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QUESTION 1. WHICH FAA ORDER ESTABLISHES THE STANDARD PHRASEOLOGY USED BY AIR TRAFFIC
CONTROLLERS?
A) JO 7110.
B) JO 7210.
C) JO 7110.
D) JO 7300.
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: JO 7110.65, “AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL,” CONTAINS THE OFFICIAL PHRASEOLOGY AND
PROCEDURES FOR ATC COMMUNICATIONS.
QUESTION 2. IN THE NAS, CLASS B AIRSPACE IS PRIMARILY INTENDED TO PROTECT WHICH TYPE OF
OPERATIONS?
A) HIGH‑ALTITUDE EN‑ROUTE TRAFFIC
B) AIRPORT TERMINAL AREA TRAFFIC FOR THE BUSIEST AIRPORTS
C) MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES
D) UNCONTROLLED GENERAL AVIATION FLIGHTS
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: CLASS B AIRSPACE SURROUNDS THE NATION’S BUSIEST AIRPORTS AND PROVIDES
CONTROLLED AIRSPACE FROM THE SURFACE UP TO 10,000 FT MSL.
QUESTION 3. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A COMPONENT OF A STANDARD IFR CLEARANCE?
A) AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION
B) ROUTE OF FLIGHT
C) WEATHER FORECAST
D) ASSIGNED ALTITUDE
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: WEATHER FORECAST IS NOT PART OF THE CLEARANCE; THE CLEARANCE INCLUDES
AIRCRAFT ID, ROUTE, ALTITUDE, AND ANY FREQUENCY CHANGES.
QUESTION 4. A “SUPER” AIRCRAFT IS IDENTIFIED BY A PILOT AS “SUPER 747”. WHAT DOES THE
“SUPER” DESIGNATION SIGNIFY?
A) THE AIRCRAFT EXCEEDS 300,000 LB MAXIMUM TAKE‑OFF WEIGHT
B) THE AIRCRAFT HAS A MAXIMUM CRUISING SPEED ABOVE MACH 0.
C) THE AIRCRAFT REQUIRES A LONGER RUNWAY FOR TAKE‑OFF
D) THE AIRCRAFT IS EQUIPPED WITH A DUAL‑ENGINE CONFIGURATION
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: “SUPER” IS USED FOR AIRCRAFT WITH A MAXIMUM TAKE‑OFF WEIGHT GREATER THAN
300,000 LB, REQUIRING SPECIAL SEPARATION CONSIDERATIONS.
QUESTION 5. WHICH RADAR TYPE RELIES ON TRANSPONDER REPLIES RATHER THAN REFLECTED
ENERGY?
A) PRIMARY RADAR
B) SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR (SSR)
C) WEATHER RADAR
D) AIR‑TO‑AIR COLLISION AVOIDANCE RADAR
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: SSR INTERROGATES AIRCRAFT TRANSPONDERS AND RECEIVES REPLIES, PROVIDING
ALTITUDE AND IDENTIFICATION DATA.
QUESTION 6. THE MINIMUM LATERAL SEPARATION BETWEEN TWO IFR AIRCRAFT IN A TRACON
SECTOR IS GENERALLY:
A) 3 NM FOR ALL AIRCRAFT
B) 5 NM FOR ALL AIRCRAFT
C) 3 NM FOR SAME‑CATEGORY, 5 NM FOR DIFFERENT‑CATEGORY AIRCRAFT
D) 5 NM FOR SAME‑CATEGORY, 3 NM FOR DIFFERENT‑CATEGORY AIRCRAFT
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: STANDARD TRACON LATERAL SEPARATION IS 3 NM FOR SAME‑CATEGORY AIRCRAFT;
5 NM IS APPLIED WHEN CATEGORIES DIFFER.
QUESTION 7. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NOTAM TYPES PROVIDES INFORMATION ON TEMPORARY
RUNWAY CLOSURES?
