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ATP CTP Course - Final Test Questions and Answers Rated A
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Which of the following statements regarding energy is true? - ANSWER - d. Kinetic energy can be traded for potential energy, and potential energy can be traded for kinetic energy The objective in maneuvering the airplane is to manage energy so that: - ANSWER - d. All of the above What is the effect on total drag if airspeed slows below L/D Max? - ANSWER - c. Drag increases because of increased induced drag. A jet pilot flying at L/D Max will obtain best: - ANSWER - b. Endurance When a jet aircraft is flown at the appropriate airspeed for maximum range, which type of drag predominates? - ANSWER - a. Parasite While already at high speed, what happens if Mach is allowed to increase? - ANSWER - d. All of the above What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? - ANSWER - c. A severe moment of "Mach tuck" The speed of sound generally decreases with increasing altitude. This occurs because: - ANSWER - a. The air temperature decreases. Critical Mach number can be defined as: - ANSWER - c. The speed of an aircraft in which airflow over any part of the aircraft or structure first reaches, but doesn't exceed Mach 1.0. Stability in the vertical axis tends to drive the sideslip angle toward zero. The most dynamic stability about the vertical axis on modern jet transports is from: - ANSWER - c. An active stability augmentation system / yaw damper. Swept wings cause a significant: - ANSWER - b. Reduction in effectiveness of flaps. Why is convergence of Stall AOA and Mmo hazardous? - ANSWER - d. All of the above To maintain altitude in a banked turn, the lift produced by the airplane must be: - ANSWER - a. Greater than the airplane weight, and the amount is a function of bank angle. Excessive bank angles at high altitudes can be hazardous because: - ANSWER - d. All of the above When operating at constant speed with constant thrust setting at high altitude (typically above FL250) in slow flight below L/D Max airspeed, any disturbance causing a decrease in airspeed will result in a further decrease in airspeed unless thrust in increased. High altitude recovery from slow flight while turning is best accomplished by: - ANSWER - c. Increasing thrust to maximum available thrust and reducing bank angle while accelerating to airspeed above L/D Max speed. In a thrust limited situation, exiting slow flight will require an immediate descend as an aerodynamic stall is imminent. Maximum Altitude is the highest altitude at which an airplane can be operated. Maximum Altitude for an airplane is: - ANSWER - e. The lowest of the above listed altitudes. Exceed the critical angle of attack and the surface will stall, and lift will decrease instead of increasing. This is true: - ANSWER - d. Regardless of airplane speed or attitude.
Which of the following statements is true? - ANSWER - d. Recovery from approach to stall warning is the same as recovery from a stall. The airplane angle of attack is the angle between the wing chord and the oncoming air or relative wind. - ANSWER - True Airplane stall speeds are published in the Approved Flight Manual for each airplane model. These speeds are presented as a function of aircraft weight. Therefor if the pilot maintains airspeed above the appropriate speed listed for the aircraft weight, the aircraft will not stall. - ANSWER - False The stall speed of an airplane: - ANSWER - b. Is affected by weight and bank angle. Large downward aileron deflections: - ANSWER - a. Cloud induce air separation over that portion of the wing at very high angles of attack. Place the following steps from the stall recovery template in the correct order: - ANSWER - d. Disconnect autopilot and autothrottle / autothurst. b. Apply nose down pitch control until impeding stall indications are eliminated. c. Adjust bank angle to wings level. f. Apply thrust as needed. a. Retract speed brakes and spoilers. e. Return to the desire flight path. The predominant number of airplane upsets are caused by: - ANSWER - a. Environmental factors. Most of the multi-engine turbojet loss-of-control incidents that are caused by environmental factors because of: - ANSWER - d. Wake turbulence When initiating recommended airplane upset recovery techniques, the first two techniques are: - ANSWER - c. Recognize and confirm the situation and disengage the autopilot and auto- throtles. In a nose high, wings level airplane upset, after accomplishing the first two recommended techniques:
