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ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2026 based on the latest test banks and NGN-style quest, Exams of Nursing

ATI College-TustinNursing

ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2026 based on the latest test banks and NGN-style questions.

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 04/24/2026

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ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2026 based
on the latest test banks and NGN-style questions
SECTION 1: SAFETY & INFECTION CONTROL (Questions 1-30)
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has influenza and isolation precautions in place. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?
A) Wear a mask when working within 3 feet of the client
B) Administer metronidazole
C) Don protective eyewear before entering the room
D) Place the client in a negative airflow room
Answer: A – Influenza is droplet precautions; mask within 3 feet prevents transmission.
2. A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of
transmission precautions should the nurse plan to initiate?
A) Droplet
B) Airborne
C) Protective environment
D) Contact
Answer: B – TB requires airborne precautions (N95 respirator, negative pressure room).
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has Clostridium difficile. Which action is most appropriate?
A) Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer after contact
B) Wear a mask when entering the room
C) Use soap and water for hand hygiene
D) Place client in positive pressure room
Answer: C – Alcohol-based sanitizer does not kill C. diff spores; soap and water required.
4. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG
tube. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Attach restraints to side rails
B) Apply restraints to allow as little movement as possible
C) Allow two fingers to fit between skin and restraint
D) Remove restraints every 4 hours
Answer: C – Two-finger rule prevents circulatory impairment.
5. A charge nurse is teaching newly licensed nurses about restraints. In which situation should
restraints be applied?
A) Client pacing in hallway
B) As part of a fall prevention program
C) At family's request
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Download ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2026 based on the latest test banks and NGN-style quest and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

ATI RN Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2026 based

on the latest test banks and NGN-style questions

SECTION 1: SAFETY & INFECTION CONTROL (Questions 1-30)

  1. A nurse is caring for a client who has influenza and isolation precautions in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection? A) Wear a mask when working within 3 feet of the client B) Administer metronidazole C) Don protective eyewear before entering the room D) Place the client in a negative airflow room Answer: A – Influenza is droplet precautions; mask within 3 feet prevents transmission.
  2. A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse plan to initiate? A) Droplet B) Airborne C) Protective environment D) Contact Answer: B – TB requires airborne precautions (N95 respirator, negative pressure room).
  3. A nurse is caring for a client who has Clostridium difficile. Which action is most appropriate? A) Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer after contact B) Wear a mask when entering the room C) Use soap and water for hand hygiene D) Place client in positive pressure room Answer: C – Alcohol-based sanitizer does not kill C. diff spores; soap and water required.
  4. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG tube. Which action should the nurse take? A) Attach restraints to side rails B) Apply restraints to allow as little movement as possible C) Allow two fingers to fit between skin and restraint D) Remove restraints every 4 hours Answer: C – Two-finger rule prevents circulatory impairment.
  5. A charge nurse is teaching newly licensed nurses about restraints. In which situation should restraints be applied? A) Client pacing in hallway B) As part of a fall prevention program C) At family's request

D) Client poses threat to self Answer: D – Restraints only when immediate threat and less restrictive measures failed.

  1. A parent calls that a child swallowed paint thinner. Child is awake and alert. Which response should the nurse make? A) "Have your child drink one large glass of water" B) "Hang up and call a poison control center hotline" C) "Bring your child to the clinic later today" D) "Induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac" Answer: B – Poison control provides immediate specific instructions.
  2. A nurse is preparing to transfer a client from bed to wheelchair. Which action ensures safety? A) Lower bed to highest position B) Lock wheels of wheelchair C) Move client without transfer belt D) Position wheelchair on client's weak side Answer: B – Locking wheels prevents movement during transfer.
  3. A nurse is assisting a client with ambulation. Which intervention promotes safety? A) Allow client to walk without shoes B) Use a gait belt around the client's waist C) Walk behind client without support D) Encourage rapid walking Answer: B – Gait belt provides stability and prevents falls.
  4. A nurse is caring for a client at risk for falls. Which environmental modification is most effective? A) Keep floor cluttered B) Ensure adequate lighting C) Place bed in highest position D) Remove call light from reach Answer: B – Adequate lighting helps client see obstacles.
  5. A nurse is applying restraints to a confused client. What is the priority action? A) Secure restraints tightly B) Check skin every 2 hours C) Obtain a provider's order D) Remove restraints every 4 hours Answer: C – Provider order required before applying restraints.
  6. A nurse is teaching about fire safety in the home. Which instruction is most appropriate? A) Store flammable items near heaters B) Develop escape plan with two exits C) Disable smoke alarms during cooking

C) Gown and gloves D) Eye protection only Answer: C – Contact precautions require gown and gloves.

