Pediatric Nursing: A Comprehensive Review of Key Concepts, Exams of Pediatrics

A comprehensive review of multiple-choice questions and answers covering various pediatric conditions such as diabetes insipidus, roseola, status asthmaticus, sickle cell anemia, pyloric stenosis, acute glomerulonephritis, Hirschsprung's disease, appendicitis, and nephrotic syndrome. Each question assesses understanding of clinical manifestations, nursing interventions, and potential complications. Detailed answers offer insights into pathophysiology and management, benefiting students and professionals.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/27/2025

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ATI PEDIATRICS PROCTORED EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS
1. An assistive personnel (AP) on a pediatric unit brings to the attention of the nurse several client
measurements obtained with the morning vital signs. Which of the following clients should the nurse
plan to visit first?
a. 7-year-old client with diabetes insipidus and a urine specific gravity of 1.002
R A specific gravity of 1.002 is much lower than the expected reference range (1.005 to
1.030) and indicates urine output that is extremely dilute. The client is losing
excessive water and is in danger of hypovolemia. Therefore, the nurse should plan to
visit this client first.
b. 1-year-old client with roseola and a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F)
R A fever of 39°C (102.2°F) is an expected finding in a child with roseola; therefore, this
is not the client that the nurse should plan to visit first.
c. 4-year-old client with status asthmaticus and a pulse oximetry of 95%
R This value, 95%, is considered within the expected range; therefore, this is not the
client that the nurse should plan to visit first.
d. 10-year-old client with sickle cell anemia and a pain rating of 6 out of 10
R A pain level of 6 is not unexpected or life threatening. Therefore, this is not the client
that the nurse should plan to visit first.
2. A nurse is caring for an infant who is dehydrated and requires therapy. The nurse should monitor the
infant's response to therapy by
a. Weighing the infant at the same time every day.
R Weight is the most sensitive indicator of hydration status for clients of all ages. Weight
is the only measurement that reflects both measurable fluid balance changes and
incidental fluid loss.
b. Taking the infant's vital signs every 2 hr.
R Vital signs are not a reliable indicator of hydration status.
c. Measuring the infant's head circumference twice a day.
R Measuring head circumference gives no useful information regarding the hydration
status of the infant.
d. Counting the number of wet diapers every shift.
R Counting wet diapers is inadequate to accurately determine the hydration status of the
infant.
3. A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator. The nurse should make sure that the
maximum oxygen concentration to deliver to this client is
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ATI PEDIATRICS PROCTORED EXAM QUESTIONS

WITH ANSWERS

  1. An assistive personnel (AP) on a pediatric unit brings to the attention of the nurse several client measurements obtained with the morning vital signs. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to visit first? a. 7-year-old client with diabetes insipidus and a urine specific gravity of 1. R A specific gravity of 1.002 is much lower than the expected reference range (1.005 to 1.030) and indicates urine output that is extremely dilute. The client is losing excessive water and is in danger of hypovolemia. Therefore, the nurse should plan to visit this client first. b. 1-year-old client with roseola and a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) R A fever of 39°C (102.2°F) is an expected finding in a child with roseola; therefore, this is not the client that the nurse should plan to visit first. c. 4-year-old client with status asthmaticus and a pulse oximetry of 95% R This value, 95%, is considered within the expected range; therefore, this is not the client that the nurse should plan to visit first. d. 10-year-old client with sickle cell anemia and a pain rating of 6 out of 10 R A pain level of 6 is not unexpected or life threatening. Therefore, this is not the client that the nurse should plan to visit first.
  2. A nurse is caring for an infant who is dehydrated and requires therapy. The nurse should monitor the infant's response to therapy by a. Weighing the infant at the same time every day. R Weight is the most sensitive indicator of hydration status for clients of all ages. Weight is the only measurement that reflects both measurable fluid balance changes and incidental fluid loss. b. Taking the infant's vital signs every 2 hr. R Vital signs are not a reliable indicator of hydration status. c. Measuring the infant's head circumference twice a day. R Measuring head circumference gives no useful information regarding the hydration status of the infant. d. Counting the number of wet diapers every shift. R Counting wet diapers is inadequate to accurately determine the hydration status of the infant.
  3. A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator. The nurse should make sure that the maximum oxygen concentration to deliver to this client is

