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Exam Guide
Question 1. What is the chief objective of a pre‑participation examination (PPE) for athletes? A) To diagnose current injuries B) To identify risk factors that could predispose an athlete to injury C) To evaluate skill level for team selection D) To assess nutritional status only Answer: B Explanation: A PPE screens medical history and conducts a physical exam to uncover conditions that may increase injury risk or require medical clearance before participation.
Question 2. Which component of fitness profiling primarily assesses an athlete’s ability to sustain aerobic work? A) Hand‑grip dynamometry B) Sit‑and‑reach test C) VO₂ max test D) One‑rep max squat Answer: C Explanation: VO₂ max testing measures maximal oxygen uptake, reflecting cardiovascular endurance capacity.
Exam Guide
Question 3. When using the Wet Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) index, a value of 28 °C most closely indicates which level of heat‑stress risk for athletes? A) Low risk – no modifications needed B) Moderate risk – increase fluid intake only C) High risk – implement work‑to‑rest ratios and cooling strategies D) Extreme risk – suspend activity Answer: C Explanation: WBGT ≥ 28 °C is considered high heat‑stress; guidelines recommend work‑to‑rest ratios, monitoring, and cooling measures.
Question 4. Which of the following is a key requirement for protective helmets according to NOCSAE standards? A) Must be made of carbon fiber only B) Must pass impact attenuation testing at 150 g C) Must have a built‑in communication system D) Must be customizable in color Answer: B Explanation: NOCSAE standards mandate helmets to meet specific impact attenuation criteria, typically measured in g‑forces, to ensure adequate protection.
Exam Guide
Question 7. A student athlete reports difficulty sleeping, mood swings, and decreased performance. Which condition is most likely? A) Anemia B) Overtraining syndrome C) Acute concussion D) Dehydration Answer: B Explanation: Overtraining syndrome manifests as sleep disturbances, mood changes, and performance decline due to excessive training load without adequate recovery.
Question 8. During history taking, the term “mechanism of injury (MOI)” refers to: A) The athlete’s previous medical diagnoses B) The specific actions or forces that caused the injury C) The athlete’s preferred treatment modality D) The time of day the injury occurred Answer: B Explanation: MOI describes how the injury occurred, including position, force direction, and activity, guiding clinical suspicion.
Exam Guide
Question 9. Which orthopedic special test is most specific for diagnosing an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear? A) McMurray test B) Lachman test C) Drawer test (posterior) D) Patellar apprehension test Answer: B Explanation: The Lachman test assesses anterior tibial translation with the knee flexed 20‑ 30 °, offering high sensitivity and specificity for ACL injuries.
Question 10. The SCAT6 is primarily used to assess: A) Cardiovascular fitness B) Nutritional deficiencies C) Concussion symptoms and cognitive function D) Musculoskeletal range of motion Answer: C Explanation: The Sport Concussion Assessment Tool (SCAT6) evaluates symptom severity, cognition, balance, and coordination following a head injury.
Question 11. Which cranial nerve is tested by asking a patient to stick out their tongue?
Exam Guide
C) Comfort – pain assessment D) Carotid pulse – checking for bradycardia Answer: A Explanation: “C” evaluates circulatory status, ensuring adequate perfusion before proceeding.
Question 14. Which maneuver is recommended to protect a suspected cervical spine injury on the field? A) Log roll without manual stabilization B) Manual in‑line stabilization while the athlete is placed on a spine board C) Immediate removal of the helmet and neck brace D) Applying a cervical collar after the athlete is seated Answer: B Explanation: Manual in‑line stabilization maintains neutral alignment while the athlete is transferred to a spine board, minimizing motion.
Question 15. When implementing an Emergency Action Plan (EAP), the most critical first step after a cardiac arrest is: A) Initiate CPR immediately B) Retrieve the athlete’s emergency contact C) Apply a cold pack to the chest
Exam Guide
D) Document the incident on the incident report Answer: A Explanation: Immediate high‑quality CPR is essential to maintain circulation before defibrillation.
Question 16. An AED delivers a shock at which energy level for a pediatric patient (≤ 25 kg)? A) 200 J B) 150 J C) 50 J D) 10 J Answer: C Explanation: Pediatric AED protocols recommend a 50 J biphasic shock to reduce the risk of myocardial injury.
Question 17. The most effective field treatment for exertional heat stroke is: A) Ice packs applied to the axillae B) Cold‑water immersion (CWI) at 10‑ 15 °C for 10‑ 15 minutes C) Oral rehydration with sports drinks D) Application of a cooling blanket
Exam Guide
Answer: C Explanation: Cold causes vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow and limiting secondary inflammatory swelling.
Question 20. Therapeutic ultrasound at a frequency of 3 MHz is most appropriate for treating which depth of tissue? A) Superficial (≤ 0.5 cm) B) Medium (1‑ 2 cm) C) Deep (3‑ 5 cm) D) Bone surfaces only Answer: B Explanation: 3 MHz ultrasound penetrates 1‑ 2 cm, targeting medium‑depth structures such as tendons and muscles.