  1. A nurse is caring for a client who requires droplet precautions. Which PPE should the nurse don before entering? A) Gown, gloves, mask, and eye protection B) N95 respirator and gown C) Surgical mask only D) Gown and gloves only Answer: A – Droplet precautions require full PPE including eye protection.
  2. A nurse is removing PPE after caring for a client on contact precautions. Which item should the nurse remove first? A) Mask B) Gown C) Gloves D) Eye protection Answer: C – Gloves are most contaminated; remove first.
  3. A nurse is teaching about cane use. Which instruction should the nurse include? A) Hold cane on same side as weak leg B) Advance cane 6-12 inches with each step C) Hold cane on opposite side of weak leg D) Move stronger leg first, then cane Answer: C – Cane on strong side provides stability.
  4. A nurse is caring for a client with a surgical wound. Which laboratory value places the client at risk for poor wound healing? A) Serum albumin 3 g/dL B) Total lymphocyte count 2400 mm³ C) HCT 42% D) HGB 16 g/dL Answer: A – Low albumin (<3.5 g/dL) impairs wound healing.
  5. A nurse is preparing to check a client's blood pressure. Which action should the nurse take? A) Apply cuff above antecubital fossa B) Use cuff width that is 40% of arm circumference C) Have client sit with arm above heart level D) Release pressure 5-6 mm per second Answer: B – ATI recommends cuff width 40% of arm circumference.
  6. A nurse is preparing to perform nasal tracheal suctioning. Which action is appropriate? A) Hold suction catheter with clean non-dominant hand

B) Apply suction for 20-30 seconds C) Reuse catheter later D) Use surgical asepsis Answer: D – Tracheal suctioning requires sterile technique.

  1. A nurse is receiving a prescription for a client with dysphagia following stroke. Which prescription should the nurse clarify? A) Dietitian consult B) Speech therapy referral C) Oral suction at bedside D) Clear liquids Answer: D – Clear liquids can cause aspiration; thickened liquids required.
  2. A nurse is administering a large volume enema. Identify the correct sequence after lubrication:
  3. Insert enema tube into rectum
  4. Administer enema solution
  5. Clamp enema tube
  6. Remove enema tube
  7. Wrap end with disposable tissue Answer: 1 → 2 → 3 → 5 → 4
  8. A nurse is inserting an NG tube for gastric decompression. Which action verifies proper placement? A) Place end of tube in water to observe bubbling B) Auscultate after injecting sterile water C) Assess client's gag reflex D) Measure pH of gastric aspirate Answer: D – pH of gastric aspirate (1-5) confirms gastric placement.
  9. A nurse is teaching newly licensed nurses about the Braden Scale. Which statement indicates understanding? A) "Client's age is part of the measurement" B) "The scale measures six elements" C) "Higher score means higher pressure ulcer risk" D) "Each element ranges from 1 to 5 points" Answer: B – Six elements: sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, friction/shear.
  10. A nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the nurse take? A) Clean skin around stoma with normal saline B) Secure ties with one finger snugly underneath C) Soak outer cannula in warm tap water D) Use cotton tip applicator to clean inner cannula
  1. A nurse is preparing to transfer a partially weight-bearing client from bed to chair. Which action should the nurse take? A) Keep knees straight when moving client B) Position chair at 90-degree angle to bed C) Stand with feet together when lifting D) Have client bear weight on stronger leg Answer: D – Weight on stronger leg provides stability.
  2. A nurse manager is planning to observe a newly licensed nurse perform a procedure. Which role is the nurse manager functioning in? A) Case manager B) Client educator C) Client care provider D) Client advocate Answer: D – Ensuring correct technique advocates for client safety.
  3. To ensure client safety, a nurse manager should identify which situation as a priority for intervention? A) Staff member not wearing name badge B) Medication left unsecured at bedside C) Incomplete documentation D) Staff member taking long breaks Answer: B – Unsecured medication is immediate safety risk.
  4. A charge nurse is making shift assignments. Which client should be assigned to the most experienced RN? A) Client with routine morning medications B) Client with chest tube with 200 mL bloody drainage in past hour C) Client requesting discharge instructions D) Client needing stage 2 pressure injury dressing change Answer: B – Active bleeding requires expert assessment.
  5. A nurse delegates vital sign measurement to AP. AP reports BP 88/50. What should the nurse do next? A) Document reading as reported B) Ask AP to recheck BP C) Assess patient personally D) Ignore reading if patient comfortable Answer: C – RN must personally assess unexpected findings.
  6. An RN delegates sterile dressing change for stage 2 pressure injury. Which team member is most appropriate? A) AP

B) LPN with validated competency C) Another RN D) Nursing student Answer: B – LPNs can perform sterile dressing changes with competency validation at facilities where permitted.