a. 30%. R This is a safe oxygen concentration to deliver to a preterm newborn, but not the maximum. Of course, the nurse should make sure the newborn receives the oxygen concentration the provider prescribes b. 40%. R Oxygen concentrations higher than 40% can cause retinal damage and visual impairment. This is the maximum concentration to deliver c. 50%. R This is an unsafe oxygen concentration to deliver to a preterm newborn. The nurse should make sure the newborn receives the oxygen concentration the provider prescribes d. 60%. R This is an unsafe oxygen concentration to deliver to a preterm newborn. The nurse should make sure the newborn receives the oxygen concentration the provider prescribes.

  1. A nurse is collecting data from an infant. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of pyloric stenosis? a. Absent bowel sounds R Visible gastric peristaltic waves moving from the left to the right are a clinical manifestation of pyloric stenosis. b. Increased sodium level R Vomiting causes a depletion of fluid and electrolytes, therefore a decrease in serum sodium levels is a clinical manifestation of pyloric stenosis. c. Projectile vomiting after feedings R Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing and thickening of the pyloric canal between the stomach and the duodenum resulting in projectile vomiting. d. Golf ball-sized mass over the left quadrant R An olive-shaped mass is palpable right of the umbilicus is a clinical manifestation of pyloric stenosis.
  2. A nurse is caring for a child with acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following should be the first action by the nurse? a. Place the child on a no-salt-added diet. R Placing the child on a no-salt-added diet is an appropriate action; however, it is not the first action the nurse should take. b. Check the child’s daily weight. R The first action the nurse should take using the nursing process is to collect data from the client; therefore, checking the child’s daily weight should be the first action the nurse takes. c. Educate the parents about potential complications. R Educating the parents about potential complications is an appropriate action;

b. “I am hungry and thirsty.”

R A client with a 2-day history of nausea and vomiting might be dehydrated and feel both hungry and thirsty. Children may report feeling hungry right after vomiting. Since this is not unexpected, this is not the most concerning statement to the nurse. c. “I’m tired and want to take a nap.” R A client with a 2-day history of nausea and vomiting might be dehydrated and exhausted. Clients of all ages may sleep when they are ill or in pain. Since this is not unexpected, this is not the most concerning statement to the nurse. d. “My belly doesn’t hurt anymore.” R The nurse's findings of a 2-day history of nausea, vomiting, and severe right lower quadrant pain, along with the laboratory findings of an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count are highly suspicious of appendicitis. Sudden relief of pain may be an early indicator of appendix rupture which would be a surgical emergency. Since the greatest risk to the client is peritonitis secondary to a burst appendix, this statement by the child is most concerning to the nurse.

  1. A nurse is collecting data from a child. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome? a. Polyuria R The glomerular membrane is permeable to albumin and is excreted thus changing the colloidal osmotic pressure. Therefore, a decrease in urine is a clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. b. Facial edema R The glomerular membrane is permeable to albumin and is excreted thus changing the colloidal osmotic pressure. Therefore, facial edema is a clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. c. Smokey brown urine R Urine will consist of proteinuria, hyaline casts, oval fat bodies, and decreased volume. Therefore, frothy urine is a clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. d. Hypertension R The glomerular membrane is permeable to albumin and is excreted thus changing the colloidal osmotic pressure leading to hypovolemia. Therefore, normal or hypotension is a clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome.
  2. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a tracheoesophageal fistula. Which of the following findings are associated with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Coughing b. Apnea c. Sunken abdomen d. Cyanosis e. Frothy saliva
  3. A nurse is collecting data from an infant who has hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which of the following

b. Induce vomiting R Vomiting should not be induced with caustic poisonings due to the risk for additional burns. c. Administer a chelating agent. R Chelating agents are not indicated for caustic poisonings. These agents are used with iron poisonings because they bind with metals and allow them to be excreted from the body. d. Monitor liver enzymes. R Monitoring liver enzymes is not indicated for caustic poisonings. Liver enzymes should be monitored with acetaminophen (Tylenol) poisoning.

