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APEX Questions latest upload verified newest well detailed, Exams of Nursing

Cheyney University of PennsylvaniaNursing

APEX Questions latest upload verified newest well detailed

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 03/22/2026

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APEX
Questions latest upload verified newest well
detailed
1.
Match each type of pneumocyte with its role in
the lung. Type I
Type
II
Type
III:
Type I-provides surface for gas
exchange Type II-promotes immunity
Type
III-produces
surfactant
2. Match each upper airway dilator muscle to the structure it
primarily controls.
Genioglossus-
Tensor
palatine-
Hyoid-: Genioglossus-
tongue
tensor palatine-soft
palate
hyoid-
epiglottis
3. As the airways divide to form the tracheobronchial tree, which
statement is
false?
a.
Aiflow velocity decreases
b.
Airway smooth muscle increases
c.
Cartilaginous support decreases
d.
Mucus
production
increases:
d. mucus production
increases
4.
Compared to the mainstem bronchi, which statements BEST
describe the terminal bronchi (select 2):
a.
Airflow velocity is reduced
b.
There is more cartilage
c. Cross-sectional area is greater
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30
pf31
pf32
pf33
pf34
pf35
pf36
pf37

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APEX Questions latest upload verified newest well

detailed

  1. Match each type of pneumocyte with its role in the lung. Type I Type II Type III: Type I-provides surface for gas exchange Type II-promotes immunity Type III-produces surfactant
  2. Match each upper airway dilator muscle to the structure it primarily controls. Genioglossus- Tensor palatine- Hyoid-: Genioglossus- tongue tensor palatine-soft palate hyoid-epiglottis
  3. As the airways divide to form the tracheobronchial tree, which statement is false? a. Aiflow velocity decreases b. Airway smooth muscle increases c. Cartilaginous support decreases d. Mucus production increases: d. mucus production increases
  4. Compared to the mainstem bronchi, which statements BEST describe the terminal bronchi (select 2): a. Airflow velocity is reduced b. There is more cartilage c. Cross-sectional area is greater

2 / 55 d. There are more goblet cells: A and C

  1. Select the ONLY intrinsic larngeal muscle that is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve. a. lateral cricoarytenoid b. cricothyroid c. thyroarytenoid d. posterior cricoarytenoid: b. cricothryoid
  2. Which nerve serves as the afferent limb of the laryngospasm reflex? a. recurrent laryngeal b. glossopharyngeal c. superior larnygeal external branch d. superior laryngeal internal branch: d. superior laryngeal internal branch
  3. Match the anatomical area with the nerve that provides its sensory innerva- tion. mucus membrane above the VC oropharynx and posterior tongue mucus lining of nasopharynx mucus membrane above the VC answer choices: glossopharyngeal, trigeminal, recurrent laryngeal, superior laryngeal: mucus membrane above the VC-recurrent laryngeal oropharynx and posterior tongue- glossopharnygeal mucus lining of nasopharynx- trigeminal mucus membrane above the VC-superior laryngeal
  4. Match the intrinsic muscle of the larynx with its action on the VC.

4 / 55 c. PaO d. Hgb e. PaCO f. SaO g. Ambient pressure h. body mass: a. PETCO d. Hgb e.PaCO f. SaO

  1. Match the condition with its effect on alveolar or anatomic dead space. High cardiac output Artificial airway Head extension High PEEP: High cardiac output-increases alveolar dead space Artifical airway-decreases anatomic dead space Head extension-Increases anatomic dead space High PEEP-decreases alveolar dead space
  2. Which of the following increases FRC? a. neuromuscular blockade b. pulmonary edema c. trendelenburg position d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  3. Select the statement that MOST accurately describes V/Q mismatch in the overinflated alveoli. a. a V/Q ratio of infinity indicates a shunt unit. b. a dead space alveolus can transfer relatively more CO2 than O

5 / 55 c. bronchial dilation reduces dead space. d. CO2 retention tends to occur before hypoxemia: b. a dead space alveolus can transfer relatively more CO2 than O double check this answer***

  1. Which of the following corresponse to the amount of gas that can be forcibly exhaled after a tidal exhalation? a. expiratory reserve volume b. residual volume c. FRC d. vital capacity: a. expiratory reserve volume
  2. The MOST potent stimulus of the central respiratory chemoreceptor is a /an: a. elevated CO b. metabolic acidosis c. low O2 level d. diabetic ketoacidosis: a. elevated CO
  3. Gas exchange occurs in the (select 2): a. respiratory bronchioles b. alevolar ducts c. bronchioles d. terminal bronchioles: A & D respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts
  4. The central chemoreceptor directly responds to: a. bicarbonate b. hydrogen c. carbonic acid d. carbon dioxide: b. hydrogen

7 / 55 b. advanced age c. acute asthma d. supine positioning: A & D morbid obesity supine positioning

  1. Identify the conditions that are associated with a reduction in P50 (select 2). a. malignant hyperthermia b. prematurity c. anemia d. carbon monoxide poisoning: C & D anemia carbon monoxide poisoning
  2. Which statement MOST accurately descibes West Zone I? a. pulmonary blood flow is proportional to the arterial to venous pressure gradient b. venous pressure is higher than alveolar pressure c. perfusion is greater than ventilation d. alveolar pressure is higher than arterial pressure: d. alveolar pressure is higher than arterial pressure
  3. Which drugs impair hypoxic pumlonary vasoconstriction (select 2): a. isoflurane b. nitroprusside c. ketamine d. propofol: A & B