planning is complete by signing the: - ANSWER - a. Dispatch release. An item on an MEL has a remark labeled (M). This indicates that: - ANSWER - d. (M)aintenance procedure must be completed before the airplane can be flown. A piece of equipment on your aircraft malfunctions while in flight. Which documents should you consult to determine how to continue? - ANSWER - c. The QRH While reviewing the maintenance log for your aircraft, you discover that a category B item was reported inoperative at 9:15 am on march 17. The aircraft becomes un-airworthy at the stroke of midnight at the end of: - ANSWER - b. March 20 A pilot accidentally taxies across a runway that ATC did not clear them to cross. However, that runway is not currently in use, and so no aircraft were attempting to takeoff or land on that runway. Has the pilot committed a runway incursion? - ANSWER - a. Yes You are taxiing in low visibility at an unfamiliar airport, and you and your captain realize you have become disoriented. Your immediate next step should be: - ANSWER - d. Determine the color of the center-line. The center-line is yellow, so fortunately you are not on a runway. How should you proceed? - ANSWER - c. Stop the aircraft and request progressive taxi instructions from ATC. You are back on track now, and you see a runway hold-short sign coming up. You remember that ATC cleared you to cross this runway; that's good, because it doesn't look like your captain plans to stop. What should you do next? - ANSWER - b. Verbally announce the upcoming hold short line, the scan for traffic on the runway. You reach your assigned takeoff runway, and ATC advises you to line up and wait. Which lights should you turn on? Select all that apply. - ANSWER - a. Logo lights b. Taxi lights d. Rotating beacon e. Anti-collision lights f. Position / navigation lights ATC didn't tell you why you are waiting on the runway. How long should you wait before reminding ATC you are still holding? - ANSWER - c. 90 seconds Which on the following is NOT a stage in a high- bypass turbofan engine? - ANSWER - c. After- burning Pilots of general aviation aircraft commonly make approaches and landings with throttle settings near idle. Why is this technique inappropriate for turbine- powered aircraft? - ANSWER - b. Turbine engines are slow to respond to changes in power setting. Including the allowance for carry-on baggage and personal items, what is the standard average passenger weight currently recommended by the FAA? Assume it is summer. - ANSWER - c. 190 pounds 195 pounds in winter A plane's LEMAC is 500 inches aft of datum and its MAC is 100 inches. You calculate that its center of gravity is located 522 inches aft of datum. What is that CG expressed in %MAC? - ANSWER - b. 22 percent.
To minimize the length of runway required (or equivalently, maximize the weight at which we can take off from a given runway), we select V1 so that: - ANSWER - a. The accelerate-stop distance is equal to the accelerate-go distance. V1 cannot be: - ANSWER - a. Less that Vmcg c. Greater that Vr d. A and C When following the one-engine inoperative climb profile, what is the only configuration change allowed bellow 400 feet? - ANSWER - d. Retracting landing gear. To maximize efficiency, a transport jet should gradually do what throughout a flight? - ANSWER - a. Climb Cyclic abrupt rudder pedal inputs can: - ANSWER - a. Cause structural damage above Va b. Cause structural damage bellow Va d. A and B Technology in modern airplanes reduces the flight crew workload. Therefore, while initiating the recovery from an airplane upset, the pilot should: - ANSWER - c. Reduce the level of automation by disengaging the autopilot and auto-throttles. Where should a pilot look to determine which automation modes are currently active? - ANSWER - b. The flight mode annunciator (FMA) What is the difference between the flight director and the autopilot? - ANSWER - a. The flight director calculates what control movements are required, and the autopilot executes them. It is impossible to stall an airplane with "hard" envelope protections. - ANSWER - b. False ATC instructs you to climb immediately at the same time as a TCAS resolution advisory says "Descend, Descend." You should: - ANSWER - b. Descend While at 15,000 feet, ATC asks you to fly at 280 knots. They then clear you to descend to 8,000 feet. You should: - ANSWER - a. Descend at 280 knots to 10,000 feet, level off and slow down to 250 knots, then continue the descent at 250 knots. The distinguishing feature of RNAV is that it: - ANSWER - c. Allows navigation along a direct route between any two points. While flying a standard RNAV (GPS) approach (special approval not required), how accurate must the navigation system be during the final approach segment? - ANSWER - c. Within 0.3 NM of the desired track, 95 percent of the time. Numerous NTSB investigations have revealed a trend that indicates many accidents are caused by: - ANSWER - d. All of the above In addition to the other pilot(s) on the flight-deck, which of the following groups of people should be included in good CRM? - ANSWER - e. All of the above You are a first officer for a regional airline. You notice that your captain, the pilot flying on this leg, has not slowed to 250 knots before descending through 10,000 feet. Which is the most effective way to raise your concern? - ANSWER - c. "Captain Smith, I am concerned about our airspeed. We are still doing 280 knots, even though we are bellow 10,000 feet"