  1. A nurse is caring for a 6-week-old infant admitted to the pediatric unit for evaluation of a suspected pyloric stenosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Metabolic acidosis R The client with pyloric stenosis would experience metabolic alkalosis. b. Effortless regurgitation R Effortless regurgitation is a manifestation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which is due to incompetence of the lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter. c. distended abdomen R The client with pyloric stenosis would experience muscle wasting and weight loss rather than a distended abdomen. d.Projectile vomiting R Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing of the pylorus, the outlet from the stomach to the small intestine, which does not allow for emptying of the stomach contents. Vomiting, which is usually mild at first, becomes more forceful and progresses to projectile vomiting.
  2. A nurse is caring for an infant who has inadequate motility of part of the intestine resulting in a mechanical obstruction. Which of the following disorders does the infant have? a. Encopresis R Encopresis is constipation with fecal soiling b. Enterocolitis R Enterocolitis is diarrhea involving the colon and intestines. c. Pyloric stenosis R Pyloric stenosis is a thickening of the pyloric channel resulting in an outlet obstruction. d. Hirschsprung disease R Hirschsprung disease is an inadequate motility of part of the intestine resulting in a mechanical obstruction.
  3. A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old client following abdominal surgery. Which of the following statements is appropriate for the nurse to use to encourage the child to take deep breaths? a. "You can't go to the playroom until you finish doing your deep breathing." R This is a punitive remark that the child could perceive as a threat or a challenge. b. "Let's play a game of blowing cotton balls across your table."

R By engaging the child in a form of play, the nurse may distract him from the discomfort of deep breathing. c. "I'll leave your blow bottle here on your table, so you can use it yourself like a big kid." R Since deep breathing will be uncomfortable, it is unlikely that the child will perform it without coaching. d. "I will give you a sticker each time you take a deep breath." R This action is going to be painful, and the child may not respond to positive reinforcement after the pain.

  1. A charge nurse, following hospital policy, reports an incident of suspected child abuse. The parent of the child becomes upset and demands to know the reason for the nurse's action. The appropriate nursing response to the parent should be which of the following? a. "As a nurse, I am required by law to report incidents of suspected child abuse." R A nurse is required by law to report suspected child abuse. Therefore, this is a truthful, non-accusatory response to the parent. b. "I am unable to discuss this, but you can talk to my supervisor." R The nurse does not need clarification by her supervisor to speak with the parent. c. “Perhaps you should leave before I call security” R The nurse should not ask the parent to leave in case permission is needed for surgery or a procedure. d. "I reported the incident to my supervisor who decided to contact the authorities." R The nurse supervisor does not decide to contact the authorities
  2. A public health nurse is visiting an older adult client who lives with a family member. The nurse assesses the client and identifies several bruises in various stages of healing. The client explains that the bruises are a result of "clumsiness," and the client's family member agrees. However, based on the location and distribution of the bruises, the nurse suspects the client may be abused. Which of the following actions should the nurse should take first? a. Document the bruises in the client's chart. R Although documenting the bruises in the client's chart may be an appropriate action to take, it is not the initial action to promote the client's safety. b. Follow the agency's guidelines for reporting suspected abuse. R Reporting the suspected abuse, according to the guidelines of the agency, is the action most likely to promote the client's safety. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, after physiological needs are met, safety needs take priority. This action will help to ensure the client's safety. c. Institute more frequent visits to the client's home. R Although instituting more frequent visits to the client's home may be an appropriate action to take, it is not the initial action to promote the client's safety. d. Discuss installing hand rails in the client's home. R Although installing hand rails in the client's home may be an appropriate action to

R The nurse should instruct the client to eat small, frequent meals but to avoid eating with 3 hr of bedtime. d. Season foods with black pepper. R The nurse should instruct the client to avoid items such as black and red pepper that can increase gastric acid secretion.