  1. A nurse is evaluating a new graduate's delegation skills. Which statement indicates understanding? A) "I can delegate any task I'm too busy to complete" B) "I can delegate tasks that don't require nursing judgment" C) "Once delegated, I'm not responsible for outcome" D) "Delegation means no supervision needed" Answer: B – Delegation transfers tasks not requiring nursing judgment.
  2. A charge nurse notes a staff member takes longer breaks than allowed. What is the first action? A) Report to nurse manager immediately B) Ignore behavior to avoid conflict C) Discuss observation privately with staff member D) Post memo about break policies Answer: C – Address directly and respectfully first.
  3. Before delegating urinary catheter removal to a newly hired AP, what must the nurse ensure? A) AP has performed skill before and facility policy permits B) AP asks patient for permission C) Nurse will observe every move D) Provider orders AP to perform task Answer: A – Right task, right circumstance, right person must be ensured.
  4. A nurse is delegating care to an LPN and AP. Which task should be assigned to the LPN? A) Ambulate stable post-operative patient B) Bathe incontinent patient C) Administer scheduled oral medication to stable patient D) Feed patient requiring assistance Answer: C – LPNs can administer oral medications to stable patients.
  5. A charge nurse is evaluating a new graduate's delegation. Which statement requires follow-up? A) "I can delegate vital signs to AP" B) "I can delegate ambulation to AP" C) "I can delegate medication teaching to LPN" D) "I can delegate oral meds to LPN for stable patient" Answer: C – Teaching requires RN judgment and cannot be delegated.

Answer: D – Rolling NPH resuspends particles; "clear before cloudy" rule.

  1. A nurse is administering a client's medications. The client states, "I don't want to take that medication." Which action should the nurse take? A) Administer medication anyway B) Explain benefits of medication C) Document refusal and notify provider D) Ask family to convince client Answer: C – Client has right to refuse; document and notify provider.
  2. A nurse is preparing to administer medication through an NG tube. Which action should the nurse take first? A) Crush all medications B) Verify tube placement C) Administer without flushing D) Use large syringe for rapid delivery Answer: B – Verify placement first to prevent lung delivery.
  3. A nurse is teaching about insulin storage. Which statement by the client indicates understanding? A) "I can use insulin that has been frozen" B) "I should store open insulin in the freezer" C) "I can store open insulin at room temperature for up to 4 weeks" D) "I should discard insulin after 1 week" Answer: C – Open insulin vials can be stored at room temperature for 28 days.
  4. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously. Which action is correct? A) Expel air bubble before injection B) Massage site after injection C) Inject into deltoid muscle D) Leave air bubble in syringe Answer: D – Air bubble prevents medication from leaking back.
  5. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most important before starting? A) Verify client identity with two identifiers B) Warm blood to room temperature C) Administer antihistamine pre-transfusion D) Start transfusion at 50 mL/hour Answer: A – Two identifiers prevent transfusion reaction to wrong patient.
  6. A nurse is teaching about transdermal patch administration. Which instruction should the nurse include? A) Apply patch to same site each time

B) Cut patch if dose needs to be reduced C) Remove old patch before applying new D) Apply patch over bony prominence Answer: C – Remove old patch to prevent overdose.

