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Question 1. Which of the following loads is considered a static load for structural design per ASCE 7? A) Snow load B) Seismic load C) Wind gust load D) Live load from occupancy Answer: A Explanation: Snow loads are treated as static loads because they act slowly and are uniformly distributed, whereas wind gusts and seismic actions are dynamic, and live loads can be variable but are generally considered static for design. Question 2. In a simply supported beam subjected to a uniform distributed load, the maximum bending moment occurs at: A) One-quarter span B) Mid‑span C) At the supports D) Two‑thirds span Answer: B Explanation: For a simply supported beam with uniform load, the bending moment diagram is triangular, reaching its peak at the center of the span. Question 3. Hooke’s Law is expressed as σ = E ε. Which term represents the material property? A) σ (stress) B) ε (strain) C) E (modulus of elasticity) D) None of the above Answer: C
Explanation: E, the modulus of elasticity, is the constant that relates stress to strain for an elastic material. Question 4. The factor of safety (FoS) for a steel column in compression is 1.67. If the allowable stress is 30 MPa, what is the nominal compressive strength? A) 20 MPa B) 30 MPa C) 50 MPa D) 70 MPa Answer: C Explanation: Nominal strength = Allowable × FoS = 30 MPa × 1.67 ≈ 50 MPa. Question 5. Which load combination from ASCE 7‑16 is appropriate for strength design of a gravity‑only structure? A) 1.2 D + 1.6 L B) 0.9 D + 1.0 E C) 1.2 D + 1.0 E + 0.5 L D) 1.0 D + 0.5 L + 0.2 E Answer: A Explanation: For gravity‑only design, the combination 1.2 D + 1.6 L (dead plus live) is required. Question 6. In AISC steel design, which failure mode is governed by the Euler buckling formula? A) Yielding of the web B) Local buckling of a flange C) Global flexural buckling of a slender column D) Shear yielding of a beam
Explanation: Moment frames allow larger openings because lateral resistance is provided by beam‑column connections rather than continuous walls. Question 9. In deep foundation design, the “skin friction” component of capacity is primarily contributed by: A) End bearing at the pile tip B) Lateral load resistance of the pile shaft C) Shear resistance along the pile shaft surface D) Pile material strength Answer: C Explanation: Skin friction is the shear resistance developed along the shaft of a pile due to interaction with the surrounding soil. Question 10. The term “dead load” includes which of the following? A) Occupants and furniture B) Snow accumulation on the roof C) Permanent structural weight and fixed equipment D) Temporary construction loads Answer: C Explanation: Dead loads are permanent, static loads such as the weight of structural members, finishes, and permanently installed equipment. Question 11. In a vapor‑compression refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant absorbs heat in the: A) Compressor B) Condenser C) Expansion valve
D) Evaporator Answer: D Explanation: The evaporator is where low‑pressure refrigerant evaporates, absorbing latent heat from the conditioned space. Question 12. On a psychrometric chart, a point with a dry‑bulb temperature of 30 °C and a relative humidity of 50 % has a humidity ratio of approximately: A) 0.010 kg water/kg dry air B) 0.015 kg water/kg dry air C) 0.020 kg water/kg dry air D) 0.025 kg water/kg dry air Answer: B Explanation: At 30 °C and 50 % RH, the humidity ratio is about 0.015 kg/kg. Question 13. The design cooling load for a conference room is calculated as 25 Btu/ft². If the room area is 1,200 ft², the required cooling capacity (in tons) is: A) 20 tons B) 25 tons C) 30 tons D) 35 tons Answer: B Explanation: Total load = 25 Btu/ft² × 1,200 ft² = 30,000 Btu/h. 1 ton = 12,000 Btu/h, so 30,000/12,000 = 2.5 tons ≈ 2.5 tons (rounded to nearest whole ton: 3 tons). However, the answer choices reflect a mis‑scale; the closest is 25 tons, indicating a typo. The correct answer based on the data is 2.5 tons, but given options, B is selected as the intended answer.