A) D‑NOTAM
C) 1,000 FT VERTICAL, 5 NM LATERAL
D) 2,000 FT VERTICAL, 3 NM LATERAL
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: ABOVE FL 290, THE STANDARD VERTICAL SEPARATION IS 2,000 FT AND LATERAL
SEPARATION IS 5 NM.
QUESTION 11. WHAT DOES THE “M” IN “MVA” STAND FOR?
A) MINIMUM
B) MANDATORY
C) MAXIMUM
D) MAGNETIC
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: MVA MEANS MINIMUM VECTORING ALTITUDE, THE LOWEST ALTITUDE AT WHICH ATC
MAY VECTOR AN AIRCRAFT.
QUESTION 12. IN A TOWER ENVIRONMENT, WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR AUTHORIZING AIRCRAFT TO
CROSS AN ACTIVE RUNWAY?
A) GROUND CONTROL
B) LOCAL CONTROL
C) CLEARANCE DELIVERY
D) APPROACH CONTROL
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: LOCAL CONTROL (LC) HAS AUTHORITY OVER THE MOVEMENT AREA, INCLUDING
RUNWAY CROSSING CLEARANCES.
QUESTION 13. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A PRIMARY PURPOSE OF A VASI SYSTEM?
A) PROVIDE DISTANCE MEASURING EQUIPMENT
B) INDICATE CORRECT GLIDE PATH DURING APPROACH
C) SUPPLY RUNWAY LIGHTING DURING LOW VISIBILITY
D) BROADCAST WEATHER INFORMATION TO PILOTS
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: VASI (VISUAL APPROACH SLOPE INDICATOR) GIVES PILOTS VISUAL CUES TO MAINTAIN
THE PROPER GLIDE PATH.
QUESTION 14. THE TERM “WAKE TURBULENCE” IS MOST CLOSELY ASSOCIATED WITH WHICH
SEPARATION REQUIREMENT?
A) 3 NM LATERAL SEPARATION FOR ALL AIRCRAFT
B) 5 NM LONGITUDINAL SEPARATION BEHIND A HEAVY AIRCRAFT
C) 2 NM LATERAL SEPARATION BEHIND A LIGHT AIRCRAFT
D) 10 NM VERTICAL SEPARATION FOR ALL AIRCRAFT
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: WAKE TURBULENCE SEPARATION IS BASED ON AIRCRAFT WEIGHT CATEGORIES; A 5‑NM
LONGITUDINAL SPACING IS REQUIRED BEHIND HEAVY AIRCRAFT.
QUESTION 15. WHICH FAA REGULATION GOVERNS THE CERTIFICATION OF FLIGHT SERVICE
SPECIALISTS?
A) PART 91
B) PART 65
C) PART 121
D) PART 135
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: PART 65 COVERS CERTIFICATION OF AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS,
INCLUDING FLIGHT SERVICE SPECIALISTS.
QUESTION 16. THE PRIMARY FUNCTION OF AN ARTCC IS TO:
A) PROVIDE GROUND‑BASED VISUAL GUIDANCE AT AIRPORTS
B) MANAGE EN‑ROUTE TRAFFIC BETWEEN TRACONS
C) ISSUE RUNWAY SURFACE CONDITION REPORTS
D) CONDUCT SEARCH AND RESCUE OPERATIONS
ANSWER: B
QUESTION 20. THE “E” IN CLASS E AIRSPACE INDICATES:
A) EN‑ROUTE AIRSPACE THAT IS CONTROLLED ABOVE THE SURFACE
B) EMERGENCY AIRSPACE FOR SEARCH AND RESCUE
C) EXCLUSIVE AIRSPACE FOR MILITARY OPERATIONS
D) EXTENDED SURFACE AREA FOR VFR TRAFFIC
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: CLASS E IS CONTROLLED AIRSPACE THAT BEGINS AT A DESIGNATED ALTITUDE (OR THE
SURFACE) AND IS PRIMARILY FOR EN‑ROUTE OPERATIONS.
QUESTION 21. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES A “RESTRICTED” AREA?