  1. A nurse is preparing to administer otic drops to an adult. Which action is correct? A) Pull pinna down and back B) Pull pinna up and back C) Instill drops directly over eardrum D) Warm medication in microwave Answer: B – For adults, pull pinna up and back to straighten ear canal.
  2. A client with chest pain has a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual. Which instruction should the nurse provide? A) Swallow tablet with water B) Place tablet between cheek and gum C) Place tablet under tongue and let dissolve D) Chew tablet for faster effect Answer: C – Sublingual means under tongue for rapid absorption.
  3. A nurse is preparing to administer ophthalmic drops. Which action is correct? A) Administer drops directly onto cornea B) Clean eye from outer to inner canthus C) Have client look up and place drop in lower conjunctival sac D) Apply pressure to inner canthus after administration Answer: D – Pressure to inner canthus prevents systemic absorption.
  4. A nurse is administering a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which action is correct? A) Use a 20-gauge needle B) Aspirate before injecting C) Massage site after injection D) Do not aspirate before injecting Answer: D – Do not aspirate for anticoagulants to prevent bleeding.
  5. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 2-year-old child. Which site is preferred? A) Ventrogluteal B) Dorsogluteal C) Deltoid D) Vastus lateralis Answer: D – Vastus lateralis is preferred for infants and young children.
  1. A nurse is assessing a client who received morphine 30 minutes ago. Which finding is the nurse's priority? A) Last bowel movement 3 days ago B) Reports pain 8/ C) Distended bladder D) Respiratory rate 7/min Answer: D – Respiratory rate 7 indicates life-threatening respiratory depression.
  2. A nurse is teaching about performing breast self-examinations. Which statement indicates understanding? A) "I should perform self-exam the week my period starts" B) "I should use different patterns on each breast" C) "I should use palm of hand to apply pressure" D) "I should make circular motions with fingertips under my arms" Answer: D – Circular motions with fingertips over entire breast including axilla.
  3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been treated multiple times for STIs. Which response should the nurse take? A) "You must have too many sexual partners" B) "Why do you keep letting this happen?" C) "Let's explore why this might be re-occurring" D) "Don't you have access to condoms?" Answer: C – Therapeutic, non-judgmental response.
  4. A nurse enters the room of a client who has a seizure disorder. The client is sitting in a chair and begins to experience a seizure. Which action should the nurse take first? A) Move items away from client B) Turn client onto side C) Help client lie on floor D) Loosen client's clothing Answer: C – Lowering to floor prevents fall from chair.
  5. A nurse is testing for conduction deafness by performing Weber's test. Which action should the nurse take? A) Move vibrating tuning fork in front of ear canals B) Place base of vibrating tuning fork on mastoid process C) Place base of vibrating tuning fork on top of client's head D) Count how long client hears tuning fork Answer: C – Weber's test places tuning fork on midline of skull.
  6. A nurse is obtaining a medication history from a client who asks about taking ginkgo biloba. The nurse should identify which medication can interact adversely with this supplement? A) Acetaminophen B) Ibuprofen

C) Warfarin D) Amoxicillin Answer: C – Ginkgo biloba increases bleeding risk with anticoagulants.

  1. A nurse is assessing a client's readiness to learn about diabetes self-management. Which assessment finding indicates the client is ready to learn? A) Client states, "I'll never be able to give myself shots" B) Client asks, "How do I check my blood sugar?" C) Client is sleeping when nurse enters D) Client watches television during teaching Answer: B – Asking questions indicates readiness.
  2. A nurse is providing care for a client on bed rest. Which intervention helps maintain airway latency? A) Encourage deep breathing and coughing B) Restrict fluids C) Keep client supine D) Administer sedatives Answer: A – Deep breathing and coughing prevent atelectasis.
  3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and at risk for DVT. Which intervention should be included? A) Apply elastic stockings B) Keep client in supine position C) Encourage leg crossing D) Restrict fluids Answer: A – Elastic stockings promote venous return.
  4. A client who is on bed rest should use which device to maintain respiratory function? A) Incentive spirometer B) Peak flow meter C) Nebulizer D) Oxygen mask Answer: A – Incentive spirometer encourages deep breathing.

SECTION 5: ELIMINATION & MOBILITY (Questions 76-90)

  1. A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which finding requires immediate action? A) Urine output 30 mL/hour B) Cloudy, foul-smelling urine C) No urine output for 4 hours

D) Change catheter every 24 hours Answer: B – Keeping bag below bladder prevents backflow.

  1. A nurse is caring for a client with constipation. Which intervention should the nurse recommend? A) Increase intake of processed foods B) Decrease physical activity C) Increase fluid intake D) Take laxatives daily Answer: C – Increased fluids and fiber help relieve constipation.
  2. A nurse is caring for a client who reports abdominal cramping and diarrhea after meals. Which food should the nurse identify as a possible trigger? A) White rice B) Bananas C) Whole grain bread D) Applesauce Answer: C – Whole grains increase bowel motility.
  3. A client is learning intermittent self-catheterization. Which instruction should the nurse include? A) Use sterile technique at home B) Reuse catheter after rinsing with tap water C) Clean catheter with alcohol before each use D) Use a new sterile catheter each time Answer: B – Clean technique with soap and water is acceptable for home use.
  4. A nurse is talking with a parent about toilet training. Which statement indicates readiness? A) Toddler hides when having bowel movement B) Toddler is 12 months old C) Toddler refuses to sit on potty D) Toddler's diaper is dry for 1 hour Answer: A – Recognizing need to eliminate indicates readiness.
  5. A nurse is teaching about ostomy care. Which statement indicates understanding? A) "I should change my pouch every day" B) "I should measure my stoma weekly" C) "I should cut the wafer 1/8 inch larger than my stoma" D) "I should use adhesive remover sprays" Answer: C – Proper fit prevents leakage and skin breakdown.
  6. A nurse is assessing a client for urinary retention. Which finding is most concerning? A) Suprapubic distention B) Urgency

C) Frequency D) Nocturia Answer: A – Suprapubic distention indicates bladder overdistention.