Question 21. Which electrical modality is designed to produce muscle contraction by delivering a higher intensity current? A) TENS (Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation) B. NMES (Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation) C. IFC (Interferential Current) D. PEMF (Pulsed Electromagnetic Field)
Exam Guide
Answer: B Explanation: NMES uses higher‑intensity pulses to elicit functional muscle contractions for strengthening or re‑education.
Question 22. Passive range of motion (PROM) exercises are indicated when: A) The patient can actively move the joint through full motion B) The joint is immobilized post‑surgery and the patient cannot contract muscles voluntarily C) The goal is to increase muscle strength D) The patient is performing plyometric drills Answer: B Explanation: PROM is performed by the therapist to maintain joint mobility when the patient cannot move the joint independently.
Question 23. Proprioceptive training after an ankle sprain most commonly utilizes which of the following tools? A) Resistance bands for hip abduction B) Balance board or wobble board C) Treadmill running at 8 km/h D. Leg press machine Answer: B
Exam Guide
Question 26. HIPAA regulations primarily protect which type of information? A) Academic grades B) Medical health information C) Financial credit scores D. Employment history Answer: B Explanation: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act safeguards protected health information (PHI).
Question 27. FERPA is most concerned with protecting: A) Health‑related data of student‑athletes B) Academic records and educational information C) Financial aid details D. Personal identification numbers Answer: B Explanation: The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act governs access to student educational records.
Exam Guide
Question 28. When budgeting for athletic training supplies, which item should be prioritized for replacement each season due to wear? A) Office stationery B) Ice machine water filters C) Athletic taping material (e.g., elastic tape) D. Computer software licenses Answer: C Explanation: Taping material degrades with use and must be replenished regularly to ensure proper adhesion and support.
Question 29. A bloodborne pathogen exposure plan must include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Immediate washing of the exposed area B) Post‑exposure prophylaxis protocol C) Documentation of the incident in the EMR D. Mandatory termination of the employee Answer: D Explanation: Termination is not a required component; the plan focuses on immediate care, reporting, and follow‑up.
Exam Guide
A) Resting ECG in all athletes B. Family history questionnaire focusing on cardiac events C. Blood pressure measurement only D. Body mass index calculation Answer: B Explanation: A detailed family cardiac history helps identify hereditary conditions (e.g., hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) that may predispose to sudden death.
Question 33. During a PPE, a finding of a systolic murmur that changes with Valsalva maneuver suggests which condition? A. Aortic stenosis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) C. Mitral regurgitation D. Pulmonary hypertension Answer: B Explanation: HCM murmurs increase with Valsalva due to decreased preload, distinguishing it from other systolic murmurs.
Question 34. Which flexibility test is most appropriate for assessing hamstring extensibility?
Exam Guide
A) Thomas test B) Straight‑leg raise (SLR) test C) Ober’s test D. Anterior drawer test Answer: B Explanation: The SLR measures the angle at which hamstring tension limits hip flexion, indicating hamstring flexibility.
Question 35. A high‑school football player reports a “popping” sensation in the knee while cutting, followed by immediate swelling. Which structure is most likely injured? A) Medial collateral ligament (MCL) B) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) C) Meniscus (medial) D) Patellar tendon Answer: B Explanation: A popping sound, rapid swelling, and cutting mechanism are classic for an ACL tear.
Question 36. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of ultrasound therapy? A) Acute inflammation (< 48 h) B) Chronic tendinopathy
Exam Guide
C) Mini‑Mental State Examination (MMSE) D) Functional Movement Screen (FMS) Answer: B Explanation: The PCSS quantifies symptom severity on a numeric scale, aiding return‑to‑play decisions.
Question 39. During a field assessment, an athlete presents with a “pencil‑in‑the‑air” sign on the scapula after a fall. Which injury is most likely? A) Scapular winging due to serratus anterior palsy B) Clavicle fracture C) Acromioclavicular joint separation D) Rotator cuff tear Answer: A Explanation: The “pencil‑in‑the‑air” sign indicates medial scapular winging, commonly from long thoracic nerve injury.
Question 40. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of a suspected Grade III hamstring strain? A) Immediate full weight‑bearing and stretching B) Ice, compression, and early functional mobilization within 24 h
Exam Guide
C. Heat therapy and massage on day 1 D. Immobilization in a splint for 2 weeks Answer: B Explanation: Early cryotherapy and controlled mobilization limit swelling while preserving range of motion.
Question 41. A 17‑year‑old gymnast reports intermittent “tightness” in the forearm after repetitive pommel‑horse work. Which condition should be considered? A) Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) B) Medial epicondylitis (golfer’s elbow) C) Carpal tunnel syndrome D) De Quervain tenosynovitis Answer: B Explanation: Repetitive wrist flexion/extensor loading in gymnasts predisposes to medial epicondylitis.
Question 42. Which of the following statements best describes the “talk and die” syndrome? A) Immediate loss of consciousness after a head injury B) Delayed onset of severe intracranial hemorrhage after a seemingly mild concussion