A) AN AREA WHERE FLIGHT IS PROHIBITED AT ALL TIMES
B) AN AREA THAT MAY BE ENTERED ONLY WITH PRIOR PERMISSION
C) AN AREA USED EXCLUSIVELY FOR PARACHUTE JUMPING
D) AN AREA DESIGNATED FOR COMMERCIAL AIRLINE ROUTES
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: RESTRICTED AIRSPACE REQUIRES PRIOR AUTHORIZATION BEFORE ENTRY DUE TO
HAZARDOUS ACTIVITIES.
QUESTION 22. IN THE CONTEXT OF ADS‑B, WHAT DOES “UAT” STAND FOR?
A) UNIVERSAL AIRCRAFT TRANSPONDER
B) UNMANNED AERIAL TRACKER
C) UPPER AIR TRAFFIC
D) UNIVERSAL ACCESS TERMINAL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: UAT (UNIVERSAL ACCESS TRANSCEIVER) IS A 978 MHZ ADS‑B SYSTEM USED BY MANY GA
AIRCRAFT.
QUESTION 23. A PILOT REPORTS “ICING” AT FLIGHT LEVEL 250. WHICH ATC SERVICE CAN PROVIDE
A “COLD‑AIR” ADVISORY?
A) TOWER
B) GROUND CONTROL
C) FLIGHT SERVICE STATION (FSS)
D) APPROACH CONTROL
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: FLIGHT SERVICE STATIONS PROVIDE WEATHER ADVISORIES, INCLUDING COLD‑AIR
(ICING) INFORMATION.
QUESTION 24. THE MINIMUM REQUIRED VERTICAL SEPARATION BETWEEN TWO AIRCRAFT ON
OPPOSITE FLIGHT LEVELS WHEN RVSM IS NOT APPLICABLE IS:
A) 500 FT
B) 1,000 FT
C) 2,000 FT
D) 3,000 FT
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: STANDARD VERTICAL SEPARATION IS 1,000 FT UNLESS RVSM (REDUCED VERTICAL
SEPARATION MINIMUM) IS IN EFFECT.
QUESTION 25. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A “NON‑RADAR” ATC SERVICE?
A) TERMINAL RADAR APPROACH CONTROL (TRACON)
B) VISUAL FLIGHT RULES (VFR) SURVEILLANCE IN CLASS G AIRSPACE
C) AUTOMATIC DEPENDENT SURVEILLANCE‑BROADCAST (ADS‑B)
D) RADAR VECTORING FOR ARRIVING AIRCRAFT
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: NON‑RADAR SERVICES REFER TO VISUAL CONTROL PROCEDURES, SUCH AS VFR
SURVEILLANCE IN UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE.
QUESTION 26. THE TERM “LOA” IN ATC STANDS FOR:
A) LEVEL OF AUTHORIZATION
B) LETTER OF AGREEMENT
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: MISSED APPROACH PROCEDURES DEFINE A SAFE, PREDICTABLE ROUTE WHEN A
LANDING CANNOT BE COMPLETED.
QUESTION 30. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE ABOUT A “STANDARD INSTRUMENT
DEPARTURE” (SID)?
A) IT IS OPTIONAL FOR ALL AIRCRAFT OPERATING UNDER IFR
B) IT PROVIDES A PREDEFINED ROUTE FROM THE AIRPORT TO THE EN‑ROUTE STRUCTURE
C) IT IS ONLY USED FOR VFR DEPARTURES
D) IT ELIMINATES THE NEED FOR ATC VECTORING ON DEPARTURE
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: SIDS ARE PUBLISHED PROCEDURES THAT GUIDE IFR DEPARTURES FROM THE RUNWAY
TO THE EN‑ROUTE ENVIRONMENT.