  1. A nurse is caring for a client with a condom catheter. Which finding requires intervention? A) Catheter is snug but not tight B) Client is circumcised C) Catheter is applied with adhesive strip D) Catheter is twisted Answer: D – Twisted catheter prevents urine flow.
  2. A nurse is teaching a client with a new ileostomy about diet. Which instruction should the nurse include? A) "Eat high-fiber foods to thicken output" B) "Chew food thoroughly" C) "Drink fluids through a straw" D) "Avoid all vegetables" Answer: B – Chewing thoroughly prevents obstruction.

SECTION 6: NUTRITION & HYDRATION (Questions 91-105)

  1. A nurse is calculating the intake of a client. Client drank 6 oz water, 4 oz milk, and 8 oz juice. What is the total intake in mL? A) 360 mL B) 480 mL C) 540 mL D) 600 mL Answer: C – 1 oz = 30 mL; 18 oz × 30 = 540 mL.
  2. A client is NPO for surgery. Which action should the nurse take? A) Allow client to have ice chips B) Remove water pitcher from bedside C) Tell client nothing to eat but can drink D) Give hard candy to suck on Answer: B – Remove water pitcher to prevent accidental ingestion.
  3. A nurse is caring for a client with dysphagia. Which action is most important? A) Place client in semi-Fowler's position for meals B) Offer thin liquids C) Allow client to feed self D) Place food on strong side of mouth Answer: A – Semi-Fowler's prevents aspiration.
  1. A nurse is preparing to insert an NG tube. Which position should the client be in? A) Supine B) High Fowler's C) Left side-lying D) Trendelenburg Answer: B – High Fowler's facilitates passage.
  2. A nurse is caring for a client with a new gastrostomy tube. Which finding indicates proper placement before feeding? A) Coughing during placement B) Gastric pH of 5 C) Tube clamped for 24 hours D) Residual of 300 mL Answer: B – pH less than 5 confirms gastric placement.
  3. A client with heart failure has a fluid restriction order. Which intervention helps manage thirst? A) Encourage hard candy B) Offer large glasses of water C) Provide salty snacks D) Restrict ice chips completely Answer: A – Hard candy alleviates thirst without adding fluid.
  4. A nurse is calculating a client's output. Client voided 200 mL, had 100 mL nasogastric output, and 50 mL wound drainage. What is total output? A) 250 mL B) 300 mL C) 350 mL D) 400 mL Answer: C – 200 + 100 + 50 = 350 mL.
  5. A nurse is teaching a client with GERD about dietary modifications. Which food should be avoided? A) Bananas B) Spicy foods C) Rice D) Lean meats Answer: B – Spicy foods exacerbate GERD symptoms.
  6. A client has a new prescription for a low-residue diet. Which food is appropriate? A) Whole wheat bread B) White rice C) Popcorn

D) Berries with seeds Answer: B – White rice is low in fiber.

SECTION 7: LEGAL & ETHICAL ISSUES (Questions 106-120)

  1. A client with a new chronic illness diagnosis states, "The doctor must be wrong. I can't be that sick." Which stage of grief is the client demonstrating? A) Acceptance B) Denial C) Anger D) Depression Answer: B – Denial is disbelief about diagnosis.
  2. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which situation represents an ethical dilemma? A) Surgeon refuses responsibility for wrong-site surgery B) Client's drug plan won't pay for medications C) Client refuses ostomy teaching D) Family asks provider not to tell terminal diagnosis to client Answer: D – Truth-telling vs. family request creates ethical dilemma.
  3. A nurse is speaking with a client who has a new terminal diagnosis. Which response should the nurse make? A) "The doctor must be wrong" B) "Why do you think that?" C) "What have you been told about your condition?" D) "Don't worry; you will get better" Answer: C – Assess what the client already knows first.
  4. A nurse is caring for a client who refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons. What should the nurse do? A) Administer blood anyway to save life B) Respect refusal and notify provider C) Ask family to convince client D) Call ethics committee for emergency consent Answer: B – Client has right to refuse even life-saving treatment.
  5. A nurse is caring for a client with a DNR order who has a cardiac arrest. The nurse should: A) Begin CPR immediately B) Provide comfort care but not start CPR C) Call a code blue D) Page provider before taking action Answer: B – DNR means no CPR; provide comfort care.