  1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription of a nasogastric tube (NG) to treat a pyloric obstruction. Which of the following rationales for the use of the nasogastric tube should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Determine the pH of the gastric secretions. R Determining the pH of gastric secretions is one way to determine the correct placement of the NG tube; however it is not the purpose for the client who has a pyloric obstruction. b. Supply nutrients via tube feedings. R Clients who have difficulty swallowing or at risk for aspiration may receive feedings through an NG tube. Because of the obstruction however, tube feedings are contraindicated for this client. c. Decompress the stomach. R A pyloric obstruction, also called gastric outlet obstruction, is caused by edema, scarring, or spasm, often the result of gastritis or peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should inform the client that because the stomach is dilated and may contain undigested food, it must be decompressed, necessitating the placement of an NG tube. d. Administer medications. R Medications that are liquid or can be safely crushed may be administered through the NG tube if a client is at risk for aspiration or unable to swallow. However, the client who has a pyloric obstruction will not be given any food or medications by mouth until the obstruction is resolved.
  2. A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has a long history of diabetes mellitus and is being admitted to the emergency department confused, flushed, and with an acetone odor on the breath. Diabetic ketoacidosis is suspected. The nurse should anticipate using which of the following types of insulin to treat this client? a. NPH insulin R Isophane NPH insulin is intermediate-acting. It has an onset of action of 1 to 3 hr and is not appropriate for emergency treatment of ketoacidosis. b. Insulin glargine R Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin, with an onset of 2 to 4 hr. It is not appropriate for emergency treatment of ketoacidosis. c. Insulin detemir R Insulin detemir is an intermediate-acting insulin. It has an onset of action of 1 hr and is not appropriate for emergency treatment of ketoacidosis.

d. Regular insulin R Regular insulin is classified as a short-acting insulin. It can be given intravenously with an onset of action of less than 30 min. This is the insulin that is most appropriate in emergency situations of severe hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis

  1. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Dehydration R Diabetes insipidus causes excessive excretion of dilute urine, resulting in dehydration. b. Polyphagia R Polyphagia is a finding of diabetes mellitus, not insipidus. c. Hyperglycemia R Hyperglycemia is a finding of diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. d. Bradycardia R Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a manifestation of diabetes insipidus.
  2. A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who reports feeling shaky and having palpitations. When the nurse finds the client’s blood glucose to be 48 mg/dL on the glucometer, he should give the client which of the following? a. Graham crackers R After establishing that the client has hypoglycemia, the nurse should give the client about 15 g of a rapid-acting, concentrated carbohydrate, such as 4 oz of fruit juice, 8 oz of skim milk, 3 tsp of sugar or honey, 3 graham crackers, or commercially prepared glucose tablets. The nurse should recheck the client's blood glucose level in 15 minutes. b. 1 tsp sugar R This does not contain enough carbohydrate to reverse hypoglycemia. The usual recommendation is 4 tsp of sugar or 1 tablespoon of honey. c. 4 oz diet soda R The client who has hypoglycemia requires treatment with 15g of carbohydrates to raise the blood glucose level. Diet soda does not contain the required carbohydrates, but has artificial sweeteners. The nurse can administer 4 oz of regular soda, however d. 4 oz skim milk i. This does not contain enough carbohydrate to reverse hypoglycemia. The usual recommendation is 8 oz of skim milk in order to provide 15 g of carbohydrates
  3. A nurse is preparing to perform an abdominal assessment on a child. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the selected order of performance. Use all the steps.) a. Inspection b. Superficial palpation

c. A story book about a child who has diabetes R This activity does not allow an outlet for working out the feelings that the child is unable to verbalize at the age of 4 d. A period of play in the playroom R This is not a therapeutic activity in this situation