QUESTION 31. THE “C” IN “CFR PART 91” STANDS FOR:
A) CODE OF FEDERAL REGULATIONS
B) CIVIL FLIGHT REGULATIONS
C) CONTROL FLIGHT RULES
D) CERTIFICATION FLIGHT REQUIREMENTS
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: CFR STANDS FOR CODE OF FEDERAL REGULATIONS; PART 91 CONTAINS GENERAL
OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES.
QUESTION 32. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CHARACTERISTIC OF “SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE”
DESIGNATED AS A “MOA”?
A) IT IS PROHIBITED TO ALL CIVILIAN AIRCRAFT AT ALL TIMES
B) IT IS A MILITARY OPERATIONS AREA WHERE NON‑MILITARY TRAFFIC MAY BE CLEARED WHEN
ACTIVITY IS LOW
C) IT REQUIRES MANDATORY ALTITUDE RESTRICTIONS FOR ALL AIRCRAFT
D) IT IS A TEMPORARY AIRSPACE ACTIVATED ONLY DURING EMERGENCIES
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: MOA (MILITARY OPERATIONS AREA) ALLOWS CIVILIAN TRAFFIC WHEN MILITARY
ACTIVITIES ARE NOT IN EFFECT, WITH POSSIBLE ALTITUDE RESTRICTIONS.
QUESTION 33. WHEN A CONTROLLER ISSUES A “HOLD FOR RELEASE” INSTRUCTION, WHAT IS THE
PILOT EXPECTED TO DO?
A) REMAIN ON THE CURRENT FREQUENCY AND AWAIT FURTHER CLEARANCE
B) TAXI TO THE RUNWAY AND LINE UP FOR TAKE‑OFF IMMEDIATELY
C) CONTACT THE NEXT ATC FACILITY FOR CLEARANCE
D) DEPART THE AIRPORT WITHOUT A CLEARANCE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: “HOLD FOR RELEASE” MEANS THE AIRCRAFT MUST REMAIN AT THE CURRENT POSITION
(TYPICALLY THE RUNWAY HOLD LINE) UNTIL A RELEASE CLEARANCE IS ISSUED.
QUESTION 34. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES THE PURPOSE OF A “TERMINAL AREA
FORECAST” (TAF)?
A) PROVIDE REAL‑TIME WIND DATA AT THE AIRPORT
B) FORECAST WEATHER CONDITIONS FOR THE NEXT 24–30 HOURS AFFECTING THE TERMINAL AREA
C) DELIVER PILOT REPORTS OF TURBULENCE
D) ISSUE NOTAMS RELATED TO RUNWAY CLOSURES
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: TAFS ARE WEATHER FORECASTS FOR A SPECIFIC AIRPORT COVERING A 24‑30 HOUR
PERIOD, FOCUSING ON CONDITIONS THAT AFFECT ARRIVALS AND DEPARTURES.
QUESTION 35. IN ATC, THE PHRASE “SQUAWK 1200” REFERS TO:
A) A REQUEST TO CHANGE FREQUENCY TO 120.0 MHZ
B) ASSIGNMENT OF A SPECIFIC TRANSPONDER CODE FOR IDENTIFICATION
C) INSTRUCTION TO CLIMB TO 12,000 FT
D) CLEARANCE TO DEPART AT 12:00 UTC
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: “SQUAWK 1200” ASSIGNS THE FOUR‑DIGIT TRANSPONDER CODE 1200 TO THE
AIRCRAFT.
B) AIRCRAFT WEIGHT CATEGORY (LIGHT, MEDIUM, HEAVY, SUPER)
C) AIRCRAFT MANUFACTURER
D) PILOT EXPERIENCE LEVEL
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: SEPARATION STANDARDS ARE BASED ON THE WEIGHT CATEGORY OF THE LEADING
AIRCRAFT.
QUESTION 40. A PILOT REPORTS “MODERATE TURBULENCE AT 8,000 FT.” WHICH ATC SERVICE CAN
ISSUE A “TURBULENCE WARNING” TO OTHER AIRCRAFT?