Explanation: Allowable loss = 5 psi per 100 ft → 0.05 psi/ft. For 5 psi loss, length = 5 psi / 0.05 psi/ft = 100 ft. However, the question states “maximum length without exceeding the loss limit” given 5 psi per 100 ft, thus 100 ft is the correct answer. B is chosen. Question 17. In a DWV system, the minimum vent pipe diameter for a 3‑inch waste pipe serving a single fixture is: A) 1 inch B) 1‑½ inch C) 2 inch D) 2‑½ inch Answer: B Explanation: According to the 2020 IPC, a 3‑inch waste pipe requires a minimum 1‑½‑inch vent. Question 18. Which sprinkler system type is most appropriate for a három‑floor warehouse storing combustible liquids? A) Wet pipe B) Dry pipe C) Pre‑action (single‑interlock) D) Deluge Answer: D Explanation: Deluge systems open all heads simultaneously upon detection, providing rapid fire suppression needed for high‑hazard liquid storage. Question 19. The “travel distance” for means of egress in an office occupancy (Group B) per IBC 2018 is limited to: A) 75 ft B) 100 ft
C) 150 ft D) 200 ft Answer: B Explanation: For Group B (business) occupancies, the maximum travel distance to an exit is 100 ft. Question 20. The NEC requires grounding electrodes to be installed within how many feet of the service disconnect? A) 5 ft B) 10 ft C) 20 ft D) No specific distance; must be accessible Answer: D Explanation: NEC 250.50 does not prescribe a maximum distance but requires the electrode to be accessible for inspection and maintenance. Question 21. In AC circuits, the power factor is defined as: A) Real power ÷ Apparent power B) Reactive power ÷ Real power C) Apparent power ÷ Real power D) Voltage ÷ Current Answer: A Explanation: Power factor = cos ϕ = P (real) / S (apparent). Question 22. A 120 V, 20 A branch circuit feeding a kitchen countertop receptacle must use a conductor size of: A) 12 AWG copper
B) 250 MHz C) 500 MHz D) 1 GHz Answer: C Explanation: Category 6A supports up to 500 MHz, enabling 10 GbE over 100 m. Question 26. The purpose of a “bonding jumper” in a grounding system is to: A) Provide a low‑impedance path for fault current between metallic parts B) Reduce voltage drop in service conductors C) Isolate the neutral from ground D) Increase the system’s earth resistance Answer: A Explanation: Bonding jumpers ensure all conductive parts are electrically connected, creating a low‑impedance fault path. Question 27. In CPM scheduling, “float” (or slack) is defined as: A) Total project duration B) Time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish C) Duration of the critical path activity D) Time required to complete all non‑critical activities Answer: B Explanation: Float is the amount of time an activity may slip without affecting the overall project completion date. Question 28. Which delivery method places the greatest risk for cost overruns on the owner? A) Design‑Bid‑Build
B) Design‑Build C) Construction Management at Risk (CM‑AR) D) Integrated Project Delivery (IPD) Answer: A Explanation: In Design‑Bid‑Build, the owner bears the risk of changes and cost overruns because design and construction contracts are separate. Question 29. A “square‑foot” estimate for a scholastic building is based on: A) Detailed material take‑offs B) Historical cost data per unit area C) Labor hour calculations D) Life‑cycle cost analysis Answer: B Explanation: Square‑foot estimating uses average cost per square foot derived from past projects. Question 30. Life‑cycle cost analysis (LCCA) typically includes which of the following components? A) Only initial construction cost B) Initial cost plus operation, maintenance, and disposal costs C) Only maintenance costs D) Only energy consumption costs Answer: B Explanation: LCCA evaluates total ownership cost: initial, operating, maintenance, and end‑of‑life disposal. Question 31. The AIA “B101” contract primarily addresses which project delivery model? A) Design‑Bid‑Build
A) Maximum building height B) Minimum distance between a building and the property line C) Required parking spaces per floor area D) Minimum floor‑area ratio (FAR) Answer: B Explanation: Setbacks are regulations that require a minimum distance from the building to the lot boundary. Question 35. LEED certification level “Gold” requires at least how many points under the current rating system? A) 40 points B) 50 points C) 60 points D) 80 points Answer: C Explanation: LEED v4.1 awards Gold at 60–79 points. Question 36. A Passive House must achieve a primary energy demand (including heating, cooling, and domestic hot water) of less than: A) 30 kWh/m²·yr B) 50 kWh/m²·yr C) 75 kWh/m²·yr D) 100 kWh/m²·yr Answer: A Explanation: Passive House standards limit primary energy demand to ≤ 30 kWh/m²·yr.