  1. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for an infant who has a 2-day history of vomiting and an elevated temperature. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as the most reliable indicator of fluid loss? a. Body weight b. Skin integrity c. Blood pressure d. Respiratory rate
  2. A nurse is caring for a child who has Addison's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Teach the parents about cortisol replacement therapy. b. Place the child on a low-sodium diet. c. Monitor the child for fluid volume excess. d. Discuss the manifestations of hypoglycemia with the parents.
  3. A nurse is assessing a child and notes several bruises. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Report the suspected abuse to the authorities. b. Obtain a detailed history. c. Ask a psychiatrist to talk with the parents. d. Separate the child from the parents.
  4. A nurse is assessing an adolescent who has an exacerbation of Graves' disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Weight gain b. Bradycardia c. Lethargy d. Heat intolerance
  5. A school nurse is assessing an adolescent who reports feeling shaky and is having difficulty speaking and concentrating on the questions the nurse is asking. The nurse checks the adolescent's blood glucose level and identifies a value of 55 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Dry, flushed skin b. Deep, rapid respirations c. Tachycardia d. Polyuria
  1. A nurse is caring for a child who has been physically abused by a family member. Which of the following statements should the nurse to say to the child? a. "I promise I won't tell anyone about this." b. "Let's discuss what happened with your family." c. "Your family is bad for doing this to you." d. "It is not your fault that this happened."
  2. A nurse is admitting a 6-month-old infant who has dehydration. Which of the following amounts of urinary output should indicate to the nurse that the treatment has corrected the fluid imbalance? a. 0.5 mL/kg/hr b. 2 mL/kg/hr c. 7.5 mL/kg/hr d. 15 mL/kg/hr
  3. A nurse is caring for a 6-month-old infant who has a prescription for clear liquids by mouth after a repair of an intussusception. Which of the following fluids should the nurse select for the infant? a. Oral electrolyte solution b. Half-strength infant formula c. Half-strength orange juice d. Sterile water
  4. A nurse is caring for a child who has acute gastroenteritis but is able to tolerate oral fluids. The nurse should anticipate providing which of the following types of fluid? a. Broth b. Water c. Diluted apple juice d. Oral rehydration solution
  5. A nurse is providing teaching about self-administration of insulin to the parent of a school-age child who has a new DM. Which of the following indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will be sure my child aspirates before injuries the insulin" b. "The insulin can be injected anywhere there is adipose tissue" c. "I will be sure my child rotates sites after 5 injects in one area" d. "The insulin should be injected at a 90 degree angle"
  6. Which condition in a child should alert a nurse for increased fluid requirements? a. Fever R Fever leads to great insensible fluid loss in young children because of increased body surface area relative to fluid volume. Respiratory rate influences insensible fluid loss and should be monitored in the mechanically ventilated child. Congestive heart failure is a case of fluid overload in children. Increased ICP does not lead to increased fluid

a. Weight gain b. Bradycardia c. Poor skin turgor R Clinical manifestations of dehydration include poor skin turgor, weight loss, lethargy, and tachycardia. The infant would have prolonged capillary refill, not brisk. d. Brisk capillary refill

  1. Parents call the clinic and report that their toddler has had acute diarrhea for 24 hours. The nurse should further ask the parents if the toddler has which associated factor that is causing the acute diarrhea? a. Celiac disease b. Antibiotic therapy R Acute diarrhea is a sudden increase in frequency and change in consistency of stools and may be associated with antibiotic therapy. Celiac disease is a problem with gluten intolerance and may cause chronic diarrhea if not identified and managed appropriately. Immunodeficiency would occur with chronic diarrhea. Protein malnutrition or kwashiorkor causes chronic diarrhea from lowered resistance to infection. c. Immunodeficiency d. Protein malnutrition
  2. Which therapeutic management should the nurse prepare to initiate first for a child with acute diarrhea and moderate dehydration? a. Clear liquids b. Adsorbents, such as kaolin and pectin c. Oral rehydration solution (ORS) R ORS is the first treatment for acute diarrhea. Clear liquids are not recommended because they contain too much sugar, which may contribute to diarrhea. Adsorbents are not recommended. Antidiarrheals are not recommended because they do not get rid of pathogens. d. Antidiarrheal medications such as paregoric
  3. A school-age child with diarrhea has been rehydrated. The nurse is discussing the child’s diet with the family. Which statement by the parent would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? a. “I will keep my child on a clear liquid diet for the next 24 hours.” b. “I should encourage my child to drink carbonated drinks but avoid food for the next 24 hours.” c. “I will offer my child bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast for the next 48 hours.” d. “I should have my child eat a normal diet with easily digested foods for the next 48 Hours.” R Easily digested foods such as cereals, cooked vegetables, and meats should be provided for the child. Early reintroduction of nutrients is desirable. Continued feeding or reintroduction of a regular diet has no adverse effects and actually lessens

the severity and duration of the illness. Clear liquids and carbonated drinks have high carbohydrate content and few electrolytes. Caffeinated beverages should be avoided because caffeine is a mild diuretic. The BRAT diet has little nutritional value and is high in carbohydrates.