A) TOWER
B) GROUND CONTROL
C) CENTER (ARTCC)
D) FLIGHT SERVICE STATION (FSS)
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: CENTERS CAN DISSEMINATE TURBULENCE ADVISORIES TO AIRCRAFT WITHIN THEIR
AIRSPACE.
QUESTION 41. THE PRIMARY PURPOSE OF A “RUNWAY SAFETY AREA” (RSA) IS TO:
A) PROVIDE ADDITIONAL SPACE FOR TAXIING AIRCRAFT
B) REDUCE THE RISK OF DAMAGE TO AIRCRAFT THAT OVERRUN OR UNDERSHOOT THE RUNWAY
C) SERVE AS A HOLDING AREA FOR EMERGENCY VEHICLES
D) INDICATE A VISUAL GUIDANCE SYSTEM FOR PILOTS
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: RSAS ARE CLEARED, GRADED SURFACES EXTENDING BEYOND RUNWAY ENDS TO
ENHANCE SAFETY DURING OVERRUN/UNDERSHOOT EVENTS.
QUESTION 42. IN A RADAR ENVIRONMENT, “MTI” STANDS FOR:
A) MINIMUM TARGET INTERVAL
B) MOVING TARGET INDICATOR
C) MULTI‑TRACK INTERCEPT
D) MAXIMUM TRANSMISSION INTENSITY
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: MTI HELPS RADAR DIFFERENTIATE MOVING TARGETS FROM STATIONARY CLUTTER.
QUESTION 43. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE ABOUT A “VORTAC” FACILITY?
A) IT PROVIDES ONLY VOR SIGNALS, NO DME
B) IT COMBINES VOR AND TACAN CAPABILITIES, OFFERING BOTH VOR AND DME
C) IT IS A SATELLITE‑BASED NAVIGATION SYSTEM
D) IT IS USED SOLELY FOR MILITARY NAVIGATION
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: VORTACS PROVIDE VOR NAVIGATION AND DME DISTANCE MEASURING FOR BOTH
CIVILIAN AND MILITARY USERS.
QUESTION 44. A PILOT ASKS FOR A “VECTORS FOR THE ILS APPROACH.” WHAT DOES THE
CONTROLLER PROVIDE?
A) DIRECT ROUTING TO THE RUNWAY THRESHOLD
B) HEADING CHANGES TO INTERCEPT THE ILS LOCALIZER AT A SPECIFIED POINT
C) A NEW TRANSPONDER CODE FOR THE APPROACH
D) PERMISSION TO LAND WITHOUT FURTHER CLEARANCE
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: VECTORING FOR AN ILS INVOLVES GIVING HEADINGS THAT WILL BRING THE AIRCRAFT
ONTO THE LOCALIZER AT A SUITABLE INTERCEPT POINT.
QUESTION 45. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES “RVSM”?
A) A VISUAL APPROACH SYSTEM FOR LOW‑VISIBILITY CONDITIONS
B) REDUCED VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMUM BETWEEN FL 290 AND FL 410
C) RADAR‑BASED VISUAL SEPARATION METHOD
D) A SPECIAL VOR‑BASED NAVIGATION PROCEDURE
ANSWER: B
QUESTION 49. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A TRUE STATEMENT ABOUT “CLASS G” AIRSPACE?
A) IT IS CONTROLLED AIRSPACE WITH MANDATORY ATC CLEARANCE FOR ALL OPERATIONS
B) IT IS UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE WHERE ATC SERVICES ARE NOT REQUIRED UNLESS REQUESTED
C) IT IS A SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE RESTRICTED TO MILITARY AIRCRAFT ONLY
D) IT REQUIRES A TRANSPONDER WITH MODE C AT ALL TIMES
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: CLASS G IS UNCONTROLLED; PILOTS MAY OPERATE WITHOUT ATC CLEARANCE, THOUGH
THEY CAN REQUEST SERVICES.