8 / 55 isoflurane nitroprusside

  1. Consequences of severe hypercarbia include (select 2): a. pulmonary hypertension b. skeletal muscle weakness c. hypokalemia d. hypoxemia: B & D skeletal muscle weakness hypoxemia
  2. During normal breathing, inspiration is MOST likely to end due to : a. inhibition of the dorsal respiratory group from the pneumotaxic center b. ascending spinal reflexes from the chest wall and stretch receptors c. Hering-breur inflation reflex via the lung stretch receptors d. neuronal discharges from the apneustic center to the ventral respiratory group.: I put a. inhibition of the dorsal respiratory group from the pneumotaxic center *check this answer
  3. The CO2 ventilatory response curve is shifted to the left by a. metabolic alkalosis b. natural sleep c. hydromorphone d. hypoxemia: d. hypoxemia
  4. Alveolar ventilation is directly proportional to (select 2): a. CO2 production b. shunt

10 / 55 c. decreased elastic recoil and low lung compliance d. decreased airway resistance and high lung compliance: c. decreased elastic recoil and low lung compliance

  1. A CRNA is providing deep sedation for a patient undergoing parathyroidec- tomy. The left inferior gland is deep and caudal to the thyroid. During a difficult resection the patient's SpO2 drops to 91% and does not respond to increased FiO2. Breath sounds are decreased on the left. What is the MOST likely cause? a. massive basilar atelectasis as a result of inadequate minute ventilation b. PTX due to inadvertent injury to the apical parietal pleura c. insidious aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions in an unprotected airway d. upper airway edema and partial airway obstruction due to long surgical time.: b. PTX due to inadvertent injury to the apical parietal pleura
  2. Which of the following are examples of chronic intrinsic restrictive pumonary disease (select 2): a. pleural effusion b. kyphoscoliosis c. sarcoidosis d. amiodarone toxicity: B & C kyphoscoliosis sarcoidosis
  3. Which anesthetic technique is MOST likely to worsen symptoms in a patient with active wheezing? a. subarachnoid blockade b. ETT

11 / 55 c. LMA d. facemask: a subarachnoid blockade

  1. What is the most common ABG finding in the patient suffering an acute asthma attack? a. respiratory alkalosis with hypercarbia b. respiratory acidosis with hypercarbia c. respiratory alkalosis with hypocarbia d. respiratory acidosis with hypocarbia: c. repiratory alkalosis with hypocarbia
  2. What is the BEST method to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia? a. avoid intubation b. H2 antagonists c. limit sedation d. semi-fowlers position: a. avoid intubation
  3. During an acute asthma attack, an elevated PaCO a. is caused by an increased FEV1/FVC ratio b. suggests impending respiratory failure c. suggesting worsening restrictive disease d. is a normal finding: b. suggests impending respiratory failure
  4. Asthma is a disease BEST characterized by a. infiltration of inflammatory cells leading to parenchymal damage b. irreversible enlargement of the lung distal to the terminal bronchioles c. airway inflammation and hyper-reactive airways d. fluid accumulation in the extravascular lung space: c. airway inflammation and hyper-re- active airways.
  5. Chronic bronchitis is associated with a. alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

13 / 55 d. destruction of the airways distal to the terminal bronchioles: c. hypertrophied mucus glands and chronic inflammation

  1. Identify the BEST treatments for the patient with a symptomatic air em- bolism (select 2) a. flood the surgical field with normal saline b. place a pulmonary artery catheter and aspirate air from the distal lumen c. dobutamine d. right lateral decubitus position: A & B flood the field place a PA catheter
  2. Which values are usually decreased in the patient with obstructive lung disease? (select 2) a. FEV1/FVC ratio b. FEF 25-75% c. FVC d. TLC: A & B FEV1/FVC ratio FEF 25- 75%
  3. Which diagnostic tests should be ordered to rule out aspiration pneumonia (select 2): a. chest x ray b. spirometry c. arterial blood gas d. d-dimer: A & C

14 / 55 chest x ray arterial blood gas

16 / 55 morphine

17 / 55

  1. Albuterol is most likely to cause a. hypernatremia b. hypoglycemia c. hypokalemia d. bradycardia: c. hypokalemia
  2. A CRNA is providing anesthesia for a case in which several days of postop ventilation are expected. What can she do pre or intraop to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia? a. intubate with an ETT that provides for subglottic suctioning b. provide oropharyngeal decontamination during the case c. administer a PPI intravenously every 6 hours d. begin broad spectrum prophylactic abx before surgical closing: Look up this answer
  3. I missed 5 of the last 20 questions.: Go back and find correct answers.
  4. During DL, you can only see the soft palate. This is consistent with a Corma- ck-Lehane score of I II II I IV: IV
  5. Match the visualization with the definition Soft and hard palate only Soft palate only corniculate cartilages only uvula, soft and hard palate choices-Mallampatti 2, Mallampatti 3, Cormack and Lehane 2b,

19 / 55 corniculate cartilages only-Cormack and Lehane 2b uvula, soft and hard palate- Mallampatti 2

  1. The lighted stylet is BEST used in a patient with a. epiglottitis b. hypoxemia c. impaired cervical mobility d. obesity: c. impaired cervical mobility
  2. A CRNA has aneshetized a 158 kg patient for laparoscopic prostatectomy. After placing the patient in trendelenburg, the SpO slowly declines from 97% to 90%. The most likely cause is a. pulmonary edema b. post induction atelectasis c. previously undiagnosed asthma d. right mainstem intubation: d. right mainstem intubation
  3. A sedated or lightly anesthetized patient with which characteristics may be at risk for upper airway obstruction (select 3) a. full dentition b. facial hair c. mandibular space > 6 cm d. micrognathia e. obesity f. airway edema: D, E, F micrognathi a obesity airway edema
  4. Congenital fusion of the cervical vertebrae is MOST likely to be associated with

20 / 55 a. Trisomy 21