What are symptoms that someone will experience as soon as they are started on a SSRI and when will this resolve? Correct Answer: headache, nausea, insomnia, restlessness, agitation; will resolve in 2 weeks What causes the dry cough in people taking an ACEI? Correct Answer: the buildup of bradykinin which is usually degraded by ACE ACEI induced coughs usually begin how soon after starting the medication? Correct Answer: within 2 weeks COPD is often associated with what sequelae? Correct Answer: anxiety and depression When should an antiviral be started in a patient with shingles? Correct Answer: within 72 hours of the onset of symptoms
What is the drug of choice for treating UTIs in male patients? Correct Answer: bactrim for 7-10 days What is the leading cause of CKD and ESRD in the united states? Correct Answer: diabetes What is the usual recommendation about administering MMR and varicella immunizations? Correct Answer: they should be given on the same day or at least one month apart What are the classic symptoms of an atopic pregnancy? Correct Answer: amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain What is sideroblastic anemia? Correct Answer: when the bone marrow is unable to incorporate iron into hemoglobin. This may be either inherited or acquired. Can a pregnant woman get the MMR vaccine while pregnant? Correct Answer: yes Why are the carotid arteries auscultated for bruits? Correct Answer: this is indicative of generalized atherosclerosis
The inability to name a familiar object Correct Answer: anomia What happens to a womans vital signs when she is in her second trimester of pregnancy? Correct Answer: her blood pressure decreases What is the most common cause of acute pharyngitis in children? Correct Answer: respiratory viruses A depressed patient is started on an SSRI. When should another antidepressant be tried if there is no response? Correct Answer: 8 - 12 weeks If the number of bacteria on a urinalysis are greater than ____________________, this is indicative of a UTI. Correct Answer: 100, What are signs of a ruptured TM other than the obviously ruptured TM? Correct Answer: muffled hearing and bright red blood in the canal Osgood Schlatter disease produces pain where? Correct Answer: in the knees
Growing pains usually occur when? Correct Answer: at nighttime Children with complaints of midbone pain should be worked for what MNM differential? Correct Answer: acute lymphocytic leukemia NSAIDs should be used in caution with what patient population? Correct Answer: anyone with hypertension because they cause sodium retention and increase blood pressure What is the most common cause of secondary dysmenorrhea? Correct Answer: endometriosis; symptoms include spotting in between periods, cervical stenosis or displacement, nodular or tender uterosacral ligaments When should AAA screening be performed via US? Correct Answer: once for all males age 65-75 who have ever smoked What is responsible for the transmission of poison ivy? Correct Answer: the oils from the plant itself. So the only way someone can pass it on to another person is if they still have oil from the plant on their skin (like if they haven't bathed). Note that the fluid inside the blisters is not contagious
What 2 things put someone at the highest risk of developing pancreatitis? Correct Answer: gallstones and alcohol abuse. Hypertriglyceridemia can also cause it. What are the RF for GI bleeding? Correct Answer: age 75 or older, warfarin use, daily NSAID use, chronic steroid use, PMHx of GI bleed When two or more RF for a GI bleed are present, we should not start a patient on aspirin without what? Correct Answer: a daily PPI What medication is first line for the treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria or UTI in pregnancy? Correct Answer: nitrofurantoin Athletic amenorrhea increases one's risk of developing what? Correct Answer: osteoporosis; this is because there is a loss of body fat and body fat is what produces estrogen so estrogen levels decline An intervention being performed to prevent the occurrence of the same event happening again is an example of ___________ prevention. Give an example. Correct Answer: secondary; taking a daily aspirin to prevent another stroke after already having one
What is Strattera (atomoxetine) used for? Correct Answer: ADHD; side effect includes increased BP and HR so monitor closely What is the drug Danazol and what is it used for? Correct Answer: an androgen used in the treatment of endometriosis and fibrocystic breast disease Danazol, an androgen, has what potential side effects? Correct Answer: edema, hirsutism, hair loss, vocal changes The Mirena (Levonorgestrol) IUD stays in for how long? Correct Answer: 5 years What is the most common reason for persistent gonorrhea infections? Correct Answer: failure of the patient to abstain from unprotected sexual intercourse What class of drug is theophylline? What does it do? Correct Answer: methylxanthine; it's a bronchodilator
Mortality associated with Kawasaki disease is most likely related to what? Correct Answer: coronary artery aneurysm What is Kawasaki disease? Correct Answer: an acute febrile illness of early childhood characterized by vasculitis of the medium sized arteries, most noticeable in the coronary vessels Serial echos must be performed in a patient with Kawasaki disease in order to rule out coronary artery aneurysms. When should these occur? Correct Answer: at the time of diagnosis, 1-2 weeks after onset of illness, 5- 6 weeks after onset of illness What is the most common cause of croup? Correct Answer: parainfluenza virus What are the two subsets of impetigo? Correct Answer: bullous (fluid filled) or nonbullous (honey crusts) Which protein is an important mediator of the inflammatory response and serves as a messenger at the site of antigen (allergen) invasion? Correct Answer: cytokines; they are released by mast cells in response to an invading antigen and recruit leukocytes and eosinophils
Paroxysmal events associated with abnormal electrical discharges of neurons in the brain Correct Answer: seizures What is HELLP syndrome in pregnancy? Correct Answer: stands for hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets; is characterized by thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, and liver dysfunction HELLP syndrome in pregnancy is due to what? Correct Answer: endothelial dysfunction Patients with acute coronary syndrome typically have plaque erosion caused by what? Correct Answer: accumulation of hyaluronan and neutrophils Which diagnostic study is most helpful for differentiating Alzheimer's disease from dementia with Lewy bodies? Correct Answer: PET scan ADHD is a risk factor for both depression and what else? Correct Answer: substance abuse Epididymitis with orchitis is commonly related to what? Correct Answer: genitourinary infections
The flow of air coming in and out of the lungs in one inhalation and one exhalation Correct Answer: peak expiratory flow What does an incentive spirometer measure? Correct Answer: peak expiratory flow What happens in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle? Correct Answer: LH and FSH decrease, the ruptured follicle closes after an egg has been released and forms the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone. Estrogen and progesterone remain high and it is those two things that cause the lining of the uterus to thicken further in preparation for fertilization What is a sign of the initial appearance of measurable histamines in a patient with allergic rhinitis? Correct Answer: sneezing The bacteria responsible for syphilis is called what? Correct Answer: treponema pallidum The STI, chancroid, is caused by what responsible bacteria? Correct Answer: haemophilus ducreyi
What is the most common cause of septic arthritis? Correct Answer: staph aureus The STI, mycoplasma genitalium, is unique in what way? Correct Answer: it lacks a cell wall and has a terminal tip-like structure which allows it to attach to and enter other cells. It then modulates the host's immune response What are the 3 secondary causes of type 2 diabetes? Correct Answer: prolonged physical or emotional stress, pregnancy, drugs such as steroids and hormonal contraceptives How does hyperinsulinemia in PCOS work? Correct Answer: insulin resistance occurs in all places except for the ovary which remains sensitive to insulin. This insulin upregulates androgen production. Which drug classes are responsible for causing urinary retention? Correct Answer: antihistamines, TCAs, antispasmodics, bronchodilators, antipsychotics, carbidopa levodopa A 75 year old patient is experiencing progressive confusion and memory deterioration. Which condition mimics dementia that this patient should be tested for? Correct Answer: neurosyphilis