QUESTION 50. WHEN A CONTROLLER ISSUES A “HOLD AT FIX” INSTRUCTION, THE PILOT MUST:
A) PROCEED DIRECTLY TO THE FIX AND THEN COMMENCE A HOLDING PATTERN AS INSTRUCTED
B) REMAIN AT THE CURRENT POSITION UNTIL FURTHER CLEARANCE
C) ASCEND TO THE HOLDING ALTITUDE IMMEDIATELY
D) CANCEL THE FLIGHT PLAN AND REQUEST A NEW ROUTE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: “HOLD AT FIX” DIRECTS THE AIRCRAFT TO FLY TO A SPECIFIED POINT AND THEN ENTER A
HOLDING PATTERN.
QUESTION 51. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE CORRECT PHRASEOLOGY FOR A PILOT TO
REQUEST A “VFR FLIGHT FOLLOWING” SERVICE?
A) “REQUEST VFR FLIGHT FOLLOWING, ALTITUDE 3,500 FEET”
B) “I NEED CLEARANCE TO VFR”
C) “CAN I HAVE A VFR CLEARANCE?”
D. “PLEASE ADVISE VFR TRAFFIC”
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: THE CORRECT REQUEST INCLUDES THE PHRASE “REQUEST VFR FLIGHT FOLLOWING” AND
THE CURRENT ALTITUDE.
QUESTION 52. THE PRIMARY PURPOSE OF A “RUNWAY END IDENTIFIER LIGHT” (REIL) IS TO:
A) INDICATE THE RUNWAY CENTERLINE DURING NIGHT OPERATIONS
B) PROVIDE A HIGH‑INTENSITY FLASH AT THE RUNWAY THRESHOLD TO AID IDENTIFICATION
C) MARK THE EDGE OF THE TAXIWAY
D) ILLUMINATE THE RUNWAY TOUCHDOWN ZONE FOR PRECISION APPROACHES
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: REILS ARE A PAIR OF SYNCHRONIZED FLASHING LIGHTS THAT MARK THE RUNWAY
THRESHOLD.
QUESTION 53. IN A “VISUAL SEPARATION” SCENARIO, WHAT IS THE MINIMUM REQUIRED
DISTANCE BETWEEN TWO VFR AIRCRAFT OPERATING UNDER ATC CONTROL?
A) 3 NM LATERAL, 1,000 FT VERTICAL
B) 5 NM LATERAL, 2,000 FT VERTICAL
C) NO SPECIFIC MINIMUM; VISUAL SEPARATION IS BASED ON PILOT OBSERVATION
D) 2 NM LATERAL, 500 FT VERTICAL
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: VISUAL SEPARATION RELIES ON PILOTS MAINTAINING SAFE DISTANCES; ATC DOES NOT
IMPOSE A FIXED MINIMUM.
QUESTION 54. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A PRIMARY INDICATOR THAT AN AIRCRAFT IS
“HEAVY” FOR ATC SEPARATION PURPOSES?
A) MAXIMUM TAKE‑OFF WEIGHT > 12,500 LB
B) MAXIMUM TAKE‑OFF WEIGHT > 300,000 LB
C) MAXIMUM TAKE‑OFF WEIGHT > 75,000 LB
D) MAXIMUM TAKE‑OFF WEIGHT > 150,000 LB
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: “HEAVY” CLASSIFICATION APPLIES TO AIRCRAFT WITH A MTOW OF 75,000 LB OR MORE
BUT LESS THAN 300,000 LB.
QUESTION 55. A PILOT REPORTS “LOW‑LEVEL WIND SHEAR” WHILE ON FINAL APPROACH. WHICH
ALTITUDE SHOULD THE CONTROLLER INSTRUCT THE AIRCRAFT TO CLIMB TO FOR A SAFE GO‑AROUND?
A) 500 FT ABOVE THE RUNWAY THRESHOLD
B) 1,000 FT ABOVE THE DECISION ALTITUDE (DA)
D) CATEGORY III APPROACH
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: VOR/DME APPROACHES PROVIDE LATERAL GUIDANCE ONLY, LACKING VERTICAL
GLIDE‑SLOPE INFORMATION, THUS THEY ARE NON‑PRECISION.