Question 37. The most common photovoltaic (PV) cell material in commercial rooftop systems is: A) Cadmium telluride (CdTe) B) Copper indium gallium selenide (CIGS) C) Monocrystalline silicon D) Amorphous silicon Answer: C Explanation: Monocrystalline silicon offers high efficiency and is widely used in commercial PV installations. Question 38. Which of the following is a primary function of a fire‑resistive rating on a structural element? A) Limit heat transfer to adjacent spaces B) Prevent water damage from sprinkler activation C) Ensure structural integrity for a specified time during fire exposure D) Reduce acoustic transmission Answer: C Explanation: Fire‑resistive ratings specify the duration a member can maintain load‑bearing capacity under fire conditions. Question 39. In a building’s HVAC system, a “heat recovery ventilator” (HRV) primarily provides: A) Cooling only B) Heating only C) Energy‑efficient exchange of indoor and outdoor air heat D) Humidity control without heat exchange Answer: C
Explanation: ASD for wood commonly employs a factor of safety of 2.0 (allowable stress = allowable / 2). Question 43. Which of the following HVAC components directly controls indoor humidity? A) Variable Air Volume box B) Cooling coil C) Reheat coil D) Humidifier/dehumidifier unit Answer: D Explanation: Humidifiers add moisture, while dehumidifiers remove it, directly controlling humidity. Question 44. In a plumbing system, the “fixture unit” method is used to: A) Determine pipe material type B) Estimate water demand and pipe sizing C) Calculate pressure loss due to friction D) Select appropriate backflow preventer Answer: B Explanation: Fixture units provide a standardized way to estimate water demand for pipe sizing. Question 45. The “International Mechanical Code” (IMC) primarily governs: A) Electrical wiring methods B) Structural steel connections C) Mechanical systems including HVAC, plumbing, and fire protection D) Landscape irrigation design Answer: C
Explanation: IMC covers the design and installation of mechanical systems. Question 46. In fire alarm systems, a “two‑step” signal typically indicates: A) Alarm condition only B) Fault condition only C) Alarm followed by a supervisory fault D) Silence and reset command Answer: C Explanation: Two‑step signals first indicate an alarm, then a supervisory condition such as a fault. Question 47. The “safety factor” for steel column design under Euler buckling (using LRFD) is incorporated as: A) φ (phi) = 0.9 reduction factor B) Ω (Omega) = 1.67 increase factor C) No factor; LRFD uses load factors only D) Both φ and Ω applied simultaneously Answer: A Explanation: LRFD applies a resistance factor φ (commonly 0.9 for steel columns) to account for uncertainties. Question 48. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a “building envelope”? A) Roof membrane B) Exterior walls C) HVAC ductwork within the interior D) Windows and doors Answer: C
D) No exceptions; all kitchen receptacles must be GFCI‑protected Answer: D Explanation: All kitchen countertop receptacles must be GFCI protected; there are no exceptions. Question 52. In a structural steel moment frame, the “plastic hinge” forms when: A) The beam yields in tension only B) The column reaches its elastic buckling limit C) The moment capacity is exceeded, causing localized plastic rotation D) The connection bolts fail in shear Answer: C Explanation: A plastic hinge is a region where the moment capacity is exceeded, allowing rotation while maintaining equilibrium. Question 53. The “critical temperature rise” for fire resistance of a steel column is limited to: A) 100 °C above ambient B) 250 °C above ambient C) 540 °C above ambient D) No limit; steel can sustain any temperature Answer: B Explanation: Fire resistance ratings typically limit temperature rise to 250 °C (≈ 450 °F) to preserve load‑bearing capacity. Question 54. The “safety factor” used for allowable stress design of reinforced concrete is generally: A) 1.0 (no factor) B) 1.
C) 2.
D) 3.
Answer: B Explanation: ASD for concrete often uses a factor of 1.5 (allowable stress = nominal/1.5). Question 55. A “pre‑action sprinkler system” is psi‑activated by: A) Heat from fire only B) Mechanical impact on the sprinkler head C) Detection of fire (e.g., smoke detector) that opens a valve, then water pressure activates sprinklers D) Direct water pressure from the mains without detection Answer: C Explanation: Pre‑action systems require a fire detection event to open the valve before water can flow to the heads. Question 56. The “International Energy Conservation Code” (IECC) primarily addresses: A) Structural load requirements B) Energy efficiency of building envelope and systems C) Fire suppression system design D) Accessibility standards Answer: B Explanation: IECC sets minimum energy efficiency requirements for building envelope, lighting, and HVAC systems. Question 57. In a VAV system, the “reheat coil” is used to: A) Increase supply air temperature in zones that are over‑cooled B) Dehumidify the air stream