  1. A young child is brought to the emergency department with severe dehydration secondary to acute diarrhea and vomiting. Therapeutic management of this child should begin with: a. intravenous (IV) fluids. R In children with severe dehydration, IV fluids are initiated. ORS is acceptable therapy if the dehydration is not severe. Diarrhea is not managed by using clear liquids by mouth. These fluids have a high carbohydrate content, low electrolyte content, and high osmolality. Antidiarrheal medications are not recommended for the treatment of acute infectious diarrhea. b. ORS. c. clear liquids, 1 to 2 ounces at a time. d. administration of antidiarrheal medication.
  2. A mother calls the clinic nurse about her 4-year-old son who has acute diarrhea. She has been giving him the antidiarrheal drug loperamide (Imodium A-D). The nurse’s response should be based on knowledge that this drug is: a. not indicated. R Antidiarrheal medications are not recommended for the treatment of acute infectious diarrhea. These medications have adverse effects and toxicity, such as worsening of the diarrhea because of slowing of motility and ileus, or a

water is not used. This is a hypotonic solution and can cause rapid fluid shift, resulting in fluid overload. Oil-retention enemas will not achieve the “until clear” result. Phosphate enemas are not advised for children because of the harsh action of the ingredients. The osmotic effects of the phosphate enema can result in diarrhea, which can lead to metabolic acidosis. c. oil retention. d. phosphate preparation.

  1. A 3-year-old child with Hirschsprung disease is hospitalized for surgery. A temporary colostomy will be necessary. The nurse should recognize that preparing this child psychologically is: a. not necessary because of child’s age. b. not necessary because colostomy is temporary. c. necessary because it will be an adjustment. R The child’s age dictates the type and extent of psychological preparation. When a colostomy is performed, the child who is at least preschool age is told about the procedure and what to expect in concrete terms, with the use of visual aids. It is necessary to prepare a 3-year-old child for procedures. The preschooler is not yet concerned with body image. d. necessary because the child must deal with a negative body image.
  1. The nurse is explaining to a parent how to care for a school-age child with vomiting associated with a viral illness. Which action should the nurse include? a. Avoid carbohydrate-containing liquids. b. Give nothing by mouth for 24 hours. c. Brush teeth or rinse mouth after vomiting. R It is important to emphasize the need for the child to brush the teeth or rinse the mouth after vomiting to dilute the hydrochloric acid that comes in contact with the teeth. Ad libitum administration of glucose-electrolyte solution to an alert child will help restore water and electrolytes satisfactorily. It is important to include carbohydrate to spare body protein and avoid ketosis. d. Give plain water until vomiting ceases for at least 24 hours.
  2. A 4-month-old infant has gastroesophageal reflux (GER) but is thriving without other complications. Which should the nurse suggest to minimize reflux? a. Place in Trendelenburg position after eating. b. Thicken formula with rice cereal. R Small, frequent feedings of formula combined with 1 teaspoon to 1 tablespoon of rice cereal per ounce of formula has been recommended. Milk-thickening agents have been shown to decrease the number of episodes of vomiting and to increase the caloric density of the formula. This may benefit infants who are underweight as a result of GER disease. Placing the child in a Trendelenburg position would increase the reflux. Continuous nasogastric feedings are reserved for infants with severe reflux and failure to thrive. c. Give continuous nasogastric tube feedings. d. Give larger, less frequent feedings.
  3. A histamine-receptor antagonist such as cimetidine (Tagamet) or ranitidine (Zantac) is ordered for an infant with GER. The purpose of this is to: a. prevent reflux. b. prevent hematemesis. c. reduce gastric acid production. R The mechanism of action of histamine-receptor antagonists is to reduce the amount of acid present in gastric contents and perhaps prevent esophagitis. Preventing reflux or hematemesis and increasing gastric acid production are not the modes of action of histamine-receptor antagonists. d. increase gastric acid production.
  4. Which clinical manifestation would be the most suggestive of acute appendicitis? a. Rebound tenderness b. Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding c. Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating d. Abdominal pain that is most intense at McBurney point R Pain is the cardinal feature. It is initially generalized, usually periumbilical. The pain