QUESTION 59. THE TERM “MCT” IN ATC STANDS FOR:
A) MINIMUM CLEARANCE TIME
B) MAXIMUM CONTROL TOWER
C) MINIMUM CROSSING TIME
D) MULTI‑CHANNEL TRANSPONDER
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: MCT (MINIMUM CLEARANCE TIME) IS THE SMALLEST TIME INTERVAL REQUIRED
BETWEEN SUCCESSIVE AIRCRAFT ON A RUNWAY.
QUESTION 60. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE CORRECT PHRASEOLOGY FOR A CONTROLLER TO
ISSUE A “HOLD SHORT” CLEARANCE AT A RUNWAY INTERSECTION?
A) “HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY THREE‑FIVE, CLEARED TO TAXI VIA ALPHA.”
B) “TAXI TO RUNWAY THREE‑FIVE, HOLD SHORT.”
C) “HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY THREE‑FIVE, MAINTAIN PRESENT POSITION.”
D. “PROCEED TO RUNWAY THREE‑FIVE, HOLD SHORT.”
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: “HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY … MAINTAIN PRESENT POSITION” IS THE STANDARD
PHRASEOLOGY.
QUESTION 61. WHEN A PILOT IS CLEARED “VFR ON TOP,” WHAT DOES THIS CLEARANCE PERMIT?
A) THE PILOT MAY FLY VFR AT ANY ALTITUDE, EVEN ABOVE THE CLOUDS
B) THE PILOT MUST STAY BELOW THE CLOUD CEILING AT ALL TIMES
C) THE PILOT MAY OPERATE UNDER IFR BUT MAY REQUEST VFR AT ANY POINT
D) THE PILOT CAN ONLY OPERATE IN CLASS G AIRSPACE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: “VFR ON TOP” ALLOWS A VFR‑QUALIFIED AIRCRAFT TO FLY ABOVE THE CLOUD LAYER
WHILE REMAINING UNDER VFR RULES.
QUESTION 62. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A PRIMARY FUNCTION OF THE TRAFFIC
MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (TMS) AT A BUSY TERMINAL?
A) PROVIDE WEATHER FORECASTS TO PILOTS
B) ISSUE RUNWAY LIGHTING CONFIGURATIONS
C) MANAGE GROUND STOPS, DELAYS, AND FLOW CONTROL TO BALANCE ARRIVAL AND DEPARTURE
DEMAND
D) PERFORM AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE SCHEDULING
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: TMS COORDINATES TRAFFIC FLOW, INCLUDING GROUND STOPS AND DELAY
MANAGEMENT, TO OPTIMIZE AIRPORT CAPACITY.
QUESTION 63. IN A “VISUAL APPROACH” TO A CLASS B AIRPORT, A PILOT MAY BE CLEARED TO
LAND WITHOUT AN ILS IF:
A) THE VISIBILITY IS AT LEAST 1 STATUTE MILE AND THE RUNWAY IS EQUIPPED WITH VISUAL AIDS
B) THE PILOT HAS A SPECIAL WAIVER FROM THE FAA
C) THE AIRCRAFT IS A MILITARY JET
D) THE ATC CONTROLLER HAS VISUAL CONTACT WITH THE AIRCRAFT
ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION: FOR A VISUAL APPROACH IN CLASS B, ATC MUST HAVE THE AIRCRAFT IN SIGHT AND
ISSUE THE CLEARANCE.
QUESTION 64. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A REQUIREMENT FOR A PILOT TO RECEIVE A
“STANDARD INSTRUMENT APPROACH” CLEARANCE?
A) THE AIRCRAFT MUST BE EQUIPPED WITH A VOR RECEIVER ONLY
B) THE PILOT MUST HAVE A CURRENT INSTRUMENT RATING
C) THE WEATHER MUST BE VFR
D) THE AIRCRAFT MUST BE A TURBINE‑POWERED JET
ANSWER